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ADX - WX Flashcards

1
Q

What weather phenomena signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm

A

The start of rain at the surface

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2
Q

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominantly by downdraft?

A

dissipating

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3
Q

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?

A

Continuous updraft

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4
Q

Where do squall lines generally start?

A

Ahead of a cold front

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5
Q

Why are downdrafts in a mature thunderstorm hazardous?

A

Downdrafts are kept cool by cold rain, which tends to accelerate downward velocity

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6
Q

Difference between an air mass thunderstorm and a steady state thunderstorm?

A

Air mass thunderstorm, downdrafts and precipitation, retard, and reverse the up drafts

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7
Q

What type of storms are most likely to produce funnel clouds or tornadoes?

A

Cold front or squall line thunderstorms

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8
Q

When flying over the top of a severe thunderstorm, the cloud should be overflown by at least

A

1000 feet for each 10 kn wind speed.

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9
Q

Which weather condition is an example of a non-frontal instability band

A

Squall line

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10
Q

Steady state thunderstorms are usually associated with?

A

Weather systems

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11
Q

Shear turbulence from a thunderstorm has been encountered?

A

20 miles from the severe thunderstorms.

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12
Q

Downdrafts and the thunderstorm can be expected to exceed

A

2500 feet per minute

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13
Q

Up drafts in the mature stage of a thunderstorm can exceed?

A

6000 feet per minute

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14
Q

Storm gust fronts often move as much as?

A

15 miles ahead of the associated precipitation.

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15
Q

Downdrafts in a thunderstorm may exceeded

A

24 knots

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16
Q

Embedded thunderstorms are most likely to occur

A

In a warm front occlusion

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17
Q

Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL not associated with cloud formations should be reported as?

A

Clear air turbulence (CAT)

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18
Q

A strong wind shear can be expected

A

On the low pressure side of a 100 knot jetstream core

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19
Q

What is a likely location of clear air turbulence?

A

In an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream.

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20
Q

Where do the maximum winds associated with the jetstream usually occur?

A

In the vicinity of breaks in the tropopause on the polar side of the jet core

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21
Q

The rate of decrease of wind speed from the jetstream core is considerably greater on the

A

Polar side

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22
Q

What type of jetstream can be expected to cause the greatest turbulence?

A

A curving jetstream associated with a deep low pressure trough

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23
Q

What weather feature occurs at altitude levels near the tropopause?

A

Maximum wind and narrow wind shear zones.

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24
Q

Where are jet streams normally located?

A

In a break in the tropopause where intensified temperature gradients are located.

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25
Q

Under what conditions would clear air turbulence, most likely be encountered?

A

When constant pressure charts showed 20-knot isotachs less than 150 nautical miles apart.

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26
Q

What action is recommended when encountering turbulence due to a wind shift associated with a sharp pressure trough?

A

Establish a straight course across the storm area/trough

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27
Q

Where is the normal location of the jetstream relative to surface lows and fronts?

A

The jetstream is located north of the surface systems

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28
Q

What type of frontal system is normally crossed by the jetstream?

A

Occluded front

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29
Q

What type of clouds may be associated with the jetstream?

A

Cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jetstream.

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30
Q

Which action is recommended if jetstream turbulence is encountered with the direct headwind or tailwind

A

Change altitude or course to avoid a possible elongated turbulent area

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31
Q

Which action is recommended regarding an altitude change to get out of jetstream turbulence?

A

Descend, if ambient temperature is falling.

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32
Q

The jetstream is a river-like flow of high altitude, wind following the planetary atmospheric wave patterns with speeds of?

A

50 knots or greater

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33
Q

An upper level wind cannot be considered a jetstream, unless the wind speed is at least?

A

50 knots

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34
Q

Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with the jetstream is?

A

Most commonly found in the vicinity of the tropopause.

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35
Q

There are 3 jetstreams….?

A

Polar front, subtropical and the polar night jet streams.

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36
Q

The threshold wind speed in the jetstream for clear air turbulence is generally considered to be

A

110 knots

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37
Q

In the mid latitudes, wind speed in the jetstream averages considered less in the?

A

Summer

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38
Q

Jet streams are strongest during which season in the northern hemisphere?

A

Winter

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39
Q

Where does the highest wind shear exist associated with the jet-stream?

A

Near the tropopause on the poleward side of the jet-stream.

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40
Q

Which area or areas of the hemisphere experience generally east to west movement of weather systems

A

Arctic and subtropical

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41
Q

Summer thunderstorms in the Arctic region will generally move

A

Northeast to southwest in Polar easterlies

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42
Q

A cyclone is similar to a tropical storm in (????)

A

The Indian ocean with winds of 64 Knots or more*

  • the tropical storm has winds of 34 to 63 kn
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43
Q

Gusts in tropical cyclones connect to the average one minute wind speed by as much as

A

50%

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44
Q

Tropical depression has formed when

A

The highest sustained winds have reached 33 knots

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45
Q

What is the characteristic of the troposphere?

A

There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase in altitude

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46
Q

Which feature is associated with the tropopause

A

Abrupt change of temperature lapse rate

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47
Q

The tropopause is generally found when the free air temperatures are

A

Between -55 Celsius and 65 Celsius

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48
Q

The tropopause varies in height from

A

20,000 feet or below at the poles to 65,000 thousand feet at the equator

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49
Q

Where is a common location for an inversion?

A

In the stratosphere

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50
Q

What condition produces the most frequent type of ground or surface based temperature inversion

A

Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night

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51
Q

What condition produces the most frequent type of ground or surface based temperature inversion

A

Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night

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52
Q

What term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed?

A

Adiabatic

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53
Q

What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing up slope

A

3°C per 1000 feet

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54
Q

What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing up slope

A

3°C per 1000 feet

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55
Q

Which process causes adiabatic cooling

A

Expansion of the air as it rises

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56
Q

Adiabatic warming is also described as

A

Compression heating

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57
Q

What is a feature of air movement in a high-pressure area?

A

Descending to the surface and then outward

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58
Q

Where is the usual location of a thermal low?

A

Over the surface of a dry, sunny region.

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59
Q

What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)?

A

Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.

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60
Q

Low pressure areas or areas of?

A

Ascending air

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61
Q

If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at Flight level 350 what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude?

A

Higher than pressure altitude

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62
Q

If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude

A

True altitude is lower than 31,000 feet

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63
Q

Which pressure is defined as station pressure?

A

Actual pressure at field elevation,

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64
Q

Isobars on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure

A

Reduced to sea level

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65
Q

When the temperature is -20 Celsius at 15,000 feet indicated, you know that?

A

The altimeter is indicating higher than true altitude.

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66
Q

Given :
PA = 1.000ft
True air temperature = 10°C.
From the conditions given the approximate density altitude is?

A

650 feet MSL

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67
Q

At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction

A

Decreases wind, speed, and Coriolis force

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68
Q

Which type wind flows down slope, becoming warmer and dryer?

A

Katabatic wind

69
Q

At which location does Coriolis forest have the least effect on wind direction?

A

At the equator

70
Q

Land surface heating on the coast results in?

A

A sea breeze

71
Q

Land surface cooling on the coast results in?

A

A land breeze

72
Q

What is the result when water vapor changes to the liquid state while being lifted in a thunderstorm?

A

Latent heat is released to the atmosphere

73
Q

Cloud formation is a process of?

A

Extensional cooling

74
Q

How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?

A

Ambient temperature laps rate

75
Q

When saturated air moves downhill, its temperature increases?

A

At a slower rate than dry air because vaporization uses heat.

76
Q

If a sample of air is forced upward, and it is colder than the surrounding air, it?

A

Sinks until it reaches denser air.

77
Q

What is a feature of a stationary front?

A

Surface winds tend to flow parallel to the frontal zone.

78
Q

Which event usually occurs after an aircraft passes through a front into the colder air?

A

Atmospheric pressure increases.

79
Q

What weather change can be expected in an area where frontolysis is reported?

A

The front Is the dissipaating.

80
Q

Which atmospheric factor causes rapid movement of surface fronts?

A

Upper winds blowing across the front.

81
Q

In which meteorological conditions can frontal waves and low pressure areas form?

A

Slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts.

82
Q

What weather differences found on each side of a dry line?

A

Dewpoint difference

83
Q

Dewpoint fronts result from

A

An air density difference due to the humidity levels

84
Q

Dewpoint fronts are also called

A

Dry lines

85
Q

Steep frontal surfaces are usually associated with?

A

Fast moving cold front

86
Q

Shallow frontal surfaces tend to give?

A

Extensive cloudiness and large areas of precipitation.

87
Q

When may has to just wind shear be expected?

A

In areas of low level, temperature, inversions, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence.

88
Q

If the winds aloft are blowing across the front?

A

The front can be expected to move with the upper winds.

89
Q

If the winds aloft are blowing parallel to the front?

A

The front moves slowly if it all.

90
Q

Which is the definition of severe wind shear?

A

Any rapid change in Nguyen direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes greater than 15 kn or vertical speed changes greater than 500 feet/minute.

91
Q

Which initial cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind?

A

Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease.

92
Q

Which condition should initially cause the indicated airspeed and pitched to increase and the sink rate to decrease?

A

Sudden decrease in a headwind component.

93
Q

Which initial cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind?

A

Altitude, pitch, an indicated airspeed increase.

94
Q

Which is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear?

A

Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude, and except the lower than normal airspeed indications

95
Q

Which windshield condition results in a loss of airspeed?

A

Decreasing headwind and increased in tailwind.

96
Q

Which wind shear condition results in an increase in airspeed?

A

Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.

97
Q

In comparison to an approach in a moderate headwind, which is an indication of a possible wind share due to a decreasing headwind when descending on the glideslope?

A

Higher pitch attitude is required.

98
Q

Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity?

A

Loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance.

99
Q

The rust is being managed to maintain desired, indicated airspeed, and the glide slope is being flown. Which characteristics should be observed when a tailwind shears to a constant headwind.

A

Pitch attitude: increases
Vertical speed: decreases
Airspeed: increases, then decreases

100
Q

When thrust is being used to manage the glideslope, which characteristic should be observed when a headwind cheers to a constant tailwind

A

Decrease in pitch, increase in vertical speed, and loss of airspeed followed by on speed indications

101
Q

How will increasing tailwind sheer affect aircraft performance on takeoff?

A

Airspeed will continue to decrease after the aircraft lifts off.

102
Q

You can expect turbulence when winds?

A

Exceed 40 kn across the mountains.

103
Q

Moderate CAT is considered likely?

A

When the vertical windshield is 5 kn per 1000 feet or greater and/or the horizontal wind shear is 40 kn per 150 miles or greater.

104
Q

Which is one of the three key elements in an effective clear air turbulence avoidance system?

A

Dedicated planning/dispatch function.

105
Q

What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?

A

Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the bird strikes the ground until dissipation

106
Q

What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?

A

Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the bird strikes the ground until dissipation.

107
Q

Microburst downdraft maximum winds, may be as strong as?

A

6000 ft./min.

108
Q

An aircraft encounters, the headwind of 40 knots, with a microburst, may expect a total shear across the micro burst of?

A

80 knots

109
Q

Doppler wind measurements indicate that the wind speed change a pilot may expect when flying through the peak intensity of a microburst is approximately

A

45 knots

110
Q

Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vertices of the greatest strength?

A

Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.

111
Q

How does the week turbulence vortex circulate around each wing tip?

A

Outward, upward, and around the wingtip.

112
Q

Which statement is true concerning the weak turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft?

A

The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed

113
Q

To avoid the wind tip vertices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should?

A

Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplanes flight path

114
Q

If you takeoff behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off?

A

Beyond the point where the jet touched down.

115
Q

METAR UTC time is

A

Central Standard Time or 6 hours behind UTC

131753 = 13th day of month @ 1753 UUC or 1153 CST

116
Q

METAR VV improved from M01 to

A

VV010 30 = improved by 2000 ft

117
Q

METAR KCDS -SHRA

A

Light rain showers

118
Q

METAR KDAL - A3007

A

Altimeter setting = 30.07

119
Q

METAR- KAMA Peak wind at.

A

RMK PK WND 32039 / 43 at 1743Z

120
Q

METAR KGLS SPECI Reports…

A

RMK RAB57 = Rain began at 57 past the hour

121
Q

Method used to obtain METAR at KTYR…

A

AUTO = ASOS (Automated Surface Observing System)

122
Q

METAR - What weather condition reported at KMFA?

A

Rain of unknown intensity = RMK RAE44 (at 16 mins before the hour)

123
Q

METAR - What change occurred at KSPS between 1757 and 1820 UTC?

A

FC - A funnel cloud was observed

124
Q

How many hours behind Zulu time is Central Standard Time?

A

6 hours
1753 Zulu is 1153 CST

125
Q

What does -SHRA mean?

A

Light rain showers

126
Q

What does A3007 mean?

A

Altimeter setting is 30.07

127
Q

METAR 131755Z … RMK PK WND 32039 / 43…

A

Peak wind at 320 degrees at 39 knots occurred 43 mins past the hour.

128
Q

SPECI KGLS …..RMK RAB57…

A

Rain began 57 past the hour

129
Q

METAR KTYR 131753Z AUTO…. What does AUTO mean?

A

Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS).

130
Q

METAR KMAF … RMK RAE44?

A

Rain of unknown intensity ended at 16 minutes before the hour.

131
Q

METAR KARG ….+RA OVC010 29/28? what was the ceiling?

A

1,000 feet AGL

132
Q

METAR KFSM … M1/4SM …. $ What does M mean, and what is the visibility, and what is the $?

A

M = less
Visibility is M1/4SM = less than 1/4 mile
$ = maintenance needed

133
Q

METAR KFSM …. -RA FG VV001 What does VV mean?

A

A 100-foot indefinite ceiling

134
Q

A squall line is a sudden increase of at least (?)knots and speed rising to (?) or more for 1 minute or longer?

A

Wind speed of at least 16 knots, the speed rising to 22 knots or more for 1 minute or longer.

135
Q

METAR KSFO … SLO993 6//// means?

A

Sea-level pressure of 999.3 hectopascals and an inderterminable amount of rain has occurred over the last 3 hours

When a trace/indeterminable amount of precipitation has occurred, then 4 forward slashes will follow a ‘6’ (6////).

136
Q

Data that may be added to the AWOS is?

A

Thunderstorms (intensity and direction), precipitation (type and intensity), and obstructions to visibility (dependent on the visibility being 3 miles or less).

137
Q

METAR KSFO … what does SLO993 SNINCR mean?

A

999.3 hectopascals and a snow depth of 10” and a 1” increase in the last hour.

138
Q

What hazard should be expected at KPDX ….METAR ….CLR -10/-10 A2979?

A

Frost on the aircraft.

139
Q

What type of turbulence should be reported when it causes slight, rapid, and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness without appreciable changes in attitude or altitude?

A

Occasional light chop.

140
Q

What turbulence should be reported if it causes changes in attitude and/or altitude more than 2/3 of the time with the aircraft remaining in positive control at all times?

A

Continuous moderate turbulence.

141
Q

What turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in attitude and/or altitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time?

A

Intermittent light turbulence.

142
Q

The pilot reports what ceiling at KFTW? METAR … SCRI31-TOO043/BKN060-TOP085 /IVC097…

A

Believed to be 6,000 feet, but not sure. Cloud bases in PIREP’s are reported in MSL, unless otherwise indicated.

143
Q

How is icing reported in a PIREP?

A

Rate of accumulation.

144
Q

What is indicated by the following report?

TYR UUA/OV…MID-SEV CAT 350-399?

A

An urgent pilot report for moderate to severe CAT.

145
Q

How would you receive in-flight weather for a destination 150 nm away?

A

Review the destination’s METAR and TAF through FIS-B.

FIS = Flight Information Services

146
Q

How would you receive in-flight weather for a destination 150 nm away?

A

Review the destination’s METAR and TAF through FIS-B.

FIS = Flight Information Services

147
Q

Enroute weather advisories should be obtained from FSS on?

A

122.2 MHz.

148
Q

Volcanic ash advisories are updated every?

A

6 hours

149
Q

What is the forecast temperature in the winds/temperature aloft forecast (FB) at 3,000 ft.

A

Never reported for 3,000 ft.

150
Q

What is the wind direction and speed aloft for FL 390 - “750649”?

A

250 @ 106 knots

750 implies winds are over 100 knots or more. “50” is added for wind direction. 75-50 = 250, so wind direction is 250. adding to the “06” = 106 knots.

151
Q

A station reports winds at 280 degrees at 205 knots. How would this be encoded in FB?

A

789951

“99” is used if winds are over 199 knots and 50 is added to the 2 digits.

152
Q

ABI Winds and Temperature Aloft at FL330 = 2400833?

A

240 degrees, 08 knots, -33 degrees Celsius.

153
Q

A PROB40 HHhh group in the International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) indicates….

A

Thunderstorms or other precipitation.

154
Q

Which primary source contains expected weather at the destination airport at the ETA?

A

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast

155
Q

Weather conditions expected to occur in the vicinity of the airport, but not at the airport are denoted with “VC” in the TAF, and covers….?

A

A 5-10 statute mile radius from the airport.

156
Q

Weather conditions expected to occur in the vicinity of the airport, but not at the airport are denoted with “VC” in the TAF, and covers….?

A

A 5-10 statute mile radius from the airport.

157
Q

What are the only cloud types forecast in the TAF?

A

Cumulonimbus

158
Q

What weather is predicted by “VCTS” in the TAF?

A

Thunderstorms are expected in the vicinity.

159
Q

How is information from a SIGMET obtained?

A

By contacting the nearest FSS.

160
Q

Which type of conditions are covers in a Convective SIGMET?

A

Embedded thunderstorms, lines of thunderstorms, and thunderstorms with 3/4” hail or tornadoes.

161
Q

A severe thunderstorm has surface winds of…?

A

58 mph or higher and hail of 3/4” in diameter or more.

162
Q

What sources reflect the most accurate information on current and forecast icing conditions?

A

PIREPs, AIRMET ZULUs, and SIGMETs

163
Q

Convective SIGMETs are issued for a line of thunderstorms at least….?

A

60 miles long with thunderstorms affecting 40% of its length.

164
Q

Convective SIGMETs are issued for severe thunderstorms….

A

Occurring for more than 30 mins of the valid period.

165
Q

A SIGMET is issued when weather affects….?

A

3,000 square miles or more.

166
Q

SIGMETs may not be valid for more than….?

A

4 hours for other phenomena.

167
Q

The FAA’s Flight Information Services DataLink (FISDL) is designed to provide common frequency to flight crews from?

A

17,500 feet MSL down to 5,000 feet AGL.

168
Q

The FISDL provides the following products?

A

METARs, SIGMETs, PIREPs, and AIRMETs.

169
Q

What weather database can a dispatcher access concerning wind shear activity?

A

The Terminal Information for Pilot System (TWIP).

ADX (2 decks)

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