Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Oral Surgery > AE S1 > Flashcards

AE S1 Flashcards

1
Q

breakdown of living tissue by action of microorganisms (usually inflammatory)

A

sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

avoiding or preventing sepsis

A

asepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

attempt to keep patients, health care staff
and objects as free as possible from
infection causing agents

A

medical asepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

attempt to prevent microbes from gaining
access to surgically created wounds

A

surgical asepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

bacteriostatic chemical applied to living things

A

antiseptic (i.e. povidone iodine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

bacteriostatic chemical used on inanimate objects

A

disinfectant (i.e. Lysol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

absolute state of absence of all forms of
viable microorganisms

A

sterility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

total destruction of all living
microorganisms on any inanimate object or
instrument; not possible in animate surface

A

sterilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

reduction of number of viable
microorganisms to levels judged safe by
public health standards ( not the same as
sterilization )

A

sanitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

similar to sanitization except that it is not
connected to public health standards
To make as clean as possible (not to
disinfect nor s)terilize

A

decontamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

infection passed on from one person to another

A

cross infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Destruction of most microorganisms but not
necessarily all microorganisms (sterility); resistant spores still survive

A

disinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

presence of pathogenic microorganisms in the body following invasion by contaminated material

A

infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

infection originating from within one’s own body

A

endogenous infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

infection from an external source

A

exogenous infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

method or device by which microbes are transmitted from one place or person to another place or person

A

vector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

measure of the ease with which a microorganism breaks down the body’s defenses

A

virulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

infective particle composed of protein and nucleic acid

A

virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

a condition when a person’s natural
immune or defense system is capable of
fighting infection

A

immunocompetent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

a reduction in a person’s natural immunity
due to disease process

A

immunocompromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

a reduction in a person’s natural immunity
due to medication

A

immunosuppressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

pre-operative assessment

A
  • chief complaint
  • HPI
  • family history
  • personal and social history
  • medical history
  • review of systems
  • dental history
  • clinical examination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

symptom vs sign

A

(symptom) what the px feels or sees for themselves

(sign) what a dentist/physician perceives from the px

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how to take HPI

A

OLD CHART

  • onset
  • location
  • duration
  • characteristic symptoms
  • associated manifestations
  • relieving/exacerbating factors
  • treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what to use if px is allergic to latex gloves

A

nitrile gloves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what to use if px is allergic to amide and ester LA

A

use diphenhydramine/benadryl (injectable antihystamine; 1.5-2ml, same fx of anesthesia for 30 mins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

effects of oral contraceptives in OS

A

imbalanced hormones -> increased estrogen -> causes blood clot to dislodge -> dry socket -> delayed healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

LA to avoid if px has liver disease

A

amide LA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

LA to avoid if px has cholinesterase deficiency

A

ester LA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

example of relieving dental anxiety via anxiolytics

A

benzodiazepines (i.e. diazepam)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

normal BP

A

less than 120/80 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

BP: pre hypertension

A

120-139/80-89

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

BP: stage I hypertension

A

140-159/90-99

34
Q

BP: stage II hypertension

A

≥160/≥100

35
Q

BP: hypertensive crisis

A

≥180/≥120

36
Q

hypertension treatments

A
  • ACE inhibitors
  • angiotensin receptor blockers
  • beta blockers
  • calcium channel blockers
  • diuretics
37
Q

hypertension tx: ACE inhibitors

A
  • benazepril
  • captopril
  • enalapril
  • fosinopril
38
Q

hypertension tx: angiotensin receptor blockers

A
  • candesartan
  • eprosartan
  • losartan
39
Q

hypertension tx: beta blockers

A
  • propranolol
  • timolol
  • nadolol
  • pindolol
40
Q

hypertension tx: calcium channel blockers

A
  • amlodipine
  • felodipine
41
Q

hypertension tx: diuretics

A
  • indapamine
  • metalozone
  • metolazone
42
Q

normal pulse rate

A

60-100 bpm

43
Q

where to check pulse rate

A
  • radial artery
  • carotid artery
44
Q

how to check pulse rate

A

count pulse in 1 min or 30 secs x 2

45
Q

increased pulse rate

A

tachycardia

46
Q

decreased pulse rate

A

bradycardia

47
Q

normal respiratory rate

A

12-20 breaths per minute

48
Q

increased respiratory rate

A

tachypnea

49
Q

decreased respiratory rate

A

bradypnea

50
Q

normal temperature

A

37C

51
Q

pyrexia/fever

A

37.2C-37.5C

52
Q

hyperpyrexia

A

41.1C

53
Q

hypothermia

A

below 35C

54
Q

short acting anesthesia (30 mins)

