Additional Class Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following must be verified prior to ETOPS? - Nose number matches AML nose number.

  • APU Must be operational
  • Approval by chief pilot
  • Re release point in flight plan
A

Nose number matches AML nose number.

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2
Q

How will maintenance request an in flight operational check of an aircraft system?

  • Through an INFO-ITEM entry
  • Through a Mechanical Discrepancy AML Entry
  • Through an ACARS message
  • Through a dispatch release request
A

Through a Mechanical Discrepancy AML Entry

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3
Q

In the event of an unschedule landing or diversion, the flight deck crew should advise _______ of the existence of these passengers.

  • the arrival station
  • IOC
  • the base chief pilot
  • corporate security
A

The arrival Station

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4
Q

A Swept wing behaves differently from a straight wing in that:

  • Stall characteristics on a swept wing typically start at the wing root
  • A swept wing typically stalls at a lower angle of attack
  • A stall on a swept wing may not be as easily identified
A

A stall on a swept wing may not be as easily identified.

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5
Q

Why is performance awareness more critical when using Heading Select of Vertical Speed modes at high altitudes

  • There is less excess thrust at high altitude when compared to low altitude, resulting in more potential for a low speed event.
  • Use of these modes can result in high speed buffet as the aircraft accelerates through the critical Mach number.
  • These modes do not command a large enough bank angle or pitch angle to maintain the desired flight path
A

There is less excess thrust at high altitude when compared to low altitude, resulting in more potential for a low speed event.

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6
Q

If the loss of a certificate occurs while flying a trip sequence or when there is not enough time to obtain a replacement certificate prior to reporting for a flight, call _________.

  • Chief Pilot’s Office
  • Training Records
  • Crew Tracking
  • Flight Operations
A

Crew Tracking

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7
Q

Commercial flying for any employer other than American Airlines or the military is _____________.

  • not permitted
  • permitted
  • permitted as long as a record of hours flown outside the company are sent monthly to the chief pilots office.
  • not permitted unless you have approval from the chief pilot
A

NOT PERmitteD

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8
Q

American Airlines does not tolerate discrimination, harassment, retaliation for making a complaint of discrimination or harassment, or participating in an investigation of such a complaint, threats or workplace violence. To report a violation, who should you contact?

  • Your chief pilot
  • the flight department people business partner
  • the ethics point helpline
  • at least one of the above
A

the flight department people business partner

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9
Q

For a FCF, crews must contact the MOD-MOC either individually or on a conference call. The ______ will be locked out until the call is accomplished.

  • load closeout
  • crew
  • flight plan
  • weather package
A

flight plan

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10
Q

ATC precipitation reports use a weather processing system permitting a controller to see and report to pilots _______ levels of precipitation as a function of reflectivity.

  • 5
  • 3
  • 2
  • 4
A

4

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11
Q

Three types of turbulence are….

A

Thunderstorm, Clear Air and Mountain Wave

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12
Q

The easy brief flight plan/dispatch release output format is…

  • Exactly as DECS
  • in HTML with differing alignment than DECS
  • similar to DECS except for a few minor items.
  • missing half the information from a normal DECS format
A

similar to DECS except for a few minor items.

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13
Q

If a FOS outage terminal is not available domestically, you can access your paperwork by using _______ on a company computer.

  • Comply365
  • SumTotal
  • Jetnet
  • Jeep Flightdeck Pro
A

Jetnet

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14
Q

Notification of FOS outage will come via ________ to affected aircraft.

  • Chief Pilot
  • Load Control
  • ACARS -

text message to cell phone

A

ACARS

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15
Q

After using the FOS outage terminals to retrieve the flight plan, the TPS may not be available, so pilots would have to calculate manually using the __________.

  • TPS app on the iPad
  • TPS CCI message
  • TPS calculation worksheet
  • All of the above
A

TPS calculation worksheet

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16
Q

Each flightdeck crew member shall, during takeoff and landing, keep their shoulder harness fastened while at their duty station unless the crewmember would be unable to perform required duties with the harness fastened. - True or False

A

True

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17
Q

ATC at international airports may use _________________. These are clearances that are preceded by conditions, followed by the action required.

  • conditional clearances
  • unconditional clearances
  • conditional clauses
  • conditional notifications
A

conditional clearances

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18
Q

The captain may authorize the use of PEDs during extended ground delays anticipated to be in excess of _______ minutes. The aircraft may be either on or off the gate.

  • 15
  • 20
  • 30
  • 60
A

15

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19
Q

When ______ portion of the takeoff runway is slippery or covered by standing water or slush, start the takeoff from a point providing the maximum available runway length.

  • any
  • 25%
  • the last
  • the first
A

any

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20
Q

If using a runway narrower than the standard width, the crosswind component must not exceed ____ knots?

-15

- 05

- 10

- 20

A

20

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21
Q

If the arresting device is reported to be in the raised position—-

  • request for it to be retracted or avoid landing over it, if possible
  • keep the nose wheel off the pavement (soft field landing) until well beyond.
  • retract the nose gear deflectors
A

Request for it to be retracted. ——-Although those deflectors sound cool! LOL

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22
Q

All night takeoffs require adequate runway lighting using a combination of centerline and.or edge lights. T/F

A

True

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23
Q

If a tail strike is suspected during takeoff:

  • continue to destination if all other indications are normal.
  • remain unpressurized, land as soon as practical at the nearest suitable airport, follow QRH procedures.
  • continue to destination, however, reduce press diff.
A

remain unpressurized, land as soon as practical and follow QRH.

24
Q

If the gear, unexpectedly, cannot be retracted after takeoff, the flight may land at the nearest suitable airport, or continue to the planned destination at ________ discretion.

  • the dispatchers
  • the captains
  • ATC
  • the chief pilots
A

the captain

25
Q

A clearance which changes only the altitude does:

  • not change the route
  • not change the SID
  • not change the STAR
  • All of the above
A

ALL

26
Q

The company examines an airports all engine climb performance when published climb gradients exceed a certain value. If the aircraft cannot meet the published climb gradient, a note is added to ___________.

  • the aircraft performance section of your TPS
  • the OPS Advisory Pages advising to not accept the departure or fly a modified takeoff climb procedure
  • the dispatch release header section
  • All of the above
A

the OPS Advisory Pages advising to not accept the departure or fly a modified takeoff climb procedure.

27
Q

FAA defines “Ceiling” as the lowest layer of clouds reported as _________.

  • broken
  • overcast
  • obscured
  • All of the above
A

All of the above

28
Q

Visibility information in the remarks section of report, such as “TWR VSBY” or “SFC VSBY” _________.

A

is for information only.

29
Q

The remark “PRESFR” on a surface weather observation, indicates the altimeter is falling at a rate of at least _______ inches per hour.

A. .006

B. 060

C. 0.06

D. 6.0

A

0.06

30
Q

Which of the following is the most effective in preventing an upset event?

  • Attention
  • Understanding
  • Proper response
A

Attention

31
Q

When conducting Class I navigation, the navigation facilities that define the airway or off-airway routing must be used as the primary navigation reference, except when using ______.

A. LNAV

B. VNAV

C. RNAV

D. GPWS

A

C. RNAV

32
Q

If the crew is augmented, only ______ may occupy the Class I rest facility.

A. jumpseaters

B. working flightdeck crewmembers

C. working flightdeck crew members and jumpseaters

D. flightdeck and cabin crewmembers

A

b. working flightdeck crewmembers

33
Q

Flightdeck crew rest seats are located….

A. In the first seat of first class on aircraft left

B. in different locations depending on the aircraft type

C. Seat 4A

D. Seat 1A

A

B. in different locations depending on the aircraft type

34
Q

RVSM enables vertical separation between ______.

A

FL290 - FL410

35
Q

If unable to contact ATC, the captain should exercise emergency authority to deviate from the cleared flight path for any reason involving safety of flight. Yes or No?

A

Yes!

36
Q

The ______ may issue _____ concerning GPS jamming that has the potential to make GPS unreliable. However, there is no operational impact on our aircraft based on the availability of IRS navigation with DME updating.

A. FAA, NOTAMS

B. POI, Letters of Investigation

C. SVP of Flight OPS, CCI Message

D. MD of flight ops, CCI message

A

FAA, NOTAMS

37
Q

When a passenger or crewmember is determined to be “ill,” the captain must:

A. Notify dispatch ASAP, call POC (if time permits), and hold all passengers until released by US public health

B. Notify dispatch and confine the passenger to the lavatory until medical personnel can meet the flight at the gate.

C. Notify MedAire and IOC. Await CDC instructions.

A

A. Notify dispatch ASAP, call POC (if time permits), and hold all passengers until released by US public health

38
Q

When operating under IFR in controlled airspace, is it necessary to report if any unforecasted weather conditions are encountered? Yes/No

A

Yes

39
Q

It is the responsibility of ______________ to judge the number of minutes to charge to each delay code.

Captain, Dispatch, Ops agents, Ground Control

A

The captain.

40
Q

When not in radar contact or in airspace where radar control is not authorized, do NOT accept a clearance below the MEA, MSA, MVA or grid MORA unless…

A. the TERR feature is used.

B. on a published departure, arrival, or approach; and the altitude has been verified.

C. the controller is challenged first to confirm clearance meets or exceeds minimums.

D. in domestic airspace and GPWS is being used.

A

B. on a published departure, arrival, or approach; and the altitude has been verified.

41
Q

Who will be the pilot flying during abnormal/emergency situations?

A. First Officer

B. Captain

C. The captain, but may delegate flying duties to the first officer

D. The PF at the time

A

C. The captain, but may delegate flying duties to the first officer

42
Q

The maximum altimeter setting for the B737 and the A32F?

A. 30.99 and 32.00

B. 30.99 and 31.00

C. 32.00 and 32.48

D. 32.48 and 32.00

A

C. 32.00 and 32.48

43
Q

When is it approved to simulate non-normal procedures with passengers on board in flight?

A

NEVER

44
Q

Disinsection procedures during taxi out or inflight of flag air carrier route segments are conducted by which AA personel?

A. Local public health authorities

B. Designated by the Captain

C. Flight Attendants

A

C. Flight Attendants

45
Q

Prior to decent when time and conditions permit, notify maintenance via ARMS code(s) and follow up with _______.

A. an AML entry

B. ACARS message

C. a voice call to MOC

D. a voice call to dispatch

A

C. voice call to MOC

46
Q

A distress situation with grave and imminent danger is communicated with _____ three times on the initial radio call.

A. Pan-Pan

B. Mayday

C. Pan-Am

D. Min Fuel

A

B. Mayday!

47
Q

During in-flight troubleshooting, system components (gauges) may be exchanged in an attempt to determine the malfunction or restore operation. True or False

A

FALSE

48
Q

If a communications failure occurs, set transponder code to _______.

A

7600

49
Q

A flashing red light signal, while on the ground, means: A. Return to starting point on the airport B. Exercise extreme caution C. Taxi clear of the runway in use. D. STOP

A

C. Taxi clear of the runway in use

50
Q

You are piloting a large aircraft and flying directly behind a heavy aircraft at the same altitude. You need ____ miles of separation. A. 10 B. 7 C. 2 D. 5

A

D. 5

51
Q

The FAA does not require crewmembers to physically restrain a passenger who consumes alcohol not served by a flight attendant. True or false?

A

True

52
Q

After crew meal service, the purser notifies the captain of a diabetic passenger who needs to dispose of a syringe. What is the proper procedure for the disposal of this item?

A. FAs will place in a sharps container then that in a bio hazard waster bag. Pilots will advise the arrival station for removal.

B. Passenger is to retain the item for personal disposal at a later time.

C. The crew should retain

A

…..

A. FAs will place in a sharps container then that in a bio hazard waster bag. Pilots will advise the arrival station for removal.

53
Q

If at the gate, contact the ______ to resolve disputes regarding approved devices and/or their appropriate use.

A. GSC

B. CRO

C. SCSM (System Customer Service Manager)

D. IOC MOD

A

C. SCSM (System Customer Service Manager)

54
Q

While executing a LDA PRM Insturment Approach (SIOA), are you required to have the ILS aircraft in sight before proceeding past the LDA Missed Approach Point (LDA MAP)?

A. Yes

B. No

C. Only if ATC Instructs you.

A

YES

55
Q

Where should you look to find out how to notify ATC in the event you cannot accept a PRM approach?

A. The “Attention All Users” page

B. Contact your Dispatch desk

C. The PRM approach plate

A

The “ATTENTION ALL USERS” page

56
Q

Is monitoring the monitor frequency required when executing a PRM approach?

A. yes

B. No

C. Only if instructed to do so

A

YES

57
Q

When preparing for a late Flight Duty Period:

A. Stay sup late the night before so you can sleep in that morning.

B. Follow your usual sleep pattern to ensure an optimal amount of sleep.

C. Set your alarm early, and try to get a nap before report time.

A

B. Follow your usual sleep pattern to ensure an optimal amount of sleep.