Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AA Pilot Indoc 3.17.20 > AA A320 ETHOS Questions > Flashcards

AA A320 ETHOS Questions Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral flashcards
1
Q

Max service ceiling for the A320F

A

FL390

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

True or False The flight deck door is equipped with an escape panel that can be removed from either the flight deck or the cabin side of the door?

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The flight deck door locking mechanism can be opened by…

A
  • -Enter a code in the keypad on the cabin side of the door
  • -Using the handle on the flight deck side of the door
  • -Using the toggle switch on the COCKPIT DOOR panel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Illumination of the red light in the observers port of the main cabin door indicate what?

A

The aircraft is on the ground and the engines are shut down, the slide is disarmed, and a cabin pressurization differential exists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What lights are avail on the flight deck in emergency electrical configuration?

A

The standby compass light the CA’s instrument flood lights, and the dome light over the FO’s seat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The smaller light on the aircraft right of the nose gear is which light?

A

Taxi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The STROBE switch is set to AUTO. In this position the strobe lights stop flashing when?

A

When the aircraft is on the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

With the EMER EXIT LT switch set to ARM, which cabin light(s) is/are armed to illuminate automatically if AC Bus 1 is unpowered?

A

Overhead emergency lights.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

With the EMER EXIT LT switch set to ARM, which cabin light(s) is/are armed to illuminate automatically if the DC ESS SHED Bus is unpowered?

A
  • Exit signs
  • Overhead emergency lights
  • Escape path lights
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

True of False Engine and APU bleed air are the only air sources for the pneumatic system?

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Does HP air supplement IP air?

A

Never

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Max altitude to use the APU bleed air

A

FL200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

True or False The pack regulators provide commands to the zone regulator

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

True or False The pack regulators monitor for pack malfunctions

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

True or False The pack regulators adjust toe air flow to the packs through the pack flow control valves

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What do the two cabin fans do?

A

Recirculate air from the cabin to the mixing unit to reduce the demand for bleed air which saves fuel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When in use, low pressure external air flows:

A

Directly into the mixing unit and then on to the three aircraft zones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

To regulate the temp in the three aircraft zones, the zone regulator:

A
  • Commands the pack regulators to adjust the output of the packs
  • Can increase both APU or engine idle speeds to meet the demands of the air conditioning system
  • Receives input from the temp selectors on the overhead AIR COND panel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following does not provide input to the pressurization controllers?

  • Thrust levers
  • LGCIUs
  • FADECs
  • ADIRUs
A

FADEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The input provided by the FMGCs enable the pressurization controllers to:

A

Know the planned cruise alt and plan the cabin climb accordingly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The pressurization controllers use the elevation of your destination airport to plan the descent profile. In normal operations, this info is provided:

A

By the FMS database once you enter the destination airport into the MCDU.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The safety valves:

A

Open automatically when it becomes necessary to relieve excess positive or negative cabin pressure differentials.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

On the cruise page, why is the cabin vertical speed indicator in an analog format?

A

The MODE SEL pb has been selected to MAN, and the pressurization system is being operated in the manual mode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Automatic control of the avionics ventilation system is provided by:

A

A single Avionics Equipment Ventilation Computer (AEVC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

You can monitor the operation of the avionics ventilation system inlet and extract valves on:

A

The CAB PRESS page

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

To cool avionics ventilation air, the skin heat exchanger:

A

Uses the temp of the exterior of the aircrafts fuselage in certain modes of operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The open configuration of the Avionics Ventilation system is used:

A

On the ground in warm ambient conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The open configuration of the avionics ventilation system:

A

Uses outside air to ventilate the avionics equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The closed configuration of the avionics ventilation system:

A

Is used on the ground during cold ambient conditions Is used during flight Utilizes the skin heat exchanger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The intermediate configuration of the avionics ventilation system:

A

Is used when you apply takeoff power for a departure from a station with hot ambient conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Heating for the fwd cargo compartment:

A

Is provided by a trim air system Is controlled automatically by a cargo heat controller Can be adjusted from the flight deck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

You have just selected the APU MASTER SW pb ON. You now select the APU START pb to ON. Will the APU immediately start?

A

No, the ECB will not engage the electric starter until the power-up self test is completed satisfactorily and the air intake flap is fully open.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

AVAIL light on the APU START pb indicates what?

A

The APU has reached normal operating speed and is ready to provide electrical power and bleed air.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The APU ECB provides:

A

FAULT monitoring and reporting Bleed air output monitoring APU N speed and EGT monitoring Start and shut down sequencing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Ambient air is routed to the APU compressor:

A

Through an electrically operated intake flap located beneath the APU compartment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Fuel for APU operation is normally supplied from:

A

The left wing tank inner cell, through the engine 1 feed line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

True or False The ECB shuts down the APU automatically for low oil quantity but does not shut it down for low oil pressure?

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

True or False The ECB shuts down the APU automatically for low oil pressure and/or for low oil quantity

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

True or False The ECB shuts down the APU automatically for low oil pressure but does not shut it down for low oil quantity

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

True or False The ECB never shuts down the APU for low oil pressure or low oil quantity

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

APU bleed air output is used for:

A

Engine Starting Air conditioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

True or False Regarding the APU fire detection and protection system -The system ins equipped with two heat detection loops and two halon bottles

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

True or False Regarding the APU fire detection and protection system -The system is equipped with two smoke detection loops and a single halon bottle

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

True or False Regarding the APU fire detection and protection system -The system is equipped with two heat detection loops and a single halon bottle

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

True or False Regarding the APU fire detection and protection system -The system is equipped with one heat detection loop and a single halon bottle

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When an APU fire occurs on the ground:

A

The ECB automatically shuts down the APUA red APU fire light illuminates on the external power panel near the nose gear and an external horn located at the nose gear soundsThe APU halon fire bottle is discharged automatically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The APU generator can:

A

Power the entire electrical system by itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

To avoid damage to the IDG disconnect mechanism the IDG abs should:

A

Only be used when the respective engine is running or windmilling Not be pressed for more than 3 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A single engine driven generator:

A

Can power the entire electrical system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The AC and DC Ground/Flight Busses can be powered for ground servicing without energizing the entire system:

A
  • When external power is connected to the aircraft
  • When the MAINT BUS switch on the ceiling panel aft of the flight deck is selected to ON
  • When external power is not selected to ON in the flight deck
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the power priority to AC Bus 1 exercised by the Bus tie?

A

Gen 1, External power, APU GEN, GEN 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

When selected OFF the BUS TIE pb:

A

Will keep the APU GEN and external power from powering the entire electrical system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

With the GALY & CAB pb in its normal, lights out position, the main power supply to the high load ovens will shed if:

A

A single generator is powering the system in flight or a single engine driven generator only is powering on the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Under normal operating conditions DC power is supplied by:

A

TR 1 and TR 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The emergency generator:

A

Is powered by a hydraulic motor, which is powered by the Blue hydraulic system, which is pressurized by a Ram Air Turbine (RAT).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The static inverter:

A
  • Enables BAT 1 to power the AC ESS Bus
  • Automatically activates in the emergency electrical configuration when the aircraft slows below 100 knots after landing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which circuit breaker, that when tripped or pulled, will generate an ECAM “C/B Tripped” message?

A

Green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How do the FMGCs “communicate” during normal operations?

A

Each FMGC performs its own computations, and they are synchronized by the cross talk bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

On aircraft equipped with GPS, which configuration is primarily used for determine the aircrafts position?

A

3IRS/GPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

True or False If one IRS fails, the MIX IRS position will be computed using an average of the other two operating IRS positions?

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How many DME channels can be used for radio position updating?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

To accomplish a Fast/Quick IRS alignment, the mode selectors should be selected to OFF then back to NAV pithing how many seconds?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Info fro the ILS 1 receiver is sent to:

A
  • The CA PFD
  • The FO ND
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

True or False A navaid can be manually tuned by entering either the identifier or frequency into the RADIO NAV page?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The green hydraulic system can be pressurized by:

A

The engine #1 driven pump or the PTU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The yellow hydraulic system can be pressurized by:

A

The engine #2 driven pump or the PTU or an electric pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The Blue hydraulic system can be pressurized by:

A

An electric pump or a RAT driven pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The Blue system electric pump:

A

Activates automatically on the ground when the first engine is started

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Yellow system electric pump:

A

Activates automatically on the ground prior to engine start when a cargo door is opened or closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The accumulators in the three hydraulic systems:

A

Help maintain a constant pressure by smoothing transient demands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

True or False If both ELACS have failed or are selected OFF, the aircraft remains in normal law?

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

True or False Normally, both ELACs are active, providing input to the flight control surfaces.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

True or False With one ELAC failed or selected OFF, both ailerons, the elevators, and the THS operate normally.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

True or False If all three SECs have failed or have shut off, roll control is not possible

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

True or False Each SEC controls on pair or two pairs of spoiler panels

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

True or False SECs 1 and 2 also provide backup pitch control of the elevators and THS, if both ELACs should fail

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The SECs provide backup yaw control, if both FAC computers fail

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

True or False The FACs are only involved in flight control functions

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

True or False The FACs control rudder movement for automatic turn coordination, yaw dampening, rudder limiting, and rudder trim

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

True or False Normally, only one FAC is active, with the other FAC serving as a backup in the event of a failure

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

The FACs are depicted not the F/CTL page

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

If both side sticks are moved in the same directions at the same time:

A

The total demand is never more than what can be realized with full deflection on only one sidestick The input from the two sidesticks are summed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

The elevators are:

A

Independently moved by one of two electronically controlled servos that serve each elevator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

In normal flight ops, pitch trim is:

A

Automatic and can be monitored on the F/CTL page and the trim position scales next to the trim wheels.

85
Q

Rudder trim is:

A

Accomplished by displacing the entire rudder surface and is automatic when the autopilot is engaged

86
Q

All five spoiler panels on each wing are used to perform the ground spoiler function. The bracket markings on the F/CTL page remind you that:

A
  • The three middle spoiler panels (2-4) carry out the speed brake function
  • The outer four spoiler panels 2-5 assist in roll control
87
Q

Each Slat Flap Control Computer (SFCC):

A

Controls one hydraulic motor to extend the slats and one hydraulic motor to extend the flaps.

88
Q

Slat Alpha/Speed lock:

A

Prevents you from retracting the slats, if extended if the angle of attack becomes excessive or the airspeed is too low

89
Q

MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY on the FMA in red indicates what law?

A

Mechanical backup control

90
Q

USE MAN PITCH TRIM on the FMA in amber indicates what law?

A

Alternate Law

91
Q

A single failure of a flight control computer:

A

Does not cause normal law to downgrade to another law

92
Q

Your aircraft is currently in a climb with a nose up pitch attitude. You are hand flying the aircraft and both sidesticks are currently in the neutral position. You are asking the flight control computers for:

A

No change in load factor

93
Q

Pitch protections provided in normal law include:

A
  • Maneuver protection
  • Pitch attitude protection
  • High speed and Alpha protection
94
Q

True or False The A320F cannot be stalled in normal law

A

TRUE

95
Q

You are in level flight in a. 20º bank to the left. You are hand flying the aircraft and both sidesticks are in the neutral position. You are asking the flight control computers for:

A

0º per second roll rate

96
Q

You are in level flight and hand flying the aircraft. You are currently holding 50º of bank to the right. Due to positive spiral stability, if you release the sidestick to the neutral position:

A

33º of bank is commanded by the flight control computers

97
Q

The normal law landing mode:

A
  • Exists to give the landing flare and touchdown a conventional feel
  • Memorizes the current pitch attitude at 50 feet AGL
  • Beginning at 30 feet AGL, introduces a gentle nose down command to the previously memorized pitch attitude
98
Q

The two Landing Gear Control Interface Units (LGCIU 1 & LGCIU 2):

A

Swap roles as controlling and back up of gear extension and retraction each time the landing gear is raised

99
Q

The primary method for monitoring the gear position, the Landing Gear Indicator Panel, receives information from:

A

LGCIU 1

100
Q

The maximum speed for gear extension is _____ knots and for gear retraction is ____ knots

A

250, 220

101
Q

Input to nose wheel steering from the hand wheels rudder pedals, and autopilot is:

A

Electrical through the Brakes Steering Control Unit (BSCU)

102
Q

If landing following a gravity gear extension, nose wheel steering is:

A

Not avail

103
Q

On the WHEEL page, an amber ark appears over the hottest wheel when its brake temp exceeds:

A

300ºC

104
Q

Normal braking requires:

A
  • Green Hydraulic system pressure avail
  • At least one channel of the BSCU must be operational
  • The A/SKID & NW STRG switch must be selected ON
105
Q

Alternate braking with anti skid activates automatically following:

A

Failure of the Green hydraulic system

106
Q

Alternate braking without anti skid activates automatically following:

A
  • Failure of both channels of the BSCU
  • Failure of the Green and Yellow hydraulic systems
  • Selection of the A/SKID & NW STRG switch to OFF
107
Q

The Fuel Quantity Indication (FQI) system does what?

A

Measures fuel quantity and fuel temp

108
Q

What does an amber fuel temp indicate?

A

That the temp has risen above or fallen below a preset temp limit

109
Q

True or False Fuel Flow is used to cool the IDGs oil system?

A

TRUE

110
Q

When does the fuel used readout reset?

A

Resets during engine start

111
Q

With fuel in the right inner wing cell at approx 1650lbs, what will happen?

A

The transfer valves in both wings will open

112
Q

True or false The APU has a dedicated fuel pump that operates automatically if the left fuel manifold is not pressurized and the APU MASTER SW is ON

A

TRUE

113
Q

True or False On the A321, Fuel from the center tank is only transferred to the wing tanks

A

TRUE

114
Q

True or False On the A321, Fuel transfer from the center to the wing tanks only occurs when the wing tank fuel level drops below a predetermined level

A

TRUE

115
Q

The Radio Management Panels, RMPs are used:

A

Exclusively to tune frequencies for various radios, including navaids if necessary.

116
Q

Which transmission key alerting light does NOT extinguish automatically after a short period of time if the RESET pb is not used?

A

CALL

117
Q

Which radio is normally dedicated to ACARS?

A

VHF3, but it can also be used for voice comm if needed.

118
Q

The flight interphone system:

A

Enables intercommunications between flight deck occupants. Enables communication between the flight deck and the external power panel

119
Q

The hot microphone mode of the flight inter phone system:

A

Enables you to talk hands free using your headset boom microphone or oxygen mask microphoneIs activated by moving the INT/RAD switch on the ACP to the INT position

120
Q

To use the service interpose system you:

A
  • Can use the hand microphone
  • Must activate the CAB transmission key and reception knob
  • Can use your boom microphone or oxygen mask microphone
121
Q

To use the PA handset to make a PA announcement:

A

you press and hold the PTT pb on the handset while talking

122
Q

The CVR operates automatically:

A
  • For the first 5 minutes after AC power is applied to the aircraft
  • When the first engine is started
  • Anytime the aircraft is airborne
123
Q

With the SYS pb on the GPWS panel in the OFF condition, what does it mean?

A

All 5 of the GPWS basic mode warnings are inhibited

124
Q

True or False You must make sure the loudspeakers are turned up loud enough so that you can hear the aural GPWS warnings?

A

FALSE

125
Q

You are flying at a low altitude. The GPWS is operating normally, and the TERR ON ND on your side of the flight deck is selected ON. Your ND shows no terrain, what does this mean?

A

Your brightness is too low or All terrain within the range selected on the ND is more than 2000 feet below your current altitude

126
Q

The Terrain Clearance Floor (TCF) is:

A

Not predictive. The aircraft must actually penetrate the TCF to trigger a warning.

127
Q

You hear ‘Pull Up’ and have terrain on your ND in RED and the Pull Up on the GPWS illuminates. Why?

A

You are within 30 seconds of hazardous terrain based upon your current flight path angle, track, and speed relative to the terrain.

128
Q

What color and shape are aircraft on the TCAS representation?

A
  • White filled diamond - proximate traffic
  • Yellow filled circle - TA
  • Red filled square - RA
129
Q

Which item causes a takeoff configuration warning when the thrust levers are placed to a takeoff thrust setting while on the ground but does not cause a warning when the TO CONFIG key is pressed after engine start?

A

Parking brake set to ON

130
Q

Windshear warnings (which are provided by the FACs) function when the aircraft is:

A
  • below 1300’ AGL
  • At FLAPS 1 or greater
131
Q

What is the correct alerting priority order?

A

1 - Stall warnings

2 - Windshear warnings

3 - GPWS warnings

4 - TCAS warnings

132
Q

Primary engine indications are displayed on the:

A

E/WD

133
Q

On CFM56 series engines, the majority of the thrust is provided by:

A

The airflow which enters through the fan and bypasses the engine core

134
Q

Items critical to engine operations that are driven by. the accessory gearbox are the:

A
  • Engine oil pumps
  • Engine fuel pumps and engine fuel control unit
  • The alternator dedicated to providing electrical power to the FADEC
135
Q

Each engine is equipped with a two channel Full Authority Digital Engine Control, FADEC. If one channel fails:

A

The other channel is fully capable of operating the engine and providing all FADEC functions

136
Q

FADEC electrical power is provided by:

A

The aircrafts electrical system when the engine is not running and by a dedicated engine driven alternator when the engine is running

137
Q

The engine page appears automatically on the SD:

A
  • When you initiate engine start by moving the ENG MODE selector to IGN START
  • For certain engine malfunctions
  • When the parameter presented on the ENGINE page exceed preset limits
138
Q

The CRANK position of the ENG MODE selector:

A

Does not allow ignition and fuel to be supplied to the enginesIs used in association with the ENG MAN START pbs to dry crank the engines

139
Q

When an ENG MAN START pb is used with the:

A

ENG MODE selector in the CRANK position, the ENG MAN START pb must be selected to off (lights out) to close engines start valveWith the ENG MASTER switch in the ON position the engines start valve will close automatically when the N2 reaches 50%

140
Q

Engine oil is cooled by ____ before it is returned to the oil tank

A

fuel

141
Q

The LP fuel valve can be closed by either the ____ and the HP valve in the HMU can only be closed by the ____

A

Respective engine FIRE pb or the ENG MASTER switchENG MASTER switch

142
Q

The FADEC automatically activates continuous ignition, ie, both igniters, on the V2500 engine in which situations

A

If the Engine Interface Unit, EIU, failsWhen engine anti ice is selected onIf an ignition delay is detected during an automatic ground startIf an engine flameout is sensed

143
Q

Describe the engine start cycle limitation

A

Each cycle can last a maximum of two minutes. A 20 second rest is required after each cycle. After four cycles in a row, there must be a 15 minute cooling period. The starter must not be allowed to engage above 20% N2

144
Q

The three idle modes that the FADEC can command are:

A
  • Approach Idle
  • Reverse Idle
  • Modulated Idle
145
Q

Before allowing thrust reverser deployment, the FADEC confirms that:

A
  • The flight control systems SECs confirm that the thrust levers are in the reverse range
  • That hydraulic pressure is available
  • That the engine(s) is running
  • The aircraft is on the ground
146
Q

The purpose of N1 and N2 vibration monitoring is to:

A

Detect trends which may be an indication of future problems

147
Q

True or False The Avionics Compartment has a fire extinguishing system installed?

A

FALSE

148
Q

Describe each engines dedicated fire detection system

A

The Fire Detection Unit will alert you to an engine fire if both fire detection loops detect a heat rise. The Fire Detection Unit will alert you to an engine fire if one fire detection loop detects a heat rise and the other is determined to be faulted The Fire Detection Unit will alert you to an engine fire if both fire detection loops fail within a few seconds of each other

149
Q

The illuminated SQUIB light on the AGENT pb on the ENG fire panel indicate what?

A

That the SQUIB is on the halon bottle is armed

150
Q

The illuminated DISCH light on the AGENT 1 pb on the ENG fire panel indicates what?

A

The #1 halon bottle has been discharged and is depressurized

151
Q

Describe the APU fire detection and protection system

A

The APU is equipped with two detection loops that sense a heat rise and one halon bottle

152
Q

Cargo compartment smoke detection is provided by:

A

Particulate sensing smoke detectors, located in both cargo compartments

153
Q

The lavatory smoke detection system:

A

Provides indications in both the flight deck and cabin that smoke has been detected in a lavatory, with the specific lavatory identified in the cabin

154
Q

Which indications appear in the flight deck after an APU fire has been extinguished on the ground?

A

The APU FIRE pb is not illuminated but the AGENT DISCH light is illuminated

155
Q

Gaseous oxygen for the flight deck supplemental oxygen system is stored in:

A

A high pressure cylinder

156
Q

When you select the CREW SUPPLY pb OFF you:

A
  • Close the supply solenoid located downstream from the pressure regulator
  • Shut off the flow of oxygen to the four flight deck oxygen masks
157
Q

On the DOOR/OXY page, Oxygen pressure is 1850psi, OXY is in amber, and REGUL LO PR is in amber, what does that mean?

A

You know that the CREW SUPPLY pb is selected OFF

158
Q

With the red EMERGENCY knob in the full counterclockwise non-emergency position on the oxygen mask:

A

You must inhale to obtain oxygen, it is not a positive pressure.

159
Q

What activates the flow of oxygen to a cabin oxygen mask?

A

The mask is pulled down and extended toward the user to activate the flow of oxygen

160
Q

True or False The portable oxygen bottles are only used in the event of a loss of pressurization

A

FALSE

161
Q

Engine anti-ice heats what?

A

Only the leading edge of the engine nacelles are anti-iced

162
Q

True or False Engine bleed air must be selected “on” to use engine anti-ice?

A

FALSE

163
Q

While in the emergency electrical configuration, how will the engine anti-ice valves respond?

A

The engine anti-ice valves will open automatically

164
Q

When should wing anti-ice be selected ON?

A

It should be selected ON whenever there is any indication of airframe ice accumulation while in flight

165
Q

While I the emergency electrical configuration, the wing anti-ice valves:

A

Will continue to operate normally

166
Q

What is the maximum speed for operating the windshield wipers?

A

230 knots

167
Q

The dual system radar is equipped with:

A
  • A single antenna
  • Two receiver/transmitters
168
Q

What affect does turning the Ground Clutter Suppression switch OFF in manual mode have?

A

The Ground Clutter Suppression switch has no function in the manual mode

169
Q

With the TILT knob set to 0, the radar beam is pointed:

A

At the horizon as defined by IRU 1

170
Q

In order for areas of turbulence to be displayed, the ND range must be set to ____ miles or less

A

40

171
Q

The EIS is composed of two subsystems which include:

A

EFIS and ECAM

172
Q

The PFD should be displayed on which display unit?

A

Outboard display unit

173
Q

Which computers are responsible for generating the images that are ultimately displayed on the Display Units?

A

The DMCs

174
Q

Each ADIRU is made up of two components. the two components are:

A
  • ADR, which provided pitot/static related info
  • IRU, which provides gyroscopic and accelerometer related info
175
Q

What is not calculated by the ADR portion of the ADIURUs?

A

Groundspeed

176
Q

What does an amber box surrounding the digital vertical speed indication signify?

A

The IRU vertical speed signal is unavailable and the ADR is providing a backup barometric signal

177
Q

The Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR) is automatically energized:

A
  • On the ground with an engine running
  • Continuously when airborne
  • On the ground for a 5 minute period following the application of aircraft power
178
Q

Red color coding on an ECAM display indicates:

A

A failure or system configuration requiring immediate pilot action

179
Q

T.O INHIBIT memo is on the E/WD, what does it mean?

A

During the takeoff phase of fight, some cautions and warnings are inhibited to prevent crew distraction.

180
Q

To display the CRUISE page on the SD:

A

No action is required. It appears automatically shortly after takeoff, as long as no system malfunctions are present.

181
Q

An ECAM system advisory:

A

Causes the appropriate systems page to appear automatically on the SD when a system parameter exceeds the moral operational range, but has not exceeded a preset limit.f

182
Q

The FMA is divided into five columns, what are they?

A

1 - Autothrust 2 - Vertical guidance mode 3 - Lateral guidance mode 4 - Approach status 5 - Autoflight status

183
Q

What color indicates an engaged mode on the FMA?

A

Green

184
Q

How would you reset the flight guidance modes after an aborted takeoff?

A

cycle both flight directors off and then back on

185
Q

What is the preferred method of disengaging the autopilot?

A

By pressing the red disconnect pb on the sidestick

186
Q

What is the active auto thrust range with one engine inoperative?

A

Just above the idle stop up thought and including the MCT detent

187
Q

What affect on the auto thrust system does setting the thrust levers below the CL detent have?

A

The auto thrust active range is now limited to the thrust lever position

188
Q

True or False While airborne, if not previously engaged, HDG and V/S are the default engagement modes for the flight guidance systems.

A

TRUE

189
Q

What color is Managed speed vs Selected speed on the speed tape?

A
  • Managed - magenta
  • Selected - cyan
190
Q

How does ground speed mini provide wind shear protection?

A

Ground speed mini ensures a minimum ground speed is flown during an approach. It ensures that sudden changes in headwind do not result in the airspeed dropping below VAPP

191
Q

True or False The LOC pb is used for LOC BC approaches?

A

FALSE

192
Q

Which vertical modes will ignore altitude constraints?

A

V/SEXP CLBOP CLB

193
Q

During a normal takeoff, SRS provides pitch guidance for maintaining?

A

V2+10

194
Q

During takeoff, if the departure runway has an associated localizer, what will be the active lateral mode?

A

RWY

195
Q

True or False On aircraft with operational GPS, latitude and longitude entry is not required during FMGS preflight?

A

TRUE

196
Q

During taxi for takeoff, ATC revises the departure runway. After correctly updating the departure runway in the FMGS, the scratchpad message CHECK TAKE OFF DATA appears. What does this message indicate?

A

The V1, VR, and V2 speeds should be confirmed against the takeoff data

197
Q

Shortly after takeoff, LVR CLB flashes in column 1 of the FMA, indicating that?

A

The thrust reduction altitude entered on the PERF page has been reached

198
Q

The aircraft has leveled off at the cruise altitude assigned by ATC, however the PERF page indicates that the Climb phase is still active. This is because:

A

The cruise altitude on the PROG page does not match the FCU altitude

199
Q

A computed hold is calculated by the FMGS using which parameters?

A
  • 1 min legs below 14,000
  • 1.5 min legs above 14,000
  • Current inbound course
  • Right turns
200
Q

What methods may be used to clear a hold from the flight plan?

A

Clearing the holdThe IMM EXIT promptDirect to a waypoint

201
Q

During cruise flight, ATC instructs “descent at pilots discretion to FL290”, it is noticed that the FMGS is still in the Cruise phase. What could be the cause?

A

The aircraft is more than 200nm from the destination

202
Q

The FMGS remains in the Go-Around phase until:

A

The ACTIVATE APPR prompt is selectedA new destination is entered

203
Q

In the Go-Around phase, managed airspeed remains at green dot until:

A

A new cruse altitude is entered on the PROG page

204
Q

True or False Runway excursions account for more aircraft hull losses than any other type of accident today?

A

TRUE

205
Q

True or False ROPS calculates landing distance once per approach. It does not actively calculate distances throughout the landing?

A

FALSE

206
Q

ROPS applies a ____ percent safety margin to landing distance calculations

A

15

207
Q

On the PFD “IF WET: RWY TOO SHORT” in amber is displayed. What is the proper procedure?

A

Continue the approach

208
Q

MAX BRAKING in red on the PFD and aural MAX Braking is heard, what is the proper procedure?

A

Apply maximum pedal braking and maximum reverse thrust

AA Pilot Indoc 3.17.20 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions