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NCM 216 META/GI/ENDO > Advance Class > Flashcards

Advance Class Flashcards

1
Q

Nausea and vomiting always come in pair.

A

False

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2
Q

A pregnant woman who is on her 1st trimester complains of being nauseous every morning and at times vomits around 2 times in a week. You are correct to expect which of the following intervention/s? Select all that apply.

A

Give anti-emetics as ordered by the physician only when there is hyperemesis gravidarum.

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3
Q

During a lengthy travel, Mr. X takes antihistamines to prevent motion sickness. What cranial nerve is being affected in this scenario?

A

CN VIII

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4
Q

What is being stimulated/irritated during chemotherapy or radiation therapy that eventually stimulates vomiting of the patient?

A

Chemoreceptor trigger zone

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5
Q

A patient is admitted to the neuro ward due to a vehicular accident. What description of the patient’s vomit will notify an increase in intracranial pressure?

A

Vomit is ejected in a projectile manner

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6
Q

A patient suddenly vomited around 150ce of gastric contents. The nurse is expected to prioritize which of the following?

A

Instruct the patient not to ingest any food and liquids until further notice

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7
Q

Frequent vomiting will result in which of the following acid-base imbalance?

A

Metabolic Alkalosis

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8
Q

Which of the following can be absorbed in the stomach?

A

Aspirin; Alcohol

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9
Q

Which of the following scenario causes gastritis due to food poisoning?

A

Toxins of infectious organisms

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10
Q

What cell is being attacked in autoimmune gastritis?

A

Parietal cells

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11
Q

What does the cell of your answer in no. 10 secrete that prevents a certain type of anemia?

A

Intrinsic factor

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12
Q

What test is being requested by the physician to check for the absence of the answer in no. 11?

A

Schilling’s test

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13
Q

What pathologic agent is the most common cause of peptic ulcer disease?

A

H. pylori

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14
Q

What blood group is more prevalent in developing Peptic Ulcer Disease?

A

Blood group O

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15
Q

Burn patients will most likely develop what type of Peptic Ulcer Disease?

A

Stress-induced ulcer

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16
Q

Billroth II has a lengthier removal of the GI tract compared to Billroth I.

A

True

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17
Q

What is another term for dumping syndrome?

A

Rapid gastric emptying

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18
Q

Dumping syndrome occurs how many minutes after eating?

A

10-30 minutes

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19
Q

What organ/s does not compromise the digestive tract?

A

Liver

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20
Q

What substance in the saliva digests complex sugar?

A

Lingual Lipase

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21
Q

What abdominal quadrant suggests appendicitis?

A

Right Lower Quadrant

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22
Q

What is the primary organ that is responsible for catabolism and anabolism?

A

LIVER

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23
Q

Movement of the digestive tract is called peristalsis. What type of muscle tissue is responsible for this movement?

A

MUSCLE TISSUE

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24
Q

What is the shortest part of the small intestine?

A

DUODENUM

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25
Q

Accessory organs are part of the digestive tract.

A

FALSE

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26
Q

What are the part/s of the colon?

A

ASCENDING COLON
TRANSVERSE COLON
DESCENDING COLON

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27
Q

What anatomical landmark will you include to know the approximate measurement of the NGT to be inserted to the patient?

A

Diagphragm
Xiphoid Process
Ear

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28
Q

A patient is complaining heart burn. You are well aware that heart burn is a burning sensation of the esophagus and not the heart.

A

True

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29
Q

Black tarry stool may indicate lower GI bleeding.

A

False

30
Q

A patient with upper G1 bleeding is expected to observe no dark colored food.

A

False

31
Q

What sphincter prevents gastric acid to leak or flow from the stomach to the esophagus?

A

ESOPHAGEAL SPHINCTER

32
Q

What substance/chemical has the ability to emulsify fat?

A

Bile

33
Q

Excess protein, carbohydrates, and fats will be exported as fatty acids.

A

True

34
Q

In assessing the abdomen, the order should be inspection, auscultation, palpation, and percussion

A

False

35
Q

In palpating the abdomen, there is no consensus as to what quadrant will be palpated first.

A

True

36
Q

Auscultation is done before palpation and percussion because palpation and percussion cause movement or stimulation of the bladder

A

False

37
Q

In auscultating bowel sounds, there is no consensus on what quadrant assess first as long as all four quadrants will be assessed

A

True

38
Q

Hypoactive bowel sounds have 3-6 sounds heard in 6 minutes.

A

True

39
Q

During percussion of the abdomen, you will be expecting dullness if the client has ascites.

A

True

40
Q

Patient is placed on low fiber diet prior to upper gastrointestinal series.

A

False

41
Q

The patient informed the nurse that the color of his stool is white. As the nurse, you know that this just normal before barium swallow.

A

False

42
Q

Both barium swallow and barium enema utilizes the same contrast medium and route.

A

False

43
Q

The upper and lower endoscopy uses a scope that is being inserted in the mouth.

A

False

44
Q

Patients undergoing endoscopy is sedated.

A

True

45
Q

Patients who underwent esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EOD) will resume regular diet after cough reflex has returned.

A

False

46
Q

Anticholinergic drugs are expected to have sympathetic effect.

A

True

47
Q

As a nurse, you should place the patient in Sims position during sigmoidoscopy

A

True

48
Q

A nursing responsibility in the ultrasound of the abdomen is for the patient 20 have a full bladder.

A

False

49
Q

A red bloody stool may indicate bleeding from gastric ulcer.

A

False

50
Q

Instruct the patient not to fill the whole container with stool during collection of specimen.

A

True

51
Q

It is expected of a patient with biliary obstruction to have an increase cholesterol levels in the blood.

A

True

52
Q

Fecal occult blood test is a test that measures blood that can be seen by the naked eye

A

False

53
Q

Stool culture and sensitivity is a stool examination that determines the bacteria and identifies if they are sensitive to a specific drug

A

True

54
Q

Ostomy is an artificial opening.

A

True

55
Q

Ileostomy is an artificial opening made with the small intestine

A

True

56
Q

J-pouch is the most common pouch and the easiest to perform

A

True

57
Q

It is expected that a normal stool for patients with ileostomy is formed

A

False

58
Q

A patient with ileostomy will have a better absorption compared to a patient with colostomy

A

False

59
Q

Normal stoma color is pink to bright red and shiny.

A

True

60
Q

Purple to black stoma indicates compromised circulation and requires physician notification

A

True

61
Q

In caring for a patient with colostomy, the nurse should empty the pouch when it is half full.

A

False

62
Q

When giving health teaching to a patient with colostomy, the nurse should instruct the patient to avoid gas forming food

A

True

63
Q

In draining T-tube, patient should be placed in a lateral position to facilitate drainage.

A

False

64
Q

Both marasmus and kwashiorkor have protein deficiency

A

True

65
Q

Malnourished individuals are most likely to be immunocompromised.

A

True

66
Q

An individual with protein deficiency is expected to have edema.

A

True

67
Q

The root cause of edema in patients with malnutrition is a weak immune system

A

False

68
Q

Patients with anorexia nervosa view themselves as fat even though they are already thin

A

True

69
Q

Both individuals with anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa have a profound weight loss.

A

False

70
Q

In inducing vomiting, you are well aware that pressing the anterior part of the tongue can elicit it.

A

False

71
Q

An obese person is expected to have a lesser water content in the body

A

True

72
Q

Congenital weakness of the muscles of the diaphragm causes hiatal hernia.

A

True

NCM 216 META/GI/ENDO (2 decks)

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