Advance Class Flashcards

1
Q

Nausea and vomiting always come in pair.

A

False

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2
Q

A pregnant woman who is on her 1st trimester complains of being nauseous every morning and at times vomits around 2 times in a week. You are correct to expect which of the following intervention/s? Select all that apply.

A

Give anti-emetics as ordered by the physician only when there is hyperemesis gravidarum.

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3
Q

During a lengthy travel, Mr. X takes antihistamines to prevent motion sickness. What cranial nerve is being affected in this scenario?

A

CN VIII

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4
Q

What is being stimulated/irritated during chemotherapy or radiation therapy that eventually stimulates vomiting of the patient?

A

Chemoreceptor trigger zone

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5
Q

A patient is admitted to the neuro ward due to a vehicular accident. What description of the patient’s vomit will notify an increase in intracranial pressure?

A

Vomit is ejected in a projectile manner

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6
Q

A patient suddenly vomited around 150ce of gastric contents. The nurse is expected to prioritize which of the following?

A

Instruct the patient not to ingest any food and liquids until further notice

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7
Q

Frequent vomiting will result in which of the following acid-base imbalance?

A

Metabolic Alkalosis

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8
Q

Which of the following can be absorbed in the stomach?

A

Aspirin; Alcohol

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9
Q

Which of the following scenario causes gastritis due to food poisoning?

A

Toxins of infectious organisms

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10
Q

What cell is being attacked in autoimmune gastritis?

A

Parietal cells

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11
Q

What does the cell of your answer in no. 10 secrete that prevents a certain type of anemia?

A

Intrinsic factor

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12
Q

What test is being requested by the physician to check for the absence of the answer in no. 11?

A

Schilling’s test

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13
Q

What pathologic agent is the most common cause of peptic ulcer disease?

A

H. pylori

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14
Q

What blood group is more prevalent in developing Peptic Ulcer Disease?

A

Blood group O

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15
Q

Burn patients will most likely develop what type of Peptic Ulcer Disease?

A

Stress-induced ulcer

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16
Q

Billroth II has a lengthier removal of the GI tract compared to Billroth I.

A

True

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17
Q

What is another term for dumping syndrome?

A

Rapid gastric emptying

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18
Q

Dumping syndrome occurs how many minutes after eating?

A

10-30 minutes

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19
Q

What organ/s does not compromise the digestive tract?

A

Liver

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20
Q

What substance in the saliva digests complex sugar?

A

Lingual Lipase

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21
Q

What abdominal quadrant suggests appendicitis?

A

Right Lower Quadrant

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22
Q

What is the primary organ that is responsible for catabolism and anabolism?

A

LIVER

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23
Q

Movement of the digestive tract is called peristalsis. What type of muscle tissue is responsible for this movement?

A

MUSCLE TISSUE

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24
Q

What is the shortest part of the small intestine?

A

DUODENUM

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25
Accessory organs are part of the digestive tract.
FALSE
26
What are the part/s of the colon?
ASCENDING COLON TRANSVERSE COLON DESCENDING COLON
27
What anatomical landmark will you include to know the approximate measurement of the NGT to be inserted to the patient?
Diagphragm Xiphoid Process Ear
28
A patient is complaining heart burn. You are well aware that heart burn is a burning sensation of the esophagus and not the heart.
True
29
Black tarry stool may indicate lower GI bleeding.
False
30
A patient with upper G1 bleeding is expected to observe no dark colored food.
False
31
What sphincter prevents gastric acid to leak or flow from the stomach to the esophagus?
ESOPHAGEAL SPHINCTER
32
What substance/chemical has the ability to emulsify fat?
Bile
33
Excess protein, carbohydrates, and fats will be exported as fatty acids.
True
34
In assessing the abdomen, the order should be inspection, auscultation, palpation, and percussion
False
35
In palpating the abdomen, there is no consensus as to what quadrant will be palpated first.
True
36
Auscultation is done before palpation and percussion because palpation and percussion cause movement or stimulation of the bladder
False
37
In auscultating bowel sounds, there is no consensus on what quadrant assess first as long as all four quadrants will be assessed
True
38
Hypoactive bowel sounds have 3-6 sounds heard in 6 minutes.
True
39
During percussion of the abdomen, you will be expecting dullness if the client has ascites.
True
40
Patient is placed on low fiber diet prior to upper gastrointestinal series.
False
41
The patient informed the nurse that the color of his stool is white. As the nurse, you know that this just normal before barium swallow.
False
42
Both barium swallow and barium enema utilizes the same contrast medium and route.
False
43
The upper and lower endoscopy uses a scope that is being inserted in the mouth.
False
44
Patients undergoing endoscopy is sedated.
True
45
Patients who underwent esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EOD) will resume regular diet after cough reflex has returned.
False
46
Anticholinergic drugs are expected to have sympathetic effect.
True
47
As a nurse, you should place the patient in Sims position during sigmoidoscopy
True
48
A nursing responsibility in the ultrasound of the abdomen is for the patient 20 have a full bladder.
False
49
A red bloody stool may indicate bleeding from gastric ulcer.
False
50
Instruct the patient not to fill the whole container with stool during collection of specimen.
True
51
It is expected of a patient with biliary obstruction to have an increase cholesterol levels in the blood.
True
52
Fecal occult blood test is a test that measures blood that can be seen by the naked eye
False
53
Stool culture and sensitivity is a stool examination that determines the bacteria and identifies if they are sensitive to a specific drug
True
54
Ostomy is an artificial opening.
True
55
Ileostomy is an artificial opening made with the small intestine
True
56
J-pouch is the most common pouch and the easiest to perform
True
57
It is expected that a normal stool for patients with ileostomy is formed
False
58
A patient with ileostomy will have a better absorption compared to a patient with colostomy
False
59
Normal stoma color is pink to bright red and shiny.
True
60
Purple to black stoma indicates compromised circulation and requires physician notification
True
61
In caring for a patient with colostomy, the nurse should empty the pouch when it is half full.
False
62
When giving health teaching to a patient with colostomy, the nurse should instruct the patient to avoid gas forming food
True
63
In draining T-tube, patient should be placed in a lateral position to facilitate drainage.
False
64
Both marasmus and kwashiorkor have protein deficiency
True
65
Malnourished individuals are most likely to be immunocompromised.
True
66
An individual with protein deficiency is expected to have edema.
True
67
The root cause of edema in patients with malnutrition is a weak immune system
False
68
Patients with anorexia nervosa view themselves as fat even though they are already thin
True
69
Both individuals with anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa have a profound weight loss.
False
70
In inducing vomiting, you are well aware that pressing the anterior part of the tongue can elicit it.
False
71
An obese person is expected to have a lesser water content in the body
True
72
Congenital weakness of the muscles of the diaphragm causes hiatal hernia.
True