Adaptive Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

what is an antigen and where are they found in

A

an antigen is a molecule (proteins, polysaccharide, lipids, nucleic acid etc) capable of inducing an adaptive immune response. Antigens may be complex with several ‘epitopes’

Pathogens are covered in a myriad of unique antigens which are recognised as ‘foreign’

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2
Q

list 3 key features of adaptive immunity

A
  • Takes longer to develop adaptive responses than innate responses
    Clonal expansion of adaptive immune cells (B and T)
  • Specificity - Conferred by antigen-specific receptors on B and T-cells and antibodies, with extraordinary diversity
  • Memory - Maintained in T-cells and plasma cells after initial immune response so that response can be generated more rapidly if pathogen encountered again
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3
Q

cells found in APCs

A
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4
Q

Infectious agents can be outside and inside cells
How can the adaptive immune system recognise antigens in both settings?

A
  • Antibodies can recognise antigens outside of cells
  • T cells can recognise antigens ‘inside’ cells
  • All cells present portions of their internal milieu on specialised molecules at the surface – particularly MHC molecules (bind peptides)
  • Antigen-presenting cells ‘show’ T cells what is inside them
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5
Q

innate vs adaptive immunity

A
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6
Q

How the innate immune system helps the adaptive immune response

A

1. Pathogen Sensing:

  • Cells in the immune system use Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs) to detect molecules on pathogens called Pathogen-Associated Molecular Patterns (PAMPs).
  • Examples of PRRs include Toll-like receptors (TLRs) (e.g., TLR3 recognizes viral RNA).

2. Signalling Activation:

  • PRRs trigger pathways like IRF3 or NFκB, which lead to the production of Type I Interferons (IFN-α & IFN-β).
  • These interferons activate genes (called Interferon-Stimulated Genes, ISGs) that help fight infections.

3. Specialized Cells:

  • Plasmacytoid Dendritic Cells (pDCs) are major producers of Type I IFNs.

4. Link to Adaptive Immunity:

After detecting pathogens, the immune cells mature by:

  • Producing cytokines and chemokines (immune signalling molecules).
  • Displaying pathogen fragments (antigens) to T cells, enabling the adaptive immune response.
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7
Q

where do T cells develop, give examples

A
  • T cells - develop in the thymus
  • Conventional (⍺β) T cells monitor cells for presence of infectious agents inside them
  • Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+)
  • T helper cells (CD4+)
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8
Q

where do B cells develop

A
  • B cells- develop in bone marrow
  • Can develop into plasma cells that produce antibodies (immunoglobulins)
  • Different types: IgM, IgD, IgG, IgA and IgE
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9
Q

humoral immunity

A

Humoral Immunity

  • Target: Extracellular microbes (outside cells, like bacteria).
  • Key Cells: B lymphocytes (B cells).
  • Mechanism: B cells produce antibodies that:
  • Bind to microbes.
  • Neutralize or block infections.
  • Help eliminate extracellular pathogens.
  • Function: Protects against infections by targeting microbes outside of cells.
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10
Q

cell mediated immunity

A

Cell-Mediated Immunity (Right Columns)

  • Target: Intracellular microbes (inside cells, like viruses or bacteria in macrophages).
  • Key Cells: T lymphocytes (T cells).
  • Helper T cells: Activate macrophages to destroy phagocytosed microbes.
  • Cytotoxic T cells: Kill infected cells to eliminate reservoirs of infection.
  • Mechanism:
  • Helper T cells enhance the ability of macrophages to digest microbes.
  • Cytotoxic T cells directly kill infected cells.
  • Function: Defends against infections hidden inside cells.
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11
Q

difference between cell mediated and humoral immunity

A
  • Humoral immunity fights infections outside cells using antibodies.
  • Cell-mediated immunity fights infections inside cells by activating macrophages and killing infected cells.
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12
Q

How do Lymphocytes Recognise Specific Antigens?

A

1. Antigen Receptors:

  • T cells have T-cell receptors (TCRs).
  • B cells have B-cell receptors (BCRs), which are antibodies on their surface.

Structure and Function:

  • Both receptors have a variable region that determines specificity, acting like a “lock and key” to bind specific antigens.
  • The constant region anchors the receptor in the cell.

Diversity:

  • There are around 10¹⁸ different antigen receptors, created by genetic rearrangement.
  • This process enables lymphocytes to recognize a vast number of antigens, far exceeding the amount of DNA in our genome.
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13
Q

How do B cells recognise antigens?

A

B Cells:

B cells recognize conformational epitopes, meaning they “see” the 3D shape of antigens as they exist on the surface of pathogens.
These do not require antigen processing.

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14
Q

How do T cells recognise antigens

A

T Cells:

T cells recognize linear epitopes, which are short pieces (peptides) of an antigen.
The antigen must first be broken down into these peptide fragments by the immune system and presented on MHC molecules.
The T cell receptor (TCR) then binds to the MHC molecule displaying the peptide.

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15
Q

B cells vs T cells in recognising antigens

A

B cells bind to whole antigens (shapes).
T cells bind to processed pieces of antigens (peptides).

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16
Q

What is VDJ recombination?

A

VDJ recombination is the process where DNA is cut and rearranged randomly using Variable (V), Diversity (D), and Joining (J) gene segments to create unique receptor combinations for each T or B cell.

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17
Q

How does VDJ recombination generate receptor diversity?

A

VDJ recombination generates diversity by random splicing of V, D, and J gene segments, creating unique combinations.

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18
Q

what do B cells do

A
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19
Q

How does imprecision in DNA joining increase receptor diversity?

A

Imprecision during DNA joining, such as adding or removing nucleotides, creates even more receptor variety.

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20
Q

How do VDJ recombination and somatic hypermutation contribute to immune diversity?

A

VDJ recombination creates a vast number of unique receptor combinations, while somatic hypermutation fine-tunes receptors for better antigen binding.

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21
Q

What are the three main processes that generate diversity and specificity in adaptive immunity?

A

VDJ recombination, somatic hypermutation, and affinity maturation.

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22
Q

What happens during somatic hypermutation?

A

Lymphocytes mutate their DNA after encountering an antigen, creating more receptor diversity.

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23
Q

What is affinity maturation?

A

The process of selecting the strongest lymphocyte clones with high-affinity receptors to survive.

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24
Q

What is class switch recombination (CSR)?

A

CSR is the process where the constant region of an antibody changes, allowing the same antigen-binding site (variable region) to attach to different antibody types (e.g., IgG, IgE, IgA).

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25
Q

Why is class switch recombination important?

A

It enables antibodies to perform different effector functions, like better pathogen neutralization or allergy responses.

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26
Q

What determines the immunoglobulin (Ig) class during CSR?

A

Rearrangements in the constant (C) gene regions determine the Ig class (e.g., IgG, IgE, IgA).

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27
Q

What is required for class switch recombination to occur?

A

CSR requires help from CD4+ T cells.

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28
Q

Does class switch recombination change the antigen-binding site of the antibody?

A

No, the variable region (antigen-binding site) remains the same during CSR.

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29
Q

Which antibody is produced first in an immune response?

A

IgM, which has low affinity, high avidity, and activates complement.

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30
Q

Which antibody provides mucosal immunity in the gut and lungs?

A

IgA.

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31
Q

Which antibody is the most abundant in circulation?

A

IgG, which is used to diagnose past or persistent infections and has high affinity.

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32
Q

What is the function of IgD?

A

It acts as a receptor on immature B cells.

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33
Q

Which antibody is involved in allergic reactions and binds to mast cells?

A

IgE, which is present in low serum concentrations.

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34
Q

What are the key properties of IgG?

A

It is >80% of circulating antibodies, has 4 subclasses (IgG1-4), and provides high-affinity responses.

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35
Q

What are the key regions of an antibody?

A

The variable region binds the target antigen, and the constant region interacts with effectors.

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36
Q

What is the role of IgM antibodies?

A

IgM is effective at neutralising and agglutinating antigens.

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37
Q

What is the role of IgG and IgA antibodies?

A

IgG and IgA are good at opsonising (promoting phagocytosis) and fixing complement.

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38
Q

What happens when antibody production is defective?

A

It can lead to bacterial respiratory infections.

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39
Q

What is antibody neutralisation?

A

Antibodies cover biologically active portions of a microbe or toxin, preventing their function.

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40
Q

What is complement fixation?

A

The Fc region of an antibody binds complement proteins, activating them to lyse bacteria.

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41
Q

What is agglutination?

A

Antibodies cross-link cells (e.g., bacteria), forming a clump for easier clearance.

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42
Q

What is opsonisation?

A

Antibodies bind to receptors on phagocytic cells, triggering pathogen engulfment and destruction.

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43
Q

What is immunological memory?

A

It allows a rapid and stronger immune response upon subsequent exposure to an antigen.

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44
Q

How are memory cells formed?

A

A small proportion of high-affinity B and T cells differentiate into long-lived memory cells after activation.

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45
Q

Where do memory cells reside?

A

In lymph nodes or tissues.

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46
Q

How do memory cells differ from naïve cells?

A

Memory cells have a longer lifespan, respond faster and stronger, and have high-affinity receptors.

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47
Q

What happens during a secondary immune response?

A

High-affinity antibodies are produced in greater quantities compared to the primary response.

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48
Q

What is the difference between the primary and secondary immune responses

A
  • Primary response: Slow, with low-affinity antibodies produced.
  • Secondary response: Faster and stronger, with high-affinity antibodies produced in larger quantities.
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49
Q

What role do memory B and T cells play in subsequent responses?

A

Memory T cells orchestrate the secondary immune response, while memory B cells produce large amounts of high-affinity antibodies.

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50
Q

What is the origin and function of the B cell precursor?

A

Located in the bone marrow; undergoes VDJ rearrangement to prepare for antigen recognition.

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51
Q

What is the mature naïve B cell, and where is it found?

A

Circulating in the bloodstream; it is antigen (Ag) naïve.

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51
Q

Where does the activated B cell reside, and what does it signify?

A

Found in lymph nodes; it has been exposed to an antigen.

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52
Q

What is the function of a plasma cell, and where is it located?

A

Found in bone marrow or lymph tissue; it secretes antibodies

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53
Q

What are memory B cells, and what is their role?

A

Located in the bone marrow; they enable rapid differentiation into plasma cells during future antigen exposure.

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54
Q

What do naïve T cells require for activation?

A

Two signals in secondary lymphoid tissues:

Signal 1: TCR recognition of peptide-MHC.
Signal 2: Interaction between costimulatory molecules on T cells and mature dendritic cells (DCs).

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55
Q

What happens if naïve T cells only receive Signal 1?

A

They undergo anergy (inactivation) or deletion.

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56
Q

What do activated T cells do?

A

Clonally expand.
Acquire effector functions.
Effector functions are regulated by the type of “danger” sensed by DCs.

57
Q

What drives effector T cell responses?

A

Signal 1 alone (antigen recognition) at peripheral sites of infection.

58
Q

What are the two main domains of the T-cell receptor (TCR)?

A

Variable domain (Vα, Vβ)
Constant domain (Cα, Cβ)

59
Q

What regions determine TCR specificity?

A

Complementarity-determining regions (CDRs).

60
Q

How does TCR diversity compare to B-cell receptor (BCR) diversity?

A

TCR diversity mechanisms are similar to BCR, except there is no somatic hypermutation in TCRs.

61
Q

What components make up the variable domain of TCR?

A

V (Variable)
D (Diversity)
J (Joining) segments for the β chain.
V and J segments for the α chain.

62
Q

What is the HLA region?

A

The most polymorphic part of the human genome, constantly evolving.

63
Q

What do HLA molecules do?

A

Present small fragments of proteins (epitope peptides) to T-cells.

64
Q

Where does most HLA variation occur?

A

In the peptide-binding groove.

65
Q

What is the role of T-cells in recognising foreign peptides?

A

T-cells trained in the thymus recognise foreign peptides (from tumours or infections) and trigger a response to destroy the “foreign” cell.

66
Q

What is the structure of HLA class I molecules?

A
  • Encode alpha polypeptide chains with 5 domains (3 extracellular, 1 transmembrane, 1 cytoplasmic tail).
  • Alpha 1 and 2 form the peptide-binding groove.
67
Q

What is the structure of HLA class II molecules?

A

Encode both alpha and beta chains with 4 domains each.

The outermost two domains form the peptide-binding groove.

68
Q

What is the function of MHC I molecules?

A

They capture peptides from endogenous antigens (inside the cytosol) and present them to CD8+ T cells.

69
Q

What are examples of endogenous antigens?

A

Antigens from viruses, intracellular bacteria, and protozoa.

70
Q

What recognises peptide-MHC I complexes?

A

CD8+ T cells.

71
Q

What happens when CD8+ T cells are activated?

A

They become cytotoxic T cells, which kill infected cells.

72
Q

What two signals are required to activate naïve T cells in secondary lymphoid tissues?

A
  1. TCR recognition of peptide-MHC complex.
  2. Interactions between costimulatory molecules on T cells and activated/mature dendritic cells (DCs) sensing “danger.”
73
Q

What do MHC II molecules capture?

A

Peptides from exogenous antigens in endosomes.

74
Q

What are examples of exogenous antigens?

A

Internalised microbes (e.g., in macrophages or dendritic cells).

75
Q

What recognises peptide-MHC II complexes?

A

CD4+ T cells.

76
Q

What happens when CD4+ T cells are activated?

A

They release cytokines to activate specialised cell types.
They differentiate into a range of T helper subtypes.

77
Q

What is the role of CD4+ T cells?

A

To “help” other immune cells respond effectively to infection by enhancing their function.

78
Q

What is Signal 2 in T-cell activation?

A

Costimulation provided by interactions between CD28 on T cells and CD86/CD80 (B7) on activated dendritic cells (DCs).

79
Q

What happens if Signal 1 is received without Signal 2?

A

The T cell becomes anergic (inactive).

80
Q

What is the role of CD86 and CD80 (B7)?

A

Their expression increases on activated dendritic cells to provide costimulation.

81
Q

What is the role of CD28?

A

CD28 is constitutively expressed on naïve T cells and binds to CD86/CD80 for activation.

82
Q

How does co-stimulation differ for CD4+ and CD8+ T cells?

A

CD4+ T cells: CD86/CD80-CD28 interaction is sufficient for activation.
CD8+ T cells: Additional costimulatory interactions are generally required.

83
Q

What cells activate cytotoxic T cells (CD8+)?

A

Antigen-Presenting Cells (APCs) activate cytotoxic T cells.

84
Q

What is the primary function of cytotoxic T cells?

A

To kill pathogen-infected or tumour cells by forming pores in their membranes.

85
Q

What happens to activated T cells?

A

They clonally expand and acquire effector functions.

86
Q

What can drive effector T cell responses at infection sites?

A

‘Signal 1’ alone can drive responses at peripheral sites of infection.

87
Q

What are the consequences of defective cytotoxic T cell responses?

A

Increased viral infections and progression of cancer.

88
Q

How do cytotoxic T cells kill infected or cancerous cells?

A

By releasing perforin, which creates holes in the target cell’s membrane, leading to cell lysis.

89
Q

How do target cells evade cytotoxic T cells?

A

By engaging inhibitory receptors on the cytotoxic lymphocyte.

90
Q

What is the primary role of Th (CD4+) cells?

A

They assist B cells in producing antibodies, activate macrophages, and recruit other immune cells.

91
Q

How do Th cells differentiate into subsets?

A

Cytokines activate transcription factors, leading to differentiation into Th1, Th2, Th17, or Tfh subsets.

92
Q

What do Th1 cells target?

A

Intracellular pathogens and activate macrophages.

93
Q

What do Th2 cells target?

A

Extracellular parasites and promote antibody production by B cells.

94
Q

What do Th17 cells target?

A

Extracellular bacteria and fungi, and they activate neutrophils.

95
Q

What is the role of Tfh cells?

A

They support long-term humoral immunity.

96
Q

What happens when Th cell responses are defective?

A

Defective responses can lead to opportunistic infections or autoimmune diseases.

97
Q

What is the role of IFN-γ and CD40 ligand in Th1 cells?

A

They activate macrophages to destroy engulfed bacteria.

98
Q

What do Fas ligand or TNF-β do?

A

They kill chronically infected cells, allowing bacteria to be destroyed by fresh macrophages.

99
Q

What is the role of IL-2 in Th1 cells?

A

It induces T-cell proliferation, increasing the number of effector cells.

100
Q

How do IL-3 and GM-CSF help Th1 cells?

A

They induce macrophage differentiation in the bone marrow.

101
Q

What do TNF-α and TNF-β do?

A

They activate the endothelium to enhance macrophage binding and exit from blood vessels at infection sites.

102
Q

What is the function of MCP-1?

A

It causes macrophages to accumulate at the site of infection via chemotaxis.

103
Q

What do dendritic cells (DCs) produce during Th1 and Th17 cell priming?

A

T cell-polarising cytokines in response to microbial stimuli.

104
Q

Do DCs produce the Th2-promoting cytokine IL-4?

A

No, DCs are not commonly thought to produce IL-4; basophils may play this role.

105
Q

How do Th2 cells respond to signals?

A

They respond to innate signals from stromal cells or intermediary innate cells combined with antigen presentation.

106
Q

What cells are involved in initiating the Th2 immune response?

A

Group 2 innate lymphoid cells (ILC2s) and dendritic cells (DCs) at epithelial barriers.

107
Q

What do ILC2s and DCs produce during a Th2 response?

A

Type 2 cytokines (IL-4, IL-5, IL-9, IL-13).

108
Q

What are the effects of type 2 cytokines in Th2 responses?

A

Stimulate B cells to produce IgE
Increase eosinophilia
Promote mastocytosis
Induce mucus secretion by goblet cells
Polarise M2 macrophages.

109
Q

What does IL-13 do in the Th2 response?

A

Promotes DC migration to lymph nodes and aids further Th2 activation.

110
Q

Which cells assist Th2 activation by providing IL-4?

A

Haematopoietic cells, such as basophils.

111
Q

What transcription factors are involved in Th2 cell activation?

A

IRF4 (interferon regulatory factor 4) and KLF4 (Krüppel-like factor 4).

112
Q

From what do Th17 cells differentiate?

A

Naïve T cells (Th0) under specific cytokine environments.

113
Q

How does the microenvironment influence Th17 cell plasticity?

A

Th17 cells can convert to other subsets (e.g., Th1, Treg, TR1) depending on cytokine signals like IL-12, IL-4, TGF-β, and IL-10.

114
Q

What role do Th17 cells play in steady-state conditions?

A

They produce IL-17 and maintain immunity against bacterial and fungal infections.

115
Q

How do Th17 cells contribute to autoimmunity?

A

Th17 cells can gain pathogenic functions by converting to Th1-like cells, driving diseases like arthritis, multiple sclerosis, and colitis.

116
Q

What cytokines drive Th17 to Treg conversion?

A

TGF-β and IL-10 promote the immunosuppressive functions of Tregs.

117
Q

What infections are Th17 cells most associated with?

A

Bacterial and helminth infections, mediated by IL-17 and IL-22.

118
Q

What happens when Th17 cells convert to Th2-like cells?

A

This conversion is linked to asthma and involves cytokines like IL-4 and IL-5.

119
Q

What do BCRs/antibodies and TCRs recognise in adaptive immunity?

A

They recognise small parts of antigens called “epitopes.”

120
Q

Why are initial (primary) immune responses slower?

A

Small clones of antigen-specific lymphocytes need to expand to a critical mass.

Specific effector functions need to be induced.

121
Q

Why are secondary and tertiary immune responses faster?

A

Memory B and T cells are already generated.
Larger antigen-specific clones enable rapid reactivation.

122
Q

What is immune tolerance?

A

A state where the immune system does not respond to antigens that could normally trigger an adaptive immune response.

123
Q

To what can tolerance be directed?

A

Self (to avoid attacking the body).
The fetus during pregnancy.
Pathogens (chronic infections) or cancer.

124
Q

What happens if tolerance is not established?

A

Autoimmune diseases can develop, such as rheumatoid arthritis or autoimmune thyroid disease.

125
Q

How is self-tolerance maintained?

A

It is established centrally and maintained peripherally.

126
Q

Where does central tolerance occur, and what happens there?

A

Central tolerance occurs in the thymus for T cells and bone marrow for B cells, where cells reacting strongly to self-antigens are deleted (apoptosis) or develop into regulatory T cells (Tregs).

127
Q

What is the role of peripheral tolerance?

A

It occurs in lymph nodes and other peripheral tissues, where autoreactive cells escaping central tolerance are suppressed or deleted by mechanisms such as anergy, apoptosis, or suppression by Tregs.

128
Q

What is clonal deletion in central tolerance?

A

It is the process where self-reactive lymphocytes undergo apoptosis to prevent autoimmune reactions.

129
Q

How does receptor editing contribute to central tolerance in B cells?

A

B cells can change their antigen receptor to one that does not recognise self-antigens.

130
Q

What is the function of regulatory T cells (Tregs)?

A

Tregs suppress self-reactive cells and maintain immune tolerance in peripheral tissues.

131
Q

What percentage of CD4 T cells do Treg cells comprise?

A

5–7%.

132
Q

Where do Treg cells develop?

A

In the thymus as “natural” Treg (tTreg) cells.
In the periphery as “adaptive” Treg (pTreg) cells.

133
Q

What do tTreg cells primarily recognise?

A

Self-antigens.

134
Q

What do pTreg cells recognise, and why is it important?

A

Non-self antigens, including from commensal bacteria, to maintain mucosal tolerance.

135
Q

How do effector T cells (CD4+ and CD8+) get activated?

A

By recognising specific antigens presented by antigen-presenting cells (APCs) via MHC molecules.

136
Q

What is the role of CD8+ effector T cells (CTLs)?

A

They kill target cells using perforins and granzymes in an antigen-specific and contact-dependent manner.

137
Q

How do Treg cells function after activation?

A

They suppress effector T cells through mechanisms like:

IL-2 consumption
IL-10 and TGF-β secretion
Inhibitory receptor signalling
Metabolic control (e.g., adenosine, IDO).

138
Q

What is “bystander suppression” by Treg cells?

A

Treg cells suppress neighbouring effector T cells, regardless of their antigen specificity.

139
Q

What is “infectious tolerance” in Treg cells?

A

Treg cells spread their suppressive function to other cells nearby, maintaining immune tolerance.