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Nursing > Adult 2 - Unit 1 > Flashcards

Adult 2 - Unit 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

In the identification of a stroke, what does FAST stand for?

A

Facial palsy
Arm weakness
Slurred speech
Two out of three of the above

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2
Q

What is a TIA?

A

(Transient ischemic attack)
Acute reversible fleeting episodes of focal neurological deficits
- without infarction of the brain
- Clinical symptoms typically last less than an hour

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3
Q

What are the S/S of a TIA?

A 
Partial vision loss in one eye
Weakness
Numbness and tingling 
Severe HA
Speechlessness and dizziness
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4
Q

What is the #1 cause of a TIA?

A

Carotid artery stenosis

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5
Q

What are the three categories of strokes?

A

Reversible ischemic neurological deficit (RIND)
Stroke in evolution
Stable/complete stroke

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6
Q

What is a RIND? (stroke)

A

(Reversible ischemic neurological deficit)

S/S of a stroke that last longer that 24 hours but resolve themselves within several days

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7
Q

What are the warning signs of a stroke?

A
  • Sudden weakness, numbness, or paralysis (often 1 side, contra-
    lateral)
  • Sudden dimness or loss of vision
  • Sudden difficulty speaking or understanding simple statements
  • Sudden severe HA with no known cause
  • Unexplained dizziness, unsteadiness, or sudden falls
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8
Q

Expressive aphasia

A

Garbled speech, difficulty time talking

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9
Q

Receptive aphasia

A

More difficult to assess than expressive; they can hear and speak, but their brain cannot translate your speech

  • may look at you like you are speaking another language
  • Speak without using gestures if you are assessing them
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10
Q

What are the three types of ischemic stokes

A

Thrombotic
Embolic
Hypoxic

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11
Q

Thrombotic stroke

A

A clot that forms in the brain due to atherosclerotic plaque

- Creates a stenotic blood vessel, interrupting blood flow

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12
Q

Embolic stroke

A

A stroke resulting from a clot that is formed somewhere else in the body which travels to the brain
- DVT of the legs, valve disease, a-fib

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13
Q

What is a presentation that may be confused with/for a stroke?

A

Hypoglycemia (similar S/S)

- Slurred speech, confused, etc…

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14
Q

What are the 7 D’s of emergency management of a stroke

A 
Detect
Dispatch
Delivery
Door
Data
Decision 
Drug
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15
Q

Detection (7 Ds of stroke management)

A

Facial droop, unilateral arm droop, speech difficulties, confused

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16
Q

Dispatch (7 Ds of stroke management)

A

Call 911 and rapid transport to hospital

- Also calling “code stroke”

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17
Q

Delivery (7 Ds of stroke management)

A

Alert hospital to the arrival of a possible stroke patient

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18
Q

Door (7 Ds of stroke management)

A

< 25 minutes:

  • check blood sugar - GCS
  • neuro assessment - CT scan (read w/in 45 minutes)
  • hx of onset
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19
Q

Data (7 Ds of stroke management)

A

Is this an ischemic stroke or not?

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20
Q

Decision (7 Ds of stoke management)

A

Do we administer a thrombolytic?

- if yes, within 180 minutes of onset of symptoms

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21
Q

What is the window of opportunity of a Thrombolytic in a stroke patient?

A

180 minutes

- some doctors are extending this to 4.5 hours

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22
Q

Why is a stroke patient put on anti-coagulation therapy?

A

Prevent another stroke from newly forming clots

- will not do anything for the already formed clots

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23
Q

What is the medical treatment in a stroke?

A 
Anticoagulant therapy
Anti-platelet
Carotid endarterectomy
Clot retriever (MERCI)  
?(Antihypertensives)?
?(Thrombolytic)?
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24
Q

What are the parameters for treating HTN in a stroke patient?

A

Systolic > 220 mm Hg

Diastolic > 120 mm Hg

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25
Q

What are the inclusive criteria for using a thrombolytic in a stroke patient?

A

< 4.5 hours since onset of symptoms
CT of ischemic stroke w/ deficits
Age > 18 yrs

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26
Q

What are reasons to exclude the use of thrombolytics in the treatment of a stroke patient?

A

> 4.5 hrs since onset of symptoms; HTN; rapidly improving
Hx stroke w/in 3mo; Lumbar pnct. w/in 7/days
Major surgery w/in 21/day, active internal bleed w/21 days
Evidence of Intracerebral bleed
Major trauma w/in 30/day; Head trauma w/in 90/day

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27
Q

SAH

A

(Sub arachnoid hemorrhage)

- Hemorrhagic stroke

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28
Q

What are presentation S/S of a SAH?

A 
worse HA of their life				Seizures
May have N&V with HA				Hemiparesis  
Change in LOC
Photophobia and visual disturbances
Nuchal rigidity + Kernig and low back pain
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29
Q

Treatment for SAH

A

(If you can get pt to a treatment facility in time)
- Surgery (Clipping with craniotomy)
- Coiling (interventional radiology)
(if possible and when ready)

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30
Q

what are some “aneurysm precautions”? (hemorrhagic stroke)

A 
Quiet, dark room, Mng pain, Mng stress
Limit visitors & env. stimuli
Stool softeners			
Maintain B/P
No coughing, sneezing, nose blowing, bearing down
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31
Q

What are some complications of a SAH?

A

Rebleeding
Vasospasm
Increased ICP
Seizures

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32
Q

What is involved in managing vasospasms? (SAH)

A 
Calcium channel blockers
Triple H therapy 
Transcranial doppler (daily)
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33
Q

What is ‘Triple H therapy’ and why is it used? (SAH)

A

Hypervolemic, hemodilution, hypertensive
- prevent vasospasm
- fill and dilute the vessels, once bleed is secure, hypertense the patient (puts pressure on vessel walls)
(Done prophylacticaly, 50% of pts will vasospasm)

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34
Q

Multiple sclerosis (MS)

A

A chronic, progressive, degenerative disorder of the CNS characterized by disseminated demyelination of nerve fibers of the brain and spinal cord
(usually onset: 20-50, women more affected)

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35
Q

What pathophysiology characterizes MS?

A

(in the CNS)

  • chronic inflammation
  • demyelination
  • gliosis (scarring)
  • Autoimmune disease
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36
Q

What characterizes the manifestation of MS?

A

Chronic, progressive deterioration in some

Remissions and exacerbations in others (overall degen trend)

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37
Q

What are the common categories of MS S/S?

A

Motor
Sensory
Cerebellar
Emotional

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38
Q

Parkinson’s Disease (PD)

A

Chronic, progressive neurodegenerative disorder characterized by slowness in the initiation and execution of movements (bradykinesia), increased muscle tone (rigidity), tremor at rest, and gait disturbances

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39
Q

What are the initial S/S of PD?

A

Mild tremor, slight limp, and decreased arm swing

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40
Q

Classic triad of PD

A

Tremor
Rigidity
Bradykinesia

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41
Q

What are some complications involved in PD?

A

Dysphagia – malnutrition and aspiration
General debilitation – pneumonia, UTI, skin breakdown
Decreased mobility – constipation, ankle edema, contractors
orthostatic hypotension – falls
Depression & sleep disorders

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42
Q

Nursing goals for Parkinson’s disease (3)

A

1) Maximize neurological function
2) maintain independence in ADLs as long as possible
3) Optimize psychosocial well-being

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43
Q

Nursing goals for MS

A

1) Maximize neuromuscular function
2) Maintain independence in ADLs for as long as possible
3) Manage disabling fatigue
4) Optimize psycho-social well being
5) adjust to illness
6) Reduce factors that precipitate exacerbations

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44
Q

Myasthenia gravis (MG)

A

an autoimmune disease of the neuromuscular junction characterized by the fluctuating weakness of certain skeletal muscle groups.

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45
Q

What causes myasthenia gravis? (pathophysiology)

A

autoimmune process in which antibodies attack acetylcholine (ACh) receptors, resulting in decreased number of ACh receptors (AChR) sites at neuromuscular junctions.
- prevents ACh molecules from attaching and stimulating muscle contractions

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46
Q

What is the primary feature of MG?

A

Fluctuating weakness of skeletal muscles – Strength is usually restored after a period of rest

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47
Q

How does MG affect sensory and reflexes?

How fast do muscles atrophy

A

There is no sensory loss in MG, and reflexes remain normal

Muscle atrophy is rare

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48
Q

Myasthenic crisis

A

an acute exacerbation of muscle weakness triggered by infection, surgery, emotional distress, drug overdose, or inadequate drugs.

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49
Q

What are the major complications of a myasthenic crisis?

A

The major complications result from muscle weakness in areas that affect swallowing and breathing
- Aspiration, respiratory insufficiency, respiratory infection

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50
Q

What are the major drug categories used in the treatment of MG?

A

Anticholinesterase drugs (enhance NMJ function)
Corticosteroids (suppress immune response)
immunosuppressants

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51
Q

What surgical therapy may be used in MG?

A

Thymectomy

  • Thymus appears to enhance the production of AChR antibodies
  • Results in improvements for most patients
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52
Q

What are the major nursing goals for MG?

A

1) Have a return of normal muscle endurance
2) Manage fatigue
3) Avoid complications
4) Maintain a quality of life appropriate to the disease course

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53
Q

(NCLEX)

A 65-year-old woman was just diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease. The priority nursing intervention is:

A

Promoting physical exercise and a well-balanced diet

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54
Q

What are the types of SCIs (6)

A

Concussion Transection
Compression Hemorrhage
Laceration Injury to blood vessels

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55
Q

What is the peak time for vasospasms following a SAH?

A

6-10 days after initial bleed

- often kept in ICU for 14 days until threat of vasospasm is reduced

56
Q

What are the two types of hemorrhagic strokes?

A 
Intracerebral hemorrhage
Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)
57
Q

What is the most important cause of an intracerebral hemorrhage?

A

HTN

58
Q

What are some initial s/s of an intracerebral hemorrhage?

A

Severe headache w/ N/V
Weakness of one side
Slurred speech
deviation of the eyes

59
Q

what are some later/progression s/s of an intracerebral hemorrhage?

A

hemiplegia
fixed and dilated pupils
abnormal body positioning
coma

60
Q

What is a characteristic symptom of a ruptured aneurysm in the sub-arachnoid space (or brain)?

A

“Worst headache of one’s life”

- cerebral aneurysms are considered a “silent killer”; often no warning signs until it has ruptured

61
Q

What are two complications of an aneurysmal SAH?

A

Rebleeding before surgery

Cerebral vasospasm

62
Q

What is the difference in the effect on judgment between a left side and a right side stroke

A

left-brain strokes often cause person to be very cautious

right-brain strokes tend to cause the person to be impulsive

63
Q

What is the most important initial diagnostic study following a TIA?

A

CT of the brain

- need to confirm s/s of TIA are not related to other brain lesions

64
Q

What are the goals for therapy during an acute phase of a stroke?

A

Preserving life, preventing further brain damage, reducing disability

65
Q

How will urine output respond to an increase of ADH secretion in a stroke patient?

A

Urine output will decrease?

- Hyponatremia may occur

66
Q

What kind of IV solution may be used in stroke management

A

Hypertonic solutions are showing to be effective in reducing ICP

  • Hypotonic solutions and glucose solutions should be avoided
  • Hypotonic may further increase cerebral edema and ICP
  • Hyperglycemia may be associated with further cerebral damage
67
Q

What are three strategies in reducing ICP?

A

Elevating HOB
Maintaining head and neck alignment
Avoiding hip flexion

68
Q

What are ideal temperatures in a stroke patient?

A

Between 36 and 37 C

  • aggressive cooling therapy if greater than 38 C (e.g. cooling blanket)
  • Temperature increases brain metabolism
69
Q

What are the recommendations of prophylactic seizure therapy in stroke patients

A

Not recommended for an ischemic stroke

Recommended for a hemorrhagic stroke

70
Q

What constitutes the main drug therapy for a hemorrhagic stroke?

A

Management of HTN

71
Q

What drug is given to prevent vasospasms in a hemorrhagic stroke patient?

A

Nimodipine (Nimotop)

- Calcium channel blocker

72
Q

What must you do before giving Nimodipine?

A

Assess blood pressure and apical pulse

- if < 90, hold medication and contact doc

73
Q

What is the primary cause of a stroke?

A

Uncontrolled HTN

74
Q

What are some things that may cause an airway obstruction in a stroke patient

A

Problems with chewing/swallowing
food pocketing
Tongue falling back

75
Q

What are some important nursing interventions related to respiratory function in a stroke patient?

A 
freq assessment of airway patency and function
Oxygenation
suctioning
mobility
Positioning to prevent aspiration
Encouraging deep breathing
76
Q

What is the major concern with the first feeding in a stroke patient?

A

Dysphagia and diminished/absent gag reflex

  • approach first oral feeding carefully
  • Swallowing evaluation should be done first
77
Q

Pneumothorax

A

Air in the pleural space

  • creates a partial or complete collapse of the lung
  • as volume increases in pleural space, lung volume decreases
78
Q

Spontaneous pneumothorax

A

Accumulation of air in the pleural space without an apparent antecedent event

  • caused by rupture of small blebs on the visceral pleura
  • Smoking increases risk
  • Most common form of a closed pneumothorax
79
Q

What may occur in a penetrating chest wound?

A

(also called a sucking chest wound)

Air may/will enter the pleural space through the chest wall during inspiration

80
Q

What is the emergency treatment of a penetrating/sucking chest wound include?

A

Covering the wound with an occlusive dressing that is secured on 3 sides

81
Q

What is the initial response if the object that caused the chest wound is still in place?

A

Do not remove the object until a physician is present

– stabilize the impaled object with a bulky dressing

82
Q

What are some possible causes of a tension pneumothorax?

A
  • Open chest wound with a flap that allows air in during inhalation but not out
  • Clamped/blocked chest tubes
83
Q

Your patient is developing what you expect to be a tension pneuomothorax, what might one of your first responses be?

A

Check to ensure that the chest tube is not clamped or blocked

84
Q

What are some s/s of a tension pneumothorax?

A

dyspnea, chest pain radiating to the shoulder
tracheal deviation, neck vein distention
Decreased/absent breath sounds on affected side
Cyanosis

85
Q

What is a chylothorax

A

The presence of lymphatic fluid in the pleural space

86
Q

S/S of a pneumothorax

A 
Mild: tachycardia and dyspnea
If larger: respiratory distress, shallow rapid respirations
dyspnea, air hunger, O2 desaturation
Chest pain and a cough may be present
No breath sounds over the affected area
87
Q

What is the emergency management of a tension pneumothorax

A

large bore needle into the anterior chest wall at the fourth or fifth intercostal space to release trapped air

88
Q

Thoracentesis

A

The aspiration of the pleural space with a large bore needle

89
Q

Clinical manifestations of a rib fx

A

pain at site of injury (esp during inhalation and cough)
Splinting of affected area
Shallow breathing /w reluctance to deep breath

90
Q

What are possible complications of a rib fx

A

Pneumonia and atelectasis

- due to reluctance to take deep breaths, decreased ventilation, and retained secretions

91
Q

What should patient teaching include for a rib fx patient?

A

Emphasize deep breathing, coughing, and using incentive spirometry, and use of pain medications

92
Q

What is the main goal in treating a rib fx?

A

Decrease pain so the patient can breathe adequately to promote good lung expansion

93
Q

What are the manifestations of a flail chest injury?

A

Area moves paradoxically to uninjured areas, increase WOB
Rapid, shallow breathing with tachypnea
Splinting of chest may hide flail chest
Asymmetric and uncoordinated thorax movements

94
Q

What is the initial therapy for flail chest?

A

Airway management, adequate ventilation
Supplemental O2
Careful administration of IV fluid and pain control
– Re-expand the lungs and ensure adequate oxygenation

95
Q

What is the process of removing a chest tube

A

Pain medication 15 minutes prior
Suture is cut, sterile airtight petroleum jelly gauze prepared
Patient holds breath and bears down as tube is removed
Immediately covered with gauze

96
Q

What are the priorities in chest trauma?

A 
(ABCD)
Airway (with cervical spine control)
Breathing
Circulation
Disability (neurological)
97
Q

What are important items to address during patient history with a chest trauma patient

A 
(AMPLE)
Allergies
Medications
Past illness
Last meal
Events related to the injury
98
Q

Pulmonary contusion

A

Bruising of the lungs

  • Starts showing up 24-48 hours after initial injury
  • hospital for a couple days while it plays out
99
Q

What is chest tube suction measured in?

A

cmH20

100
Q

With water suction, what is suction dependent on?

A

Water level in suction chamber

– NOT the amount of suction dialed in on the regulator

101
Q

What are some nursing care items for chest tubes?

A

ID chest tube type; check dressing and security
Avoid dependent loops; Do not strip tubers
Check drainage; look for bubbling in water seal
Look for tidaling in water seal; check h20 level in suction chamber
Suction until gentle bubbles appear; ensure tubing is open
Respiratory assessment; no clamping tubes

102
Q

Lhermitte’s sign

A

Seen in MS patients; A transient sensory symptom described as an electric shock radiating down the spine or into the limbs with flexion of the neck

103
Q

Motor s/s of MS

A

Weakness/paralysis of the limbs, trunk or head
diplopia
scanning speech
spasticity of the muscles

104
Q

sensory s/s of MS

A

numbness and tingling; other paresthesias
patchy blindness (scotomas); blurred vision
vertigo; tinnitus; decreased hearing
Chronic neuropathic pain

105
Q

How may bowel and bladder be affected by MS?

A
    • Constipation
    • Spastic bladder – small capacity, urgency and frequency w/ dribbling or incontinence
    • Flaccid bladder – large capacity, urinary retention
106
Q

What are the major drug classes used in MS patients?

A 
Corticosteroids (for exacerbations)
Immunomodulators
Immunosuppressants
Cholinergics
Anticholinergics (bladder symptoms)
Muscle relaxants (muscle spasms)
107
Q

What drug alert must you be aware of for a MS patient?

A

Relates to the Immunomodulator beta-interferon

  • Rotate injection sites with each dose
  • Assess for depression, suicidal idealization
  • Wear sunscreen and protective clothing in sun
  • Flu-like symptoms are common following initial therapy
108
Q

What are some triggers that may exacerbate MS?

A

Infection, trauma, immunizations, delivery after pregnancy, stress, change in climate

109
Q

What are some important teaching points to MS patients?

A

1) Achieve a good balance of exercise and rest
2) Eat nutritious and balanced meals
3) avoid hazards of immobility
4) Know and minimize triggers

110
Q

What is the pathology of Parkinson’s disease? (PD)

A

degeneration of the dopamine-producing neurons in the midbrain, which disrupts the normal balance between dopamine (DA) and acetylcholine (ACh) in the basal ganglia

111
Q

What are some automatic movements that are diminished in PD pts? (Bradykinesia)

A

Blinking of eyelids, swinging of the arms while walking, swallowing of saliva, self-expression with facial and hand movements, minor movements of postural adjustments

112
Q

What is often the first drug used in PD?

A

Levodopa w/ carbidopa (Sinemet)

113
Q

What is the drug alert associated with PD?

A

Related to Sinemet;

  • monitor for signs of dyskinesia
  • Effects may be delayed for several months
  • Report any uncontrolled movements of the face, eyelids, mouth, extremities; mental changes; palpitations; severe N/V
114
Q

Cholinergic crisis (MG)

A

Overdose of anticholinesterase drugs

  • weakness w/in 1 hr of ingesting anticholinesterase
  • increased weakness of skel muscles (ptosis, dyspnea, etc)
115
Q

Differential diagnosis of myasthenic crisis and cholinergic crisis

A

Myasthenic crisis may be caused by failure to take a drug, while cholinergic may be caused by too much

  • Strength will improve after admin of drug during myasthenic c.
  • Weakness w/in 1 hour after admin of drug during chol. c.
116
Q

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) – Lou Gehrig’s disease

A

Progressive neurologic disorder characterized by loss of motor neurons
– motor neurons in brainstem and spinal cord gradually degenerate

117
Q

S/S of ALS

A

weakness of upper extremities, dysarthria, dysphagia

– death usually results from respiratory infection secondary to compromised respiratory function

118
Q

Focus of nursing care in ALS

A

1) facilitating communication
2) reducing risk of aspiration
3) early identification of respiratory insufficiency
4,5) Decreasing pain and risk for injury (falls)
6) providing diversional activities
7) Helping pt and family manage disease process

119
Q

What are some nursing management items in regards to a patient with delirium?

A

Protecting the patient from harm
Creating calm and safe environment – reduce stimuli
Encourage family and friends to attend to pt – familiar objects
Provide reassurance and reorienting info – consistent staff
Personal contact (touch and communication)
Ensure sensory aids are available (hearing aids, glasses, etc.)

120
Q

Guillain-Barre Syndrome

A

An acute, rapidly progressing form of polyneuritis

– characterized by ascending, symmetric paralysis

121
Q

Pathophysiology of GBS

A

Immune reactions attack nerves causing loss of myelin and edema and inflammation of the affected nerves.

  • Muscles innervated undergo denervation and atrophy
  • In recovery phase, remyelination occurs slowly and function returns in a proximal to distal fashion
122
Q

What are dangerous autonomic dysfunctions that may occur with GBS?

A 
Orthostatic hypotension
hypertension
abnormal vagal responses (bradycardia)
-- also bowel and bladder
-- also SIADH --> urinary retention
123
Q

What is the most serious complication of GBS?

A

Respiratory failure

– constantly monitor rate and depth

124
Q

How might you manage mild dysphagia? (e.g. in a GBS pt)

A

Placing the patient in an upright position and flexing the head forward during feedings.
– Also mentioned messaging neck in class

125
Q

What must routine assessment include for a GBS pt in acute phase?

A

Respiratory function
ABGs
Gag, corneal, swallowing reflexes
B/P and cardiac rate/rhythm

126
Q

What are the main goals for a GBS pt

A

1) maintain adequate ventilation
2) be free from aspiration
3) controlled pain
4) maintain acceptable method of communication
5) maintain adequate NTDT
6) return to usual physical function

127
Q

Spinal shock

A

temporary neurological syndrome following an acute spinal cord injury

    • characterized by decreased reflexes, loss of sensation, and flaccid paralysis below the level of injury
    • may last days to months
128
Q

Neurogenic shock

A

Occurs after acute spinal cord injury, and is due to the loss of vasomotor tone caused by injury

  • characterized by hypotension and bradycardia
  • Peripheral vasodilation, venous pooling, decreased CO
129
Q

Defer spinal shock from neurogenic shock

A

Spinal – decreased reflexes, loss of sensation, flaccid paralysis
Neurogenic – hypotension and bradycardia, peripheral vasodilation, venous pooling, and decreased CO

130
Q

Autonomic Dysreflexia

A

May occur in patients with an SCI at T6 or higher; a massive uncompensated cardiovascular reaction mediated by the sympathetic nervous system

    • Life threatening
    • HTN, throbbing headache, diaphoresis, bradycardia, flushing of the skin, blurred vision, nasal congestion, anxiety, nausea
131
Q

Differentiate the most observable symptom between neurogenic shock and autonomic Dysreflexia

A

neuro shock – hypotension

Auto D – Hypertension (severe)

132
Q

What are the three main causes of autonomic dysreflexia?

A

Bowl (constipation)
Bladder (distention)
Pain (UTI, kidney stone, pressure ulcer, ingrown nail, etc.)

133
Q

Your SCI patient complains of a headache, what is an important response?

A

Measure blood pressure

- headache may signify developing autonomic Dysreflexia, if so severe HTN will accompany it

134
Q

What are initial nursing interventions for a patient in autonomic dysreflexia

A

elevate HOB to 45 degrees or sit the patient upright
Notify physician
assess to determine the cause
– bladder irritation most common, immediate cath to relieve

135
Q

An SCI above what level will greatly decrease the influence of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

T6

  • Bradycardia, peripheral vasodilation, hypotension
  • Cardiac monitoring needed
  • Increase in vagal stimulation can cause cardia arrest (turning or suctioning)
136
Q

Neurogenic bladder

A

Bladder dysfunction related to abnormal or absent bladder innervation
– Patients usually have some degree of it after a SCI

137
Q

What are some common problems with a neurogenic bladder?

A
  • Urgency
  • frequency
  • incontinence
  • Inability to void
  • High bladder pressure –> reflux to kidneys

Nursing (4 decks)

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