A

mepivacaine 3%

55
Q

intermediate acting anesthesia (60 mins)

A
  • articaine 4% w 1:100,000 epi
  • lidocaine 2% with 1:100,000 epi
  • lidocaine 2% with 1:80,000 epi
56
Q

long acting anesthesia (>90 mins)

A

bupivacaine 0.5% with 1:200,000 epi

57
Q

possible indications of ankle swelling/edema during the day

A
  • CHF
  • pregnancy
  • varicose veins
  • kidney failure
58
Q

possible indications of sudden or unexplained increase in weight of more than 10lbs in the past year

A

heart failure

59
Q

possible indications of sudden or unexplained decrease in weight of more than 10lbs in the past year

A
  • cancer
  • diabetes mellitus
60
Q

possible indications of waking up with shortness of breath

A

paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (CHF; left side heart failure)

61
Q

classification: ASA I

A

healthy px

62
Q

classification: ASA II

A

px with mild systemic disease; under control

63
Q

classification: ASA III

A

px with severe systemic diseases that limits activity but is not incapacitating or w/ 2 systemic diseases

64
Q

classification: ASA IV

A

px w/ incapacitating systemic disease that is a constant threat to life

65
Q

classification: ASA V

A

moribund px not expected to survive 24 hrs w/ or w/o operatiion

66
Q

classification: ASA VI

A

declared brain-dead px whose organs are being removed for donor purposes

67
Q

conditions: ASA I

A

healthy px

68
Q

conditions: ASA II

A
  • mild hypertension
  • well controlled DM
  • asthma
  • rheumatic heart or congenital w/o disability
  • Hepa B w/o active disease process
69
Q

conditions: ASA III

A
  • coronary artery disease
  • emphysema
  • uncontrolled DM
  • hyperthyroidism
  • adrenal insufficiency
  • severe liver &/or kidney
    dysfunction
  • CHF
70
Q

conditions: ASA IV

A
  • MI or CVA within 6 mos.
  • intractable angina pectoris
  • dyspnea at rest
71
Q

general anxiety reduction program: pre-op

A
  • hypnotic agent
  • sedative agent
  • morning appointment
72
Q

general anxiety reduction program: during appointment

A
  • non-pharmacologic means of anxiety control
  • pharmacologic means of anxiety control
73
Q

non-pharmacologic means of anxiety control

A
  • frequent verbal reassurances
  • distracting conversations
  • no surprises, no unnecessary noise
  • surgical instruments out of patient’s site
  • relaxing background music
  • no stress-producing conversations
  • no clanging of instruments
74
Q

pharmacologic means of anxiety control

A
  • LA of sufficient intensity and duration
  • nitrous oxide (not in PH)
75
Q

general anxiety reduction program: post-op

A
  • clear post-op instructions and meds
  • inform px of possible post op sequelae
  • further reassurance
  • effective analgesics
  • give contact numbers px can call for questions and
    concerns
  • call px at home night after surgery to reassure and
    empathize
76
Q

pre-medications 1 hr before surgery to decrease px’s anxiety levels: tranquilizers

A

(benzodiazepenes)
- diazepam
- triazolam
- midazolam
- flurazepam

77
Q

(hypertension) if px takes beta-blockers

A
  • use 3% mepivacaine w/o epinephrine
78
Q

(hypertension) if px takes calcium channel blockers

A
  • avoid erythromycin
  • avoid clarithromycin
  • avoid long term use of NSAID
79
Q

possible drugs myocardial infarction px may be taking

A
  • plavix (stronger anticoagulant)
  • aspirin (blood thinner)
80
Q

drugs to avoid for renal dialysis px

A
  • nephrotoxic drugs (esters, NSAIDs, dyes)
81
Q

how many days until dental appointment can be made for px who just had dialysis

A

2 days after renal dialysis

Oral Surgery (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions