AA A320 ETHOS Questions Flashcards
1
Q
Max service ceiling for the A320F
A
FL390
2
Q
True or False The flight deck door is equipped with an escape panel that can be removed from either the flight deck or the cabin side of the door?
A
FALSE
3
Q
The flight deck door locking mechanism can be opened by…
A
- -Enter a code in the keypad on the cabin side of the door
- -Using the handle on the flight deck side of the door
- -Using the toggle switch on the COCKPIT DOOR panel
4
Q
Illumination of the red light in the observers port of the main cabin door indicate what?
A
The aircraft is on the ground and the engines are shut down, the slide is disarmed, and a cabin pressurization differential exists.
5
Q
What lights are avail on the flight deck in emergency electrical configuration?
A
The standby compass light the CA’s instrument flood lights, and the dome light over the FO’s seat.
6
Q
The smaller light on the aircraft right of the nose gear is which light?
A
Taxi
7
Q
The STROBE switch is set to AUTO. In this position the strobe lights stop flashing when?
A
When the aircraft is on the ground
8
Q
With the EMER EXIT LT switch set to ARM, which cabin light(s) is/are armed to illuminate automatically if AC Bus 1 is unpowered?
A
Overhead emergency lights.
9
Q
With the EMER EXIT LT switch set to ARM, which cabin light(s) is/are armed to illuminate automatically if the DC ESS SHED Bus is unpowered?
A
- Exit signs
- Overhead emergency lights
- Escape path lights
10
Q
True of False Engine and APU bleed air are the only air sources for the pneumatic system?
A
FALSE
11
Q
Does HP air supplement IP air?
A
Never
12
Q
Max altitude to use the APU bleed air
A
FL200
13
Q
True or False The pack regulators provide commands to the zone regulator
A
FALSE
14
Q
True or False The pack regulators monitor for pack malfunctions
A
TRUE
15
Q
True or False The pack regulators adjust toe air flow to the packs through the pack flow control valves
A
TRUE
16
Q
What do the two cabin fans do?
A
Recirculate air from the cabin to the mixing unit to reduce the demand for bleed air which saves fuel.
17
Q
When in use, low pressure external air flows:
A
Directly into the mixing unit and then on to the three aircraft zones.
18
Q
To regulate the temp in the three aircraft zones, the zone regulator:
A
- Commands the pack regulators to adjust the output of the packs
- Can increase both APU or engine idle speeds to meet the demands of the air conditioning system
- Receives input from the temp selectors on the overhead AIR COND panel
19
Q
Which of the following does not provide input to the pressurization controllers?
- Thrust levers
- LGCIUs
- FADECs
- ADIRUs
A
FADEC
20
Q
The input provided by the FMGCs enable the pressurization controllers to:
A
Know the planned cruise alt and plan the cabin climb accordingly.
21
Q
The pressurization controllers use the elevation of your destination airport to plan the descent profile. In normal operations, this info is provided:
A
By the FMS database once you enter the destination airport into the MCDU.
22
Q
The safety valves:
A
Open automatically when it becomes necessary to relieve excess positive or negative cabin pressure differentials.
23
Q
On the cruise page, why is the cabin vertical speed indicator in an analog format?
A
The MODE SEL pb has been selected to MAN, and the pressurization system is being operated in the manual mode.
24
Q
Automatic control of the avionics ventilation system is provided by:
A
A single Avionics Equipment Ventilation Computer (AEVC)
25
You can monitor the operation of the avionics ventilation system inlet and extract valves on:
The CAB PRESS page
26
To cool avionics ventilation air, the skin heat exchanger:
Uses the temp of the exterior of the aircrafts fuselage in certain modes of operation
27
The open configuration of the Avionics Ventilation system is used:
On the ground in warm ambient conditions
28
The open configuration of the avionics ventilation system:
Uses outside air to ventilate the avionics equipment.
29
The closed configuration of the avionics ventilation system:
Is used on the ground during cold ambient conditions Is used during flight Utilizes the skin heat exchanger
30
The intermediate configuration of the avionics ventilation system:
Is used when you apply takeoff power for a departure from a station with hot ambient conditions.
31
Heating for the fwd cargo compartment:
Is provided by a trim air system Is controlled automatically by a cargo heat controller Can be adjusted from the flight deck
32
You have just selected the APU MASTER SW pb ON. You now select the APU START pb to ON. Will the APU immediately start?
No, the ECB will not engage the electric starter until the power-up self test is completed satisfactorily and the air intake flap is fully open.
33
AVAIL light on the APU START pb indicates what?
The APU has reached normal operating speed and is ready to provide electrical power and bleed air.
34
The APU ECB provides:
FAULT monitoring and reporting Bleed air output monitoring APU N speed and EGT monitoring Start and shut down sequencing
35
Ambient air is routed to the APU compressor:
Through an electrically operated intake flap located beneath the APU compartment.
36
Fuel for APU operation is normally supplied from:
The left wing tank inner cell, through the engine 1 feed line.
37
True or False The ECB shuts down the APU automatically for low oil quantity but does not shut it down for low oil pressure?
FALSE
38
True or False The ECB shuts down the APU automatically for low oil pressure and/or for low oil quantity
FALSE
39
True or False The ECB shuts down the APU automatically for low oil pressure but does not shut it down for low oil quantity
TRUE
40
True or False The ECB never shuts down the APU for low oil pressure or low oil quantity
FALSE
41
APU bleed air output is used for:
Engine Starting Air conditioning
42
True or False Regarding the APU fire detection and protection system -The system ins equipped with two heat detection loops and two halon bottles
FALSE
43
True or False Regarding the APU fire detection and protection system -The system is equipped with two smoke detection loops and a single halon bottle
FALSE
44
True or False Regarding the APU fire detection and protection system -The system is equipped with two heat detection loops and a single halon bottle
TRUE
45
True or False Regarding the APU fire detection and protection system -The system is equipped with one heat detection loop and a single halon bottle
FALSE
46
When an APU fire occurs on the ground:
The ECB automatically shuts down the APUA red APU fire light illuminates on the external power panel near the nose gear and an external horn located at the nose gear soundsThe APU halon fire bottle is discharged automatically
47
The APU generator can:
Power the entire electrical system by itself
48
To avoid damage to the IDG disconnect mechanism the IDG abs should:
Only be used when the respective engine is running or windmilling Not be pressed for more than 3 seconds
49
A single engine driven generator:
Can power the entire electrical system
50
The AC and DC Ground/Flight Busses can be powered for ground servicing without energizing the entire system:
* When external power is connected to the aircraft
* When the MAINT BUS switch on the ceiling panel aft of the flight deck is selected to ON
* When external power is not selected to ON in the flight deck
51
What is the power priority to AC Bus 1 exercised by the Bus tie?
Gen 1, External power, APU GEN, GEN 2
52
When selected OFF the BUS TIE pb:
Will keep the APU GEN and external power from powering the entire electrical system
53
With the GALY & CAB pb in its normal, lights out position, the main power supply to the high load ovens will shed if:
A single generator is powering the system in flight or a single engine driven generator only is powering on the ground
54
Under normal operating conditions DC power is supplied by:
TR 1 and TR 2
55
The emergency generator:
Is powered by a hydraulic motor, which is powered by the Blue hydraulic system, which is pressurized by a Ram Air Turbine (RAT).
56
The static inverter:
* Enables BAT 1 to power the AC ESS Bus
* Automatically activates in the emergency electrical configuration when the aircraft slows below 100 knots after landing
57
Which circuit breaker, that when tripped or pulled, will generate an ECAM "C/B Tripped" message?
Green
58
How do the FMGCs "communicate" during normal operations?
Each FMGC performs its own computations, and they are synchronized by the cross talk bus
59
On aircraft equipped with GPS, which configuration is primarily used for determine the aircrafts position?
3IRS/GPS
60
True or False If one IRS fails, the MIX IRS position will be computed using an average of the other two operating IRS positions?
FALSE
61
How many DME channels can be used for radio position updating?
3
62
To accomplish a Fast/Quick IRS alignment, the mode selectors should be selected to OFF then back to NAV pithing how many seconds?
5
63
Info fro the ILS 1 receiver is sent to:
* The CA PFD
* The FO ND
64
True or False A navaid can be manually tuned by entering either the identifier or frequency into the RADIO NAV page?
TRUE
65
The green hydraulic system can be pressurized by:
The engine #1 driven pump or the PTU
66
The yellow hydraulic system can be pressurized by:
The engine #2 driven pump or the PTU or an electric pump
67
The Blue hydraulic system can be pressurized by:
An electric pump or a RAT driven pump
68
The Blue system electric pump:
Activates automatically on the ground when the first engine is started
69
Yellow system electric pump:
Activates automatically on the ground prior to engine start when a cargo door is opened or closed
70
The accumulators in the three hydraulic systems:
Help maintain a constant pressure by smoothing transient demands.
71
True or False If both ELACS have failed or are selected OFF, the aircraft remains in normal law?
FALSE
72
True or False Normally, both ELACs are active, providing input to the flight control surfaces.
TRUE
73
True or False With one ELAC failed or selected OFF, both ailerons, the elevators, and the THS operate normally.
TRUE
74
True or False If all three SECs have failed or have shut off, roll control is not possible
FALSE
75
True or False Each SEC controls on pair or two pairs of spoiler panels
TRUE
76
True or False SECs 1 and 2 also provide backup pitch control of the elevators and THS, if both ELACs should fail
TRUE
77
The SECs provide backup yaw control, if both FAC computers fail
FALSE
78
True or False The FACs are only involved in flight control functions
FALSE
79
True or False The FACs control rudder movement for automatic turn coordination, yaw dampening, rudder limiting, and rudder trim
TRUE
80
True or False Normally, only one FAC is active, with the other FAC serving as a backup in the event of a failure
TRUE
81
The FACs are depicted not the F/CTL page
FALSE
82
If both side sticks are moved in the same directions at the same time:
The total demand is never more than what can be realized with full deflection on only one sidestick The input from the two sidesticks are summed
83
The elevators are:
Independently moved by one of two electronically controlled servos that serve each elevator
84
In normal flight ops, pitch trim is:
Automatic and can be monitored on the F/CTL page and the trim position scales next to the trim wheels.
85
Rudder trim is:
Accomplished by displacing the entire rudder surface and is automatic when the autopilot is engaged
86
All five spoiler panels on each wing are used to perform the ground spoiler function. The bracket markings on the F/CTL page remind you that:
* The three middle spoiler panels (2-4) carry out the speed brake function
* The outer four spoiler panels 2-5 assist in roll control
87
Each Slat Flap Control Computer (SFCC):
Controls one hydraulic motor to extend the slats and one hydraulic motor to extend the flaps.
88
Slat Alpha/Speed lock:
Prevents you from retracting the slats, if extended if the angle of attack becomes excessive or the airspeed is too low
89
MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY on the FMA in red indicates what law?
Mechanical backup control
90
USE MAN PITCH TRIM on the FMA in amber indicates what law?
Alternate Law
91
A single failure of a flight control computer:
Does not cause normal law to downgrade to another law
92
Your aircraft is currently in a climb with a nose up pitch attitude. You are hand flying the aircraft and both sidesticks are currently in the neutral position. You are asking the flight control computers for:
No change in load factor
93
Pitch protections provided in normal law include:
* Maneuver protection
* Pitch attitude protection
* High speed and Alpha protection
94
True or False The A320F cannot be stalled in normal law
TRUE
95
You are in level flight in a. 20º bank to the left. You are hand flying the aircraft and both sidesticks are in the neutral position. You are asking the flight control computers for:
0º per second roll rate
96
You are in level flight and hand flying the aircraft. You are currently holding 50º of bank to the right. Due to positive spiral stability, if you release the sidestick to the neutral position:
33º of bank is commanded by the flight control computers
97
The normal law landing mode:
* Exists to give the landing flare and touchdown a conventional feel
* Memorizes the current pitch attitude at 50 feet AGL
* Beginning at 30 feet AGL, introduces a gentle nose down command to the previously memorized pitch attitude
98
The two Landing Gear Control Interface Units (LGCIU 1 & LGCIU 2):
Swap roles as controlling and back up of gear extension and retraction each time the landing gear is raised
99
The primary method for monitoring the gear position, the Landing Gear Indicator Panel, receives information from:
LGCIU 1
100
The maximum speed for gear extension is _____ knots and for gear retraction is ____ knots
250, 220
101
Input to nose wheel steering from the hand wheels rudder pedals, and autopilot is:
Electrical through the Brakes Steering Control Unit (BSCU)
102
If landing following a gravity gear extension, nose wheel steering is:
Not avail
103
On the WHEEL page, an amber ark appears over the hottest wheel when its brake temp exceeds:
300ºC
104
Normal braking requires:
* Green Hydraulic system pressure avail
* At least one channel of the BSCU must be operational
* The A/SKID & NW STRG switch must be selected ON
105
Alternate braking with anti skid activates automatically following:
Failure of the Green hydraulic system
106
Alternate braking without anti skid activates automatically following:
* Failure of both channels of the BSCU
* Failure of the Green and Yellow hydraulic systems
* Selection of the A/SKID & NW STRG switch to OFF
107
The Fuel Quantity Indication (FQI) system does what?
Measures fuel quantity and fuel temp
108
What does an amber fuel temp indicate?
That the temp has risen above or fallen below a preset temp limit
109
True or False Fuel Flow is used to cool the IDGs oil system?
TRUE
110
When does the fuel used readout reset?
Resets during engine start
111
With fuel in the right inner wing cell at approx 1650lbs, what will happen?
The transfer valves in both wings will open
112
True or false The APU has a dedicated fuel pump that operates automatically if the left fuel manifold is not pressurized and the APU MASTER SW is ON
TRUE
113
True or False On the A321, Fuel from the center tank is only transferred to the wing tanks
TRUE
114
True or False On the A321, Fuel transfer from the center to the wing tanks only occurs when the wing tank fuel level drops below a predetermined level
TRUE
115
The Radio Management Panels, RMPs are used:
Exclusively to tune frequencies for various radios, including navaids if necessary.
116
Which transmission key alerting light does NOT extinguish automatically after a short period of time if the RESET pb is not used?
CALL
117
Which radio is normally dedicated to ACARS?
VHF3, but it can also be used for voice comm if needed.
118
The flight interphone system:
Enables intercommunications between flight deck occupants. Enables communication between the flight deck and the external power panel
119
The hot microphone mode of the flight inter phone system:
Enables you to talk hands free using your headset boom microphone or oxygen mask microphoneIs activated by moving the INT/RAD switch on the ACP to the INT position
120
To use the service interpose system you:
* Can use the hand microphone
* Must activate the CAB transmission key and reception knob
* Can use your boom microphone or oxygen mask microphone
121
To use the PA handset to make a PA announcement:
you press and hold the PTT pb on the handset while talking
122
The CVR operates automatically:
* For the first 5 minutes after AC power is applied to the aircraft
* When the first engine is started
* Anytime the aircraft is airborne
123
With the SYS pb on the GPWS panel in the OFF condition, what does it mean?
All 5 of the GPWS basic mode warnings are inhibited
124
True or False You must make sure the loudspeakers are turned up loud enough so that you can hear the aural GPWS warnings?
FALSE
125
You are flying at a low altitude. The GPWS is operating normally, and the TERR ON ND on your side of the flight deck is selected ON. Your ND shows no terrain, what does this mean?
Your brightness is too low or All terrain within the range selected on the ND is more than 2000 feet below your current altitude
126
The Terrain Clearance Floor (TCF) is:
Not predictive. The aircraft must actually penetrate the TCF to trigger a warning.
127
You hear 'Pull Up' and have terrain on your ND in RED and the Pull Up on the GPWS illuminates. Why?
You are within 30 seconds of hazardous terrain based upon your current flight path angle, track, and speed relative to the terrain.
128
What color and shape are aircraft on the TCAS representation?
* White filled diamond - proximate traffic
* Yellow filled circle - TA
* Red filled square - RA
129
Which item causes a takeoff configuration warning when the thrust levers are placed to a takeoff thrust setting while on the ground but does not cause a warning when the TO CONFIG key is pressed after engine start?
Parking brake set to ON
130
Windshear warnings (which are provided by the FACs) function when the aircraft is:
* below 1300' AGL
* At FLAPS 1 or greater
131
What is the correct alerting priority order?
1 - Stall warnings
2 - Windshear warnings
3 - GPWS warnings
4 - TCAS warnings
132
Primary engine indications are displayed on the:
E/WD
133
On CFM56 series engines, the majority of the thrust is provided by:
The airflow which enters through the fan and bypasses the engine core
134
Items critical to engine operations that are driven by. the accessory gearbox are the:
* Engine oil pumps
* Engine fuel pumps and engine fuel control unit
* The alternator dedicated to providing electrical power to the FADEC
135
Each engine is equipped with a two channel Full Authority Digital Engine Control, FADEC. If one channel fails:
The other channel is fully capable of operating the engine and providing all FADEC functions
136
FADEC electrical power is provided by:
The aircrafts electrical system when the engine is not running and by a dedicated engine driven alternator when the engine is running
137
The engine page appears automatically on the SD:
* When you initiate engine start by moving the ENG MODE selector to IGN START
* For certain engine malfunctions
* When the parameter presented on the ENGINE page exceed preset limits
138
The CRANK position of the ENG MODE selector:
Does not allow ignition and fuel to be supplied to the enginesIs used in association with the ENG MAN START pbs to dry crank the engines
139
When an ENG MAN START pb is used with the:
ENG MODE selector in the CRANK position, the ENG MAN START pb must be selected to off (lights out) to close engines start valveWith the ENG MASTER switch in the ON position the engines start valve will close automatically when the N2 reaches 50%
140
Engine oil is cooled by ____ before it is returned to the oil tank
fuel
141
The LP fuel valve can be closed by either the ____ and the HP valve in the HMU can only be closed by the \_\_\_\_
Respective engine FIRE pb or the ENG MASTER switchENG MASTER switch
142
The FADEC automatically activates continuous ignition, ie, both igniters, on the V2500 engine in which situations
If the Engine Interface Unit, EIU, failsWhen engine anti ice is selected onIf an ignition delay is detected during an automatic ground startIf an engine flameout is sensed
143
Describe the engine start cycle limitation
Each cycle can last a maximum of two minutes. A 20 second rest is required after each cycle. After four cycles in a row, there must be a 15 minute cooling period. The starter must not be allowed to engage above 20% N2
144
The three idle modes that the FADEC can command are:
* Approach Idle
* Reverse Idle
* Modulated Idle
145
Before allowing thrust reverser deployment, the FADEC confirms that:
* The flight control systems SECs confirm that the thrust levers are in the reverse range
* That hydraulic pressure is available
* That the engine(s) is running
* The aircraft is on the ground
146
The purpose of N1 and N2 vibration monitoring is to:
Detect trends which may be an indication of future problems
147
True or False The Avionics Compartment has a fire extinguishing system installed?
FALSE
148
Describe each engines dedicated fire detection system
The Fire Detection Unit will alert you to an engine fire if both fire detection loops detect a heat rise. The Fire Detection Unit will alert you to an engine fire if one fire detection loop detects a heat rise and the other is determined to be faulted The Fire Detection Unit will alert you to an engine fire if both fire detection loops fail within a few seconds of each other
149
The illuminated SQUIB light on the AGENT pb on the ENG fire panel indicate what?
That the SQUIB is on the halon bottle is armed
150
The illuminated DISCH light on the AGENT 1 pb on the ENG fire panel indicates what?
The #1 halon bottle has been discharged and is depressurized
151
Describe the APU fire detection and protection system
The APU is equipped with two detection loops that sense a heat rise and one halon bottle
152
Cargo compartment smoke detection is provided by:
Particulate sensing smoke detectors, located in both cargo compartments
153
The lavatory smoke detection system:
Provides indications in both the flight deck and cabin that smoke has been detected in a lavatory, with the specific lavatory identified in the cabin
154
Which indications appear in the flight deck after an APU fire has been extinguished on the ground?
The APU FIRE pb is not illuminated but the AGENT DISCH light is illuminated
155
Gaseous oxygen for the flight deck supplemental oxygen system is stored in:
A high pressure cylinder
156
When you select the CREW SUPPLY pb OFF you:
* Close the supply solenoid located downstream from the pressure regulator
* Shut off the flow of oxygen to the four flight deck oxygen masks
157
On the DOOR/OXY page, Oxygen pressure is 1850psi, OXY is in amber, and REGUL LO PR is in amber, what does that mean?
You know that the CREW SUPPLY pb is selected OFF
158
With the red EMERGENCY knob in the full counterclockwise non-emergency position on the oxygen mask:
You must inhale to obtain oxygen, it is not a positive pressure.
159
What activates the flow of oxygen to a cabin oxygen mask?
The mask is pulled down and extended toward the user to activate the flow of oxygen
160
True or False The portable oxygen bottles are only used in the event of a loss of pressurization
FALSE
161
Engine anti-ice heats what?
Only the leading edge of the engine nacelles are anti-iced
162
True or False Engine bleed air must be selected "on" to use engine anti-ice?
FALSE
163
While in the emergency electrical configuration, how will the engine anti-ice valves respond?
The engine anti-ice valves will open automatically
164
When should wing anti-ice be selected ON?
It should be selected ON whenever there is any indication of airframe ice accumulation while in flight
165
While I the emergency electrical configuration, the wing anti-ice valves:
Will continue to operate normally
166
What is the maximum speed for operating the windshield wipers?
230 knots
167
The dual system radar is equipped with:
* A single antenna
* Two receiver/transmitters
168
What affect does turning the Ground Clutter Suppression switch OFF in manual mode have?
The Ground Clutter Suppression switch has no function in the manual mode
169
With the TILT knob set to 0, the radar beam is pointed:
At the horizon as defined by IRU 1
170
In order for areas of turbulence to be displayed, the ND range must be set to ____ miles or less
40
171
The EIS is composed of two subsystems which include:
EFIS and ECAM
172
The PFD should be displayed on which display unit?
Outboard display unit
173
Which computers are responsible for generating the images that are ultimately displayed on the Display Units?
The DMCs
174
Each ADIRU is made up of two components. the two components are:
* ADR, which provided pitot/static related info
* IRU, which provides gyroscopic and accelerometer related info
175
What is not calculated by the ADR portion of the ADIURUs?
Groundspeed
176
What does an amber box surrounding the digital vertical speed indication signify?
The IRU vertical speed signal is unavailable and the ADR is providing a backup barometric signal
177
The Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR) is automatically energized:
* On the ground with an engine running
* Continuously when airborne
* On the ground for a 5 minute period following the application of aircraft power
178
Red color coding on an ECAM display indicates:
A failure or system configuration requiring immediate pilot action
179
T.O INHIBIT memo is on the E/WD, what does it mean?
During the takeoff phase of fight, some cautions and warnings are inhibited to prevent crew distraction.
180
To display the CRUISE page on the SD:
No action is required. It appears automatically shortly after takeoff, as long as no system malfunctions are present.
181
An ECAM system advisory:
Causes the appropriate systems page to appear automatically on the SD when a system parameter exceeds the moral operational range, but has not exceeded a preset limit.f
182
The FMA is divided into five columns, what are they?
1 - Autothrust 2 - Vertical guidance mode 3 - Lateral guidance mode 4 - Approach status 5 - Autoflight status
183
What color indicates an engaged mode on the FMA?
Green
184
How would you reset the flight guidance modes after an aborted takeoff?
cycle both flight directors off and then back on
185
What is the preferred method of disengaging the autopilot?
By pressing the red disconnect pb on the sidestick
186
What is the active auto thrust range with one engine inoperative?
Just above the idle stop up thought and including the MCT detent
187
What affect on the auto thrust system does setting the thrust levers below the CL detent have?
The auto thrust active range is now limited to the thrust lever position
188
True or False While airborne, if not previously engaged, HDG and V/S are the default engagement modes for the flight guidance systems.
TRUE
189
What color is Managed speed vs Selected speed on the speed tape?
* Managed - magenta
* Selected - cyan
190
How does ground speed mini provide wind shear protection?
Ground speed mini ensures a minimum ground speed is flown during an approach. It ensures that sudden changes in headwind do not result in the airspeed dropping below VAPP
191
True or False The LOC pb is used for LOC BC approaches?
FALSE
192
Which vertical modes will ignore altitude constraints?
V/SEXP CLBOP CLB
193
During a normal takeoff, SRS provides pitch guidance for maintaining?
V2+10
194
During takeoff, if the departure runway has an associated localizer, what will be the active lateral mode?
RWY
195
True or False On aircraft with operational GPS, latitude and longitude entry is not required during FMGS preflight?
TRUE
196
During taxi for takeoff, ATC revises the departure runway. After correctly updating the departure runway in the FMGS, the scratchpad message CHECK TAKE OFF DATA appears. What does this message indicate?
The V1, VR, and V2 speeds should be confirmed against the takeoff data
197
Shortly after takeoff, LVR CLB flashes in column 1 of the FMA, indicating that?
The thrust reduction altitude entered on the PERF page has been reached
198
The aircraft has leveled off at the cruise altitude assigned by ATC, however the PERF page indicates that the Climb phase is still active. This is because:
The cruise altitude on the PROG page does not match the FCU altitude
199
A computed hold is calculated by the FMGS using which parameters?
* 1 min legs below 14,000
* 1.5 min legs above 14,000
* Current inbound course
* Right turns
200
What methods may be used to clear a hold from the flight plan?
Clearing the holdThe IMM EXIT promptDirect to a waypoint
201
During cruise flight, ATC instructs "descent at pilots discretion to FL290", it is noticed that the FMGS is still in the Cruise phase. What could be the cause?
The aircraft is more than 200nm from the destination
202
The FMGS remains in the Go-Around phase until:
The ACTIVATE APPR prompt is selectedA new destination is entered
203
In the Go-Around phase, managed airspeed remains at green dot until:
A new cruse altitude is entered on the PROG page
204
True or False Runway excursions account for more aircraft hull losses than any other type of accident today?
TRUE
205
True or False ROPS calculates landing distance once per approach. It does not actively calculate distances throughout the landing?
FALSE
206
ROPS applies a ____ percent safety margin to landing distance calculations
15
207
On the PFD "IF WET: RWY TOO SHORT" in amber is displayed. What is the proper procedure?
Continue the approach
208
MAX BRAKING in red on the PFD and aural MAX Braking is heard, what is the proper procedure?
Apply maximum pedal braking and maximum reverse thrust
