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RC: Specialties Woo Hoo > Acute Care > Flashcards

Acute Care Flashcards

1
Q

Best way to assess ventilation in an intubated pt:

  • chest motion + capnography + SaO2
  • chest motion + aus + SaO2
  • chest motion + aus + capo
  • aus + capnography + SaO2
  • aus + venous gas + capnograph
A

Chest motion (symmetric or not)
+ Auscultation
+ Capnography (exhaled CO2 within tubing near ETT measure CO elimination via capnograph)

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2
Q

Initial vent settings for child:

A
  • FiO2 100% or less for sat
  • RR 20 (20-30 infant and 12-20 for child)
  • PIP 20
  • PEEP 5

Plan: ABG in 10-15 minute and adjust accordingly

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3
Q

What is the ETT tube size formula?

A

Uncured ETT (mm)
= Age (years)/4
+ 4

i.e. 2 year old
= 2/4 = 0.5 + 4= 4.5

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4
Q

When should a child be intubated:

A
  • A: can’t maintain patent airway or protect against aspiration
  • B: can’t maintain adequate oxygenation
  • B: can’t control blood CO2
  • C/D: need sedation or paralysis for procedure
  • Expecting deterioration that would lead to one of situation above.
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5
Q

What is an absolute contraindication for intubation

A

Complete airway obstruction

= Do ER cricothyroidotomy instead

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6
Q

Pyloric stenosis. Severe metabolic alkalosis. Give:

  • HCL
  • (lg) amt of IV Cl-
  • KCL Bolus
  • OR immediately
A

Large amt of chloride IV

Pyloric Stenosis: thickening of muscle from 2 wk-2 mon.

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7
Q

List 3 RF for pyloric stenosis

A
  • 1st born male
  • bottle feeding
  • erythro or azithro given in < 2 wk old
  • (+) FHX
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8
Q

What is icteropyloric syndrome?

A

Pyloric stenosis
+ Hyperbilirubin

Resolve w/ Sx

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9
Q

When do you provide IVF for pre-Sx Fluids?

A
  • Infants dehydrated so IV fluid within 8h of last feed

- Teen= NPO overnight

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10
Q

What is the ED treatment for severe malnutrition who is in shock?

A

SHOCK
= lethargic, unconscious & cold hands
+ slow CRT or weak fast pulse

= ABC
= O2
= **D10 5cc/kg IV bolus
= **15cc/kg over 1 hr (0.45NS + D5W)
= monitor HR or RR

If not improvement assume septic shock

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11
Q

Do you give IVF to pt with severe malnutrition w/ severe dehydration but NO SHOCK? Why or why not?

A

NO

Refeeding Syn RISK

If Hgb <40 + resp distress= lasix + blood
Ensure BG > 3
Ensure T > 35 (Ax)

Slow feed 100 kca/kg/day goal
Goal: 0.5-1 pound/wk till ~90% avg BW for sex, ht, age

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12
Q

What is refeeding syndrome?

A

Acute tachy HR + HF w/ neuro symp

assoc with acute decline in serum phosphate + Mg.

  • excess carb= insulin spike= hypo K, hypo-Phos, hypo-Mag

Hallmark = severe low phosphate during 1st week of refeeding

Serum phosphate < 0.5= wk, rhabdo, neutrophil dysfunction, cardioresp failure, arrhythmia, sz, LOC

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13
Q

When do you expect refeeding syndrome?

A

Wt fall 80% below expected wt for height.

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14
Q

List indications for hospitalization of anorexia nervosa.

A

Psych
> SI intent + plan
> poor family + pt motivation to recover

Physical
<80% of healthy BW
> Temp 36 or less
> HR < 50
> cardiac rhythm disturbances
> BP < 80/50 
> postural low BP with > 10 mmHg drop or > 25 HR increase
Lab
> low K
> low phos
> low BG
> dehydrated
> hepatic, cardiac, renal compromise

Other
> require supervision after meals and using restroom
> failed day tx

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15
Q

How do you define severe wasting and/or b/l edema

A

Severe acute malnutrition
= severe wasting +/- b/l edema on feet
- Wasting= wt for length or ht < 3rd SD

  • Marasmus= severe wasting
  • Kwashiorkor= edema (protein loss)
  • Maramic-Kwashiorkor= severe wasting + edema
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16
Q

Most damaging component on air transport for closed head injury

A

LOW BP

  • brain ischemia occur as cerebral perfusion pressure fall
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17
Q

Which of following LEAST associated with increased ICP?

  • meningitis
  • encephalitis
  • TCA overdose
  • intracranial bleed
  • tumour
A

TCA overdose

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18
Q

10% pneumo about to be air transported. Best treatment?

  • chest tube
  • needle in 2nd intercostal space midclavicular line
  • leave pneumo
  • only tube if tension
A

Chest tube

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19
Q

Defined HTN emergency. List two meds that can lower BP acutely. List one AE of each (not including low BP).

A

= Severe HTN with life threatening symptom or end organ injury

  • less vision
  • papilledema
  • encephalopathy (h/a, sz, LOC)
  • HF
  • renal f’n deteriorate

Goal: reduce BP 10% in 1st hr and 15% in next 3-12h

IV meds:
- labetolol = low HR, bronchospasm

  • nicardipine= sustained tachy HR, CP, flushing
  • Na nitroprusside
    = severe low BP, dizzy, hypo-thyroid, muscle twitch, cyanide poisoning
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20
Q

What are the 3 components of brain death?

A

“ABC”

  • Apnea
  • Brainstem reflex Absent
  • Cause known and Irreversible

+ 2 exams show same finding between observation period (24h BB and 12h everyone else)

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21
Q

List some reversible causes of coma that must be R/O before brain death?

A

Coma: unresponsive to noxious stimuli

Aetiologies:

  • **toxins
  • **metabolic dx
  • **hypothermia
  • hypoxia
  • hypotension/ shock
  • **low BG, Na
  • non convulsive sz
  • hypothyroid
  • hypocortisol
  • **liver failure
  • **renal failure
  • **sepsis
  • **meningitis
  • encephalitis
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22
Q

What are the brainstem reflexes in brain death?

A

EXTRA INFO

  • Pupillary light
  • Corneal reflex
  • Doll’s eye
  • Oculovestibular reflex (irrigate TM and look for eye mvmt)
  • Gag or cough reflex
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23
Q

What is apnea test?

A

Normal ABC, No apnea drugs.

  • FiO2 100%
  • Adjust vent to get CO2 of 40
  • get base line gas
  • Repeat blood gas every 5-10 min.

Until pCO2 > 60 or > 20 above baseline.

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24
Q

T or F: ancillary studies (EEG, radio nucleotide cerebral blood flow) required for brain death dx?

A

False.

UNLESS:

  • Cspine injury (b/c can’t do doll’s eye)
  • Sedation med
  • Too unstable for apnea test.

Benefit: shorten observation time
Con: must wait 24h to repeat test if shows activity

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25
Q

What is criteria for neurologic determination of death?

  • absent hyperthermia
  • apnea despite hypercapnia
  • spinal reflexes absent
  • characteristic EEG
A

Apnea despite hypercapnea

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26
Q

List 4 medical reason why brain dead pt may not be organ donor:

A

Infection

  • *- active CMV
  • *- active Hep B
  • *- active Hep C
  • *- viral encephalitis
  • active West Nile virus
  • active disseminated TB
  • severe untreated sepsis
  • AIDS

Malignancy
**- active extra cranial malignancy

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27
Q

determination of death using neurological criteria is also known as

A

Brain death

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28
Q

T or F: spinal reflexes may occur in brain death

A

True.

i.e. subtle semi-rhythmic mvmt of facial nerve, finger flexor or tonic neck reflexes etc.

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29
Q

Boy struck by lightning. Most likely consequence:

  • liver failure
  • renal failure
  • cardiovascular collapse
A

Cardiovascular collapse

R/O delayed cerebral edema, intracranial bleed, sz, systole, trauma from thrown body

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30
Q

What is the classic pattern of burn that suggest lightning?

A

Tree like or feathering

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31
Q

Describe cardiac arrest pathway.

A

Cardiac Arrest:
> CPR + give O2 and attach monitors

> Rhythm shockable
- VF or pulses VT
SHOCK 2J/kg

> CPR x 2 min + IV access
SHOCK 4J/kg

> CPR
EPI- 0.1mL/kg of 1:10K Repeat q3-5 min. (or ETT 1 in 1K)

> CPR
Check rhythm + pulse q 2 minutes
Shock

> Amoidarone or Lidocaine

NOTE: if not shockable then CPR + Epi.

NOTE: treat reversible causes

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32
Q

Describe appropriate CPR:

A
  • Push hard >1/3 of AP diameter chest
  • Push fast (min. 100 /min)
  • Allow chest recoil
  • Minimize interruption in compression
  • Rotate compressors every 2 minutes
  • No leaning (stool if need to)
  • Avoid excessive ventilation
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33
Q

What are reversible causes in cardiac arrest to R/O?

A

5 H + 5 T’s

> Hypovolemia
> Hypoxia
> Hydrogen (Acidosis)
> Hypoglycemia
> Hypo/hyperkalemia
> Hypothermia
> Tension pneumo
> Tamponade, cardiac
> Toxin
> Thrombosis, pul
> Thrombosis, Coronary
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34
Q

Child with pulseless wide-complex tachy. Got defibrillated x 1. Getting CPR. IV in. What to do next?

  • shock 2 J/kg
  • shock 4J/kg
  • epi 1: 10 K 0.1cc/kg
  • lidocaine
A

Epi 1:10K 0.1cc/kg

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35
Q

What is pulseless electrical activity?

A

Normal appearing cardiac monitor and non responsive + no pulses.

  • Give EPI
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36
Q

What med do you give for asystole?

A

Epinephrine

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37
Q

What med do you give for bradycardia arrest?

A

Epinephrine

OR atropine if increased vagal tone or primary AV block

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38
Q

What med do you give for SVT?

A

Adenosine
0.1 mg/kg (max 6mg)
2nd dose= 0.2 mg/kg

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39
Q

What med do you give for V tach w/ pulse? Without a pulse?

A

w/ Pulse: Amiodarone, Lidocaine
*if no hemodynamic instability and regular monomorphic QRS can give adenosine first

w/out Pulse= Defibrillate then Epi > Last choice amiodarone

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40
Q

What med do you give for pulseless electrical activity?

A

Epinephrine

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41
Q

Blood loss after MVA. 15%. VS that most represent pt?

  • HR 120, RR 30, BP 90/60
  • HR 130, RR irregular, BP 100/70
  • HR 220, RR 36, BP 100/70
  • HR thready, RR 36, BP not obtainable
A

15-29%= MILD

  • HR up (120) **>100
  • ** Normal BP
  • U/O low
  • RR normal to mild up (20-30)

If RR > 30= 30-40% blood loss.

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42
Q

Best early sign of shock:

  • high HR
  • low BP
  • low Temp
A

Tachycardia

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43
Q

List 5 signs of shock:

A 
Low mentation
high HR
low BP
CRT restricted or flush
Low U/O
peripheral and core temp difference
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44
Q

Sick in ICU w/ strep pneumoniae sepsis. Hypotension. HR 220. Low LOC. This is:

  • uncompensated hypovolemic shock
  • compensated cariogenic shock
  • uncompensated distributed shock
  • uncompensated obstructive shock
A

Uncompensated

+

Sepsis = distributive shock.

Example:

  • hypovolemic= hemorrhage, dehydration
  • cardiogenic= cardiomyopathy, metabolic dx, duchenne
  • distributive= anaphylaxis, sepsis, neurogenic
  • obstructive= tension pneumo, PE, tamponade
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45
Q

Newborn. Resp distress. RR 80. HR high. CRT poor. BP poor. hyper inflated chest with little undraping. No sounds on left. Turning cyanotic. Likely dx? Test? Tx?

A

Tension pneumo.

Transillumination

Tx: needle decompression

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46
Q

Describe your steps for needle decompression.

A 
Butterfly needle (23 gauge if > 32 wk)
\+ 3 way stop cock and syringe

Insert into 2nd ICS mid-clavicular (above 3rd rib)

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47
Q

List 2 dx criteria for ARDS

A

“One Bilateral Failure”

within 1 wk of insult

+ b/l opacities not fully explained

+ resp failure (not explained by HF or fluid)

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48
Q

List two life threatening ppt for anterior mediastinal mass.

A
  • Airway compromise -> lose airway, resp failure
  • Cardiac tamponade -> cause obstructive stroke
  • Vascular obstruction (SVC syndrome) -> cause obstructive shock
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49
Q

List status asthmatics meds in order of progression.

A
  • Oxygen
  • Beta agonist (Ventolin)
  • Ipratropium (Atrovent)
  • Systemic steroids (Pred, Prednisolone, Methylpred)
  • **IV salbutamol
  • ** IV magnesium sulfate
  • ** IV theophylline
  • ** Ketamine
  • ** +/- Epinephrine (if anaphylaxis)
  • ** Heliox
  • ** Non invasive resp support
  • AVOID intubate
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50
Q

Fever, WOB. White out on 1 lung CXR. Next step:

  • decubitus XR
  • Chest US
  • consult Sx
  • Bronch
A

Chest US

DDX: pleural effusion, empyema, hemothorax, complete lung collapse, CAP, mass

US to see drainage + Sx consult

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51
Q

Teen with tension pneumo. Where do you put the needle?

A

Needle over 3rd rib in 2nd ICS in midclavicular line.

23 gauge BB
20 gauge teen

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52
Q

Name four signs of tension pneumo:

A

**resp distress
**trach deviation toward contralateral side
hyper resonance on affected side
hyper expansion of affected side
**low breath sides on affected side
**pulsus paradoxus

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53
Q

What is purpose of the flutter valve in chest tubes?

A

One way valve within tube that allow air/fluid to exit but prfevent air or fluid from entering.

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54
Q

Post-Sx. Sudden CP, cough, O2 drop. 3 Likely causes of sudden dx. 3 investigation to confirm.

A
  • Pulmonary venous thromboembolism
  • Pulmonary fat embolism
  • Pneumothorax
3 tests:
- D dimer
- Spiral CT with contrast
- CXR 
or U/S with doppler (DVT)
or ECG
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55
Q

Seizing child. Failed IV. HR 180 for 3 y.o. RR 60. BP stable. Next?

  • intubate
  • intranasal midaz
  • IV valproic
  • IV phenytoin
A

Intranasal Midaz

Other CPS option:

  • ativan buccal/ PR
  • midaz buccal/ IM/ intranasal
  • diazepam PR
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56
Q

What are second line status epilepticus meds:

A

No IV:
- fosphenytoin IM

IV:
- fosphenytoin IV in D5W or NS over 5-10 min.

5 minute later= Still seizing: use phenobarb

10 min later= Still seizing= midaz infusion

Still persist= Thiopental

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57
Q

Define GCS:

A

Four Eyes

  • 4= spontaneous
  • 3= speech
  • 2= pain
  • 1= no response

Jackson Five

  • 5= oriented
  • 4= confused
  • 3= inappropriate words
  • 2= incomprehensible
  • 1= no response

V6 (Motor Strength)

  • 6= obey
  • 5= move to local pain
  • 4= flex to withdraw from pain
  • 3= abN flexion
  • 2= abN extension
  • 1= no response
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58
Q

Child w/ flexion to pain, incomprehensible moan. Eyes don’t open. GCS?

A

GCS= 7

4 eyes= get 1
Jackson 5= get 2
V6 Motor= 4

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59
Q

Severe h/a and progressive LOC. GCS 6. ABC stable. Tumour on CT. which is LEAST imp in management

  • control fever
  • analgesia, sedation
  • hyperventilation
  • hyperosmolar fluid
A

Hyperventilation

B/C= ONLY if brain herniation (irregular resp, HTN, brady HR, blown pupil, decerebrate or decorticate posturing)

AVOID otherwise.

Neuro PALS Tx:

  • maintain BP
  • maintain BG
  • control temp
  • tx ICP
  • tx sz
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60
Q

T or F: posterior rib fractures are specific to abuse.

A

True

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61
Q

Dog bite on hand. Both child + dog vac UTD. Full ROM with mild edema. Tx?

  • irrigate w/ antibx sol’n
  • irrigate w/ saline
  • irrigate w/ saline + cover topical Abx
  • irrigate w/ saline + Tx with clavulin prophylaxis
  • swab for Cx and tx IV clinda
A

Irrigate w/ Saline

+ Prophylactic Clav

** DO NOT irrigate puncture wound

** NO swab for fresh wound unless look infected

XR if penetrating injury

If MCP joint, cranial bite or extensive wound then OR debridement.

Assess tetanus immunization, risk of rabies from animal, risk of Hep B from human bite.

F/U in 48 hr

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62
Q

Tooth knocked out in play. Two things in tx?

A
  • *- find tooth = rinse
      • insert into socket or cold cow’s milk solution
      • go directly to dentist
  • R/O other head/facial trauma
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63
Q

Nail puncture through sole of shoe + foot. Organism?

A

Pseudomonas (aeruginosa)

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64
Q

T or F: low risk of HIV infection in daycare bite.

A

True

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65
Q

Blunt abdo trauma. List one reason to go to OR for laparotomy:

A

** free intraperitoneal air

  • peritonitis
  • evidence of ruptured diaphragm, GI tract etc.
  • *- blunt trauma w/ hypotension suspected to be intraperitoneal
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66
Q

What are most common abdominal trauma seen in ED?

A

Spleen
Liver

Retroperitoneal spared (kidney, pancreas etc.)

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67
Q

Left shoulder pain. Where is the abdo trauma?

A

Spleen

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68
Q

Lap belt mark. What type of abdo trauma/ injury?

A

Bowel or mesenteric injury.

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69
Q

T or F: Most kid with stable splenic, hepatic, renal injury from blunt trauma go to OR.

A

False.

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70
Q

T or F: in GU trauma bladder should ALWAYS be cath.

A

False.

Usually but DON’T if blood dropping from urethral meatus as indication for potential injury.

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71
Q

Blunt abdo trauma. Gross hematuria. (+) Peritoneal Lavage. Next?

  • CT
  • XR
  • AUS
  • Transfuse blood
  • Foley
A

Most correct: Abdo CT

pRBC depend on ABC

NO foley if bleeding from urethral meatus.

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72
Q

What is the most likely long-term sequelae from severe head injury: Sz or LD?

A

Specific LD.

Severe head trauma if GCS < 9.

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73
Q

Head injury after MVA. No CT or neuro Sx. Intubated w/ IV. 3 Tx?

A
  • continuous monitor VS (esp EtCO2)
  • ventilate to maintain normal O2 and Co2
  • normal T
  • sedation, analgesia
  • fluid to maintain normal BP and avoid low BP
  • refer
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74
Q

List 4 factors that can cause secondary brain injury after initial traumatic brain injury.

A
  • *1. Hypotension
      1. Hypoxia
      1. Hypo /hypercarbia
      1. Hyperthermia
      1. Hypo glycaemia
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75
Q

Which palsy do you see with ICP?

A

6th nerve= can’t move lateral

3rd nerve= dilated pupil, ptosis, down and out protruding eye

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76
Q

What are signs of impending brain herniation

A

Cushing Triad

  • HTN
  • brady HR
  • irregular resp

Dilated pupil
Extensor posturing

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77
Q

List three steps to manage Raised ICP:

A 
HOB 30 degree
midline posturing
3% NS
Mannitol
Maintain normal BP, BG, T, O2, Co2
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78
Q

What do you do if the brain is herniating?

A

Hyperventilate until pupil not blown.

100% FiO2

Mannitol or Hypertonic NS

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79
Q

Infant with skull # and suspected abuse. Likely what type of intracranial bleed?

A

Subdural

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80
Q

Why should ketamine NOT be used in head injury?

  • sympathomimetic
  • (-) isotropy
  • resp suppression
A

low dose ketamine= catecholamine (sympathomimetic)

= can increase ICP

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81
Q

What do you tell kids about sports after they had acute concussion:

A

Return to Play

  • start at no activity and work way up ladder with 24hr duration
  • Progress only if symptom free and if symptom recur then try last step when asymptomatic
  • once no symptom x 7-10d then can return to play
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82
Q

Sports game with concussion. How long will he sit out minimum?

A

1 week

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83
Q

3 step in management epidural hematoma w/ posturing and biown pupil.

A

HOB 30 degree
hyperventilation with FiO2 100%
Hypertonic saline or mannitol.
Call Neuro Sx

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84
Q

What is the leading cause of death in children?

A

Injuries

** Specifically leading cause of death from unintentional injury in < 4 y.o. (drowning, suffocation, MVA)

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85
Q

MVA day before. Now orange urine and Cr tripled. Likely dx?

A

Rhabdomyolysis

  • Muscle Pain
  • Weakness
  • Hematuria
  • CK ++
  • Myoglobinuria
  • Risk:
    Lytes imbalance + acute kidney injury
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86
Q

How do you manage nose bleed?

A
  • compress with child upright and titled fwd

Still bleeding= ozymetazoline topical vasoconstriction

Still bleeding
= anterior nasal pack

Once controlled= obliteration via cautery

87
Q

When do you call ENT for nosebleed?

A

B/L bleeding or hemorrhage that is NOT from Kiesselbach Plexus.

e.g. tumour, polyp, telangiectasia

88
Q

Teen sexual assault that night. In ED. 5 things on management:

A 
Hx
P/E
R/O physical injury
Consider forensic evaluation
Psych support
Preg emergency contraception
Serum HIV, Hep B, syphilis and repeat
Empiric tx STI (Ceftiraxone, Azithro)
\+/- Hep B vac if not previous vaccine
\+/- discuss HIV ART although low risk
89
Q

What are two findings on XR compatible with retropharyngeal abscess?

A

Increased retropharyngeal space

Air fluid level in retropharyngeal space

90
Q

What makes a good XR for looking for retropharyngeal abscess?

A

** Neck extended
**Inspiration film
Good penetration
No rotation

91
Q

Bat in room with 2 y.o. screaming. No marks. P/E normal. Any tx?

A

No prophylaxis UNLESS direct contact known or evidence of contact.

If prophylaxis: Rabies

92
Q

Central sleep apnea:

  • MRI
  • ENT
  • CPAP overnight
A

MRI

93
Q

List acute bacterial sinusitis clinical dx?

A

nasal dx or daytime cough with no change x 10d min.

OR
fever and nasal d/c and facial pain x 3d

OR worsening cough, d/c, cough or fever after initial improvement

Tx: amox, keflex

94
Q

2 y.o. Bright red blood. Mixed withs tool. Pale. Hob 94. Likely Dx?

A

Meckel’s diverticulum

95
Q

Day 10 of Abx for URTI. Rash, joint pain, anemia, hematuria. Likely dx? Tx?

A

Serum Sickness

Tx if severe= steroids
Supportive otherwise

96
Q

Child brought in without pulse. Ratio of compression to breath via provider?

A

15:2

97
Q

10kg Child. Rhythm but no pulse. Med to give:

  • Atropine 1mg
  • Atropine 0.1mg
  • Epi 1/1000 1mL
  • Epi 1/10 K 1mL
A

Epi 1 in 10K

1ML

98
Q

Known peanut allergy. Hives all over body. Which is correct:

  • Give IV epi
  • Benadryl PO, IM, IV
  • Hydrocort does not prevent late effect
  • desensitization undertaken
A

Hydrocortisone does not prevent late onset effects.

  • IM epi
  • Benadryl can be all three but in anaphylaxis give IM or IV
  • Ventolin only if wheezing
  • immunotherapy only good for seasonal or insect
99
Q

Severe abdo pain + bilious vomiting. Previous 3 episodes. Like most likely dx and test when feeling well?

A

Malrotation w/ intermittent volvulus

Test: Upper GI Series

100
Q

What is serum sickness and serum sickness-like dx etiology? Other differences?

A

Serum sickness
> type 3 hypersensitivity rxn w/ immune complex
> infliximab (and other monoclonal and chimeric antibody)
> snake bite venom
> classic + rare complication of carditis, renal, neuro (GBS)
> low complement, U/A (+) blood

SS-like
> cofaclor, beta lactam abx, antisz
> direct toxic effect of drug
> classic only (fever, rash, joints)
> no immune complex, low complement, vessel or renal dx
101
Q

List three things in teen boy with intermittent testicular pain?

A 
Testicular Torsion
Torsion of appendix Testis
Epididymitis
Trauma (hematocele)
Incarcerated inguinal hernia
102
Q

Most common cause of perineal warts in kids < 2 y.o.?

A

Vertical

perinatal acquisition even if mother without lesions

103
Q

List signs of gravol (Dimenhydrinate) overdose:

A

= Anticholinergic

Red… flushed dry skin
Hot… hyper-temp, Tachy

Can’t see= mydriasis
Can’t pee= urine retained
Can’t spit= dry mouth, MM, dry skin
Can’t Shit= low BS

104
Q

What is the anticholinergic toxidrome saying?

A 
Red
Hot
Can't see
Can't pee
Can't spit
Can't shit
105
Q

List anticholinergic that you could see in toxidrome questions:

A
  • Atropine, Benzotropine
  • Scopolamine
  • Jimson weed
  • Diphenhydramine
  • Gravol (dimenhydrainate)
  • TCA, clozapine
106
Q

What four signs on P/E if ingested Jimson Weed. Tx?

A

Anticholinergic!

Red (flushed dry)
Hot (high T, HR)
Can't see= dilated pupils
Can't pee= urinary retention
Can't spit= dry MM, dry mouth
Can't shit= low BS

Other: disoriented, delirium, visual hallucination

Tx: supportive (ABC)

  • activated charcoal if intact LOC and airway
  • benzo if sz
  • physostigmine if threat to other or self (only do if CNS= delirium present!)
107
Q

How can you tell the difference between anticholinergic and sympathomimetic (epinephrine, cocaine, amphetamine)

A

Bowel sounds:

  • BS up in Symph.
  • BS down in Anticholinergic.

Skin

  • Sweat in symp
  • dry skin in anticholinergic
108
Q

When do you use physostigmine?

A

Anticholinergic toxicity

And harm to self or others. (need CNS dysfunction)

Ensure no conduction delay on ECG.

109
Q

Describe the opioid versus sympathomimetic toxidrome?

A

Opioid= all down

  • low HR, BP, RR, T
  • dry skin
  • mitosis (small pupil)
  • low BS

Symph= all up

  • HR, BP, RR, Tmp
  • Diaphoresis
  • Pupil big
  • BS up
110
Q

How do you manage C2 poisoning?

A

100% oxygen
at normal atmospheric pressure
via non rebreather face mask

Severe= hyperbaric O2

111
Q

What are the symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

Non specific

  • h/a
  • N/V
  • LOC, syncope
  • Coma, MI, acidosis

P/E: cherry red skin

Sequelae: delayed cognitive + cerebellar effects.

112
Q

T or F: carbon monoxide come from carbon combustion (wood burning stove, heater, car, closed fired).

A

True

113
Q

What does ibuprofen toxicity look like?

A

N/V, abdo pain
GI bleed
Altered LOC/CNS depression

114
Q

List three BW tests and results to order w/ ibuprofen toxicity?

A 
1. venous or arterial gas
= high AG met acid
2. BUN + Cr + Lytes
= renal insuff
3. Acetaminophen level, salicylate level (co-ingestant)
115
Q

Is there a tx for ibuprofen toxicity?

A

Supportive

  • activated charcoal within 1-2h
  • anti-emetic and acid-blockade
116
Q

T or F: There is NO specific antidote for ibuprofen toxicity

A

True

117
Q

Which is treated in methanol overdose?

  • fomepizole
  • physostigmine
  • flumazenil
  • naloxone
  • pralidoxime
A

Fomepiazole= Methanol

Other:
Physostigmine= Anticholinergic
Pralidoxime= cholinergic (specifically orgagnophosph esp insecticide)

Flumazenil= benzo
Naloxone= Opioids
118
Q

What is usually in windshield and washing fluid? What’s the antidote?

A

Methanol

if OD= Fomepizole

119
Q

Toxicity- blurred vision, “feeling like in snowstorm”, optic disc edema. Severe high AG met acidosis. What is this? What is antidote?

A

Methanol

“Feeling of being in snowstorm”

High AG Met acid
High serum Methanol

Antidote: Fomepizole

120
Q

How do you treat methanol and ethylene glycol toxicity?

A
  1. ABC
  2. Fomepizole (inhibit alcohol dehydrogenase to make less formic acid/ toxins)
  3. If N/A or allergy= GIVE ethanol as block metabolism of methanol!
  4. Na bicarb (for AG met acid)
  5. IV folate
  6. Hemodialysis
121
Q

Child ingest paint thinner (hydrocarbon). What to do:

  • gastric lavage
  • activated charcoal
  • observe and tx symptom
  • D/c home
A

Observe and treat symptomatically

122
Q

Paraffin oil ingestion in toddler.

A

Paraffin = hydrocarbon

  • poorly absorbed by GI but often aspirated if vomit
  • Concern: resp distress if aspirate
  • Most= no or minor clinical effect
  • ABC
  • Observe only
  • No W/U
  • AVOID gastric lavage b/c risk pneumonitis
123
Q

T or F: you should gastric lavage a pain thinner or paraffin oil?

A

FALSE

hydrocarbon

Don’t want to risk aspiration; low risk systemic toxicity otherwise.

Just observe.

124
Q

List 3 side effects of SSRI overdose. What is tx?

A
  • sedation
  • tachy HR
  • QT prolongation

Serotonin Syn= HARMED

  • *- Hyperthermia
  • *- Autonomic
  • Rigid + Reflex UP
  • Myoclonus
  • *- Encephalopathy
  • Diaphoresis

Tx:

  • Signs + Symp
  • ECG
  • Supportive Care
  • Benzo if mild symp
125
Q

Overdose imipramine. Low LOC. Next?

  • phenytoin
  • Na bicarb
  • activated charcoal
A

Activated Charcoal

TCA=

  1. charcoal (secure airway first)
  2. serial ECG (wide QRS; high very high can give Na bicarb)
  3. altered LOC

If asymptomatic:
= gastric decontaminate via charcoal
- monitor 6h via serial ECG
- if all normal= home

126
Q

What are the stages of acetaminophen toxicity

A

Stage 1-= 24 up
- N/V, lab normal except tylenol

Stage 2= 24-48h
- RUQ abdo pain, elevated LFT, INR

Stage 3-5d= peak LFT, liver failure, multi-organ failure or death

Stage 4= 4d- 2wk
- resolution

127
Q

How can you tell a coma with PCP instead of opiates:

A
  • no resp depression
    • muscle rigid
      + ++ DTR
  • nystagmus
  • no response to naloxone
128
Q

Teen agitated + aggressive. Brought in unconscious. Rigid and ++ DTR. What is the ingested?

  • cocaine
  • PCP
  • heroine
A

PCP

129
Q

in OD of TCA all possible EXCEPT:

  • high HR
  • urinary retention
  • bowel sound increase
  • mydriasis
  • seizure
A

Increased bowel sounds

TCA= anticholinergic

Red (skin red)
Hot (temp high)
Can't see (mydriasis)
Can't pee (retain pee)
Can't spit (dry MM)
Can't shit (low BS)
130
Q

Name one example of an organophosphate. What is the organophosphate mnemonic?

A

“Smells like garlic”

Insecticide, nerve gas, neostigmine, Alzheimer drug

DUMBBELS

  • diarrhea
  • urination
  • miosis
  • bronchospasm, bronchorrhea
  • bradycardia
  • emesis
  • lacrimation
  • sweat
  • salivation
131
Q

Combative. Irritable. HR up. Flushed. Pupil dilated. How do you manage?

  • supportive
  • naloxone
  • flumazenil
  • atropine
A

Supportive

Sounds AntiCholin.

  • intact charcoal if normal LOC and ABC
  • benzo if agitated
  • consider physostigmine if threat to self or other

Other Answers:
Flumazenil= Benzo
Naloxone= Opioid
Atropine= Organo

132
Q

List 3 serotonin symptom/AE:

A

Common AE:

  • insomnia
  • appetite changes
  • GI symptom
  • h/a, restless
  • sexual dysfunction
Serotonin Syndrome
HARMED
**- Hyperthermia
**- Autonomic
- Reflexes ++ and Rigid
- Myoclonus
**- Encephalopathy
- Diaphoresis
133
Q

Teen HTN, high HR, agitated. Tx:

  • physical restraints
  • activated charcoal
  • chlorpromazine
  • diazepam
A

Amphetamine: everything up including HTN

Supportive +
Tx: diazepam

134
Q

Took pills w/ white powder. Coma with HTN, muscle rigid, myoclonus jerk, nystagmus.

  • Cocaine
  • Psilocybin (shroom)
  • PCP
  • LSD
  • Amphetamine
A

PCP

Fluctuating behav.
Delirium
Muscle rigid. 
Myoclonus.
** nystagmus awake!
135
Q

List three things activated charcoal are ineffective with?

A 
Hydrocarbon
Organophosphate
Electrolytes
Alcohol
Lithium
136
Q

T or F: TCA overdose has increased ICP?

A

False

137
Q

T or F: Reye Syn can have increased ICP

A

True

Mitochondrial hepatopathy in susceptible person interacted of viral infection (esp flu, varicella) AND salicylate use.

138
Q

What is organophosphate treatment?

A

Insecticide
Has cholinergic symptoms.

100% oxygen
early ETT (know will get worse)
Decontaminate clothing + skin

Tx: Atropine until wheezing stops + Pralidoxime

139
Q

List 3 treatments for hyperuricemia?

A
  1. Hydration
  2. Allopurinol
  3. Alkalinize Urine
  4. Rasburicase
140
Q

Initial fluids in DKA?

A

0.9% NaCl

141
Q

Rate of initial fluids for DKA?

A

If hypotensive: Bolus 10cc/kg

Otherwise:
3-9 kg= 6 cc/kg/hr
10-19 kg= 5cc/kg/hour
>20 kg= 4 cc/k/g hour (max 250cc/hour)

  • this is equivalent to maintenance + 10% