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ADX > ADX - IFR > Flashcards

ADX - IFR Flashcards

1
Q

What information must be entered into an international flight plan in terms of endurance?

A

The amount of usable fuel expressed in time (hours and minutes).

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2
Q

What information should be entered in an IFR flight plan for the destination aerodrome with an intended stopover of 30 minutes?

A

The ICAO four letter indicator of the airport, the first intended landing.

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3
Q

What information should be entered in destination aerodrome for a VFR flight with an Intended stopover of 30 minutes?

A

The ICAO four letter indicator of the destination airport.

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4
Q

What is the suggested time interval for filing and requesting an IFR flight plan?

A

File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and request the clearance not more than 10 minutes prior to taxi.

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5
Q

How should the route flight be defined on an IFR flight plan?

A

A simplified route via airways or jet routes with transitions.

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6
Q

How should an off airway direct flight be defined on an IFR flight plan?

A

Radio fixes over which the flight will pass.

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7
Q

Under what condition may a pilot file and IFR flight plan containing a special or privately owned IAP?

A

Upon approval of the owner.

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8
Q

Before requesting RVSM clearance each person…

A

Shall correctly annotate the flight plan. 

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9
Q

In what way are SIDs depicted in plan view?

A

“Vectors” provided for navigational guidance or “Pilot NAV” with courses the Pilot is responsible to follow.

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10
Q

What is the primary purpose of STAR?

A

Simplified clearance delivery procedures.

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11
Q

When does ATC issue a STAR?

A

Only when ATC deems it appropriate.

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12
Q

What information does a FINCON NOTAM provide for a paved runway?

A

Containment measurements.

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13
Q

FINCON NOTAMs disseminate what type of information?

A

Surface conditions of landing, runways, taxiways, and aprons.

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14
Q

A runway condition code (ReyCC) will not be issued by ATC if all three segments of a runway are reporting values of?

A

6

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15
Q

What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach?

A

A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact approach is initiated by the Pilot.

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16
Q

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, what actions should the pilot take?

A

Make a climbing turn toward the landing, runway until established on the approach course.

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17
Q

What terms will a pilot use when reporting braking action?

A

Good, good to medium, medium medium to poor, poor, nil.

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18
Q

When may a pilot execute a missed approach during an ASR approach?

A

Anytime at the pilots discretion. [AIM 5-4-11].

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19
Q

When being vectored to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to published altitudes?

A

Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.

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20
Q

What action should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR approach?

A

Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course. [AIM 5-4-3]

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21
Q

What reports are always required when on an IFR approach not in radar contact?

A

Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker, inbound and missed approach. [AIM 5-3-3]

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22
Q

Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to…?

A

Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable. [AIM4-4-16]

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23
Q

Each pilot deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory, is expected to notify ATC and…?

A

Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved. [AIM 4-4-16]

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24
Q

TCAS I I space provides?

A

Traffic and resolution advisories.

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25
Q

TCAS I provides?

A

Proximity warning.

26
Q

It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report near mid air collision as a result of proximity of at least…?

A

500 feet or less to another aircraft.

27
Q

What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency?

A

Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety.

28
Q

Which codes should a pilot of void when switching through the transponder codes?

A

7500, 7600, and 7700 series.

29
Q

Which codes should a pilot of void when switching through the transponder codes?

A

7500, 7600, and 7700 series.

30
Q

What is the hijack code?

A

7500

31
Q

What condition would cause an air traffic controller to issue you a safety alert?

A

When the aircraft attitude places it in an unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft.

32
Q

Under what conditions should a pilot on IFR ad advise ATC of minimum fuel status?

A

If upon reaching destination, the remaining fuel will preclude any undo delay.

33
Q

What separation or service by ATC is afforded pilots authorized “VFR on top”?

A

Traffic advisories only.

34
Q

What cloud clearance must be complied with when authorized to remain maintain “VFR on top”?

A

May maintain VR clearance above, below, or between layers.

35
Q

When ATC assigns a speed adjustment to an aircraft operating at FL270, it will be at a speed, not less than?

A

250 knots.

36
Q

An airplane operating in cruise at 10,000 feet, 200 knots calibrated with an OAT of 68° F has a true airspeed of…?

A

244 knots.

37
Q

When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation what minimum speed may ATC request for a turbine powered aircraft operating below 10,000 feet?

A

210 knots.

38
Q

When a speed adjustment is Eno to maintain separation with minimum speed may ATC request for a turbine powered aircraft departing an airport?

A

230 knots.

39
Q

Which of the following reports should always be made to ATC?

A

When leaving and assigned holding fix.

40
Q

All ATC facilities, using radar weather processors with the ability to determine precipitation intensities will describe the intensity as?

A

Light, moderate, heavy, extreme.

41
Q

Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment?

A

Vacating an altitude……

42
Q

What action should a pilot take? If asked by a RTCC to “verify 9000“ and the Flight is actually maintaining 8000?

A

Report maintaining 8000.

43
Q

While airborne and below the MEA, the pilot accepts an IFR clearance so responsibility for terrain and obstruction clearance remains with the pilot unless?

A

The pilot advises that she is unable to maintain terrain/obstruction clearance.

44
Q

While holding short for an intersection takeoff, runway 36 at taxiway C, tower clears you to “lineup and wait, runway 36.” you should?

A

Lineup and wait on runway 36 at intersection C for departure.

45
Q

An ATC “instruction”….?

A

Is it directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action providing the safety of the aircraft is not jeopardized.

46
Q

What is the pilots responsibility for clearance or instruction readback?

A

Except for SIDs, read-back, altitude, assignments, altitude, restrictions, and vectors

47
Q

What action should a pilot take if within three minutes of a clearance limit and further clearance has not been received?

A

Start a speed reduction to holding speed in preparation for holding.

48
Q

What action should a pilot take when a clearance is received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a regulation?

A

Request a clarification from ATC.

49
Q

ATC instruct you to taxi to runway 12 via taxiway K, cross runway 34R, and hold short of runway 30. You know…

A

To taxi on K from the terminal ramp, cross 34R, and then hold short of runway 30.

50
Q

At Long Beach (LGB) HS5 probably points out a potential operational risk of an airplane

A

Landing runway 7R and mistakenly crossing runway 34L while taxing on taxiway F.

51
Q

At Long Beach, parentheses LGB), HS2 probably points to a potential incursion hazard of an airplane…?

A

Landing on 25R and clearing at taxiway B, which crosses runway 30.

52
Q

At Fort Lauderdale, HS one probably points out a potential incursion risk of an airplane…?

A

Taxing on runway 09L instead of runway 13 as instructed for takeoff.

53
Q

(Refer to figure 243 and 244.)

At Fort Lauderdale, HS5 probably points out a potential operational risk of an air …?

A

Mistaken taxi Wade for runway 09L and making the takeoff rule on the taxiway.

54
Q

An airport movement area is?

A

An area requiring permission from ATC to move an aircraft.

55
Q

Aircraft are expected to…?

A

Depart no earlier than five minutes before and no later than five minutes after the EDCT. [AIM PCG]

56
Q

What special consideration is given to turbine powered aircraft when “gate hold” procedures are in effect?

A

Expected to be ready for takeoff when they reach the runway or warm up block.

57
Q

What action should the pilot take when “gate hold” procedures are in effect?

A

Contact ground control prior to starting engines for sequencing.

58
Q

Under what conditions does a pilot receive a “void time” specified in the clearance?

A

On an uncontrolled airport.

59
Q

What is the normal procedure for IFR departures at locations with pre-taxi clearance programs?

A

Pilots request IFR clearance 10 minutes or less prior to taxi, then request taxi clearance from ground control.

60
Q

[Referred to figure 269.]

The flight is filed scenic one departure, Debt transition. Before reaching MOXIE intersection, ATC clears you to left turn heading 030 and proceeded direct LAHAB intersection. After the turn, you realize you cannot cross LAHAB at 15,000. What should you do if you are in IMC.?

A

Advised departure control you cannot make the clearance and request radar vectors.

61
Q

An off route altitude which provides obstruction clearance of 1000 feet in non-mountainous terrain areas and 2000 feet in designated mountainous areas within the United States is called?

A

OROCA (off route obstruction clearance altitude).

ADX (2 decks)

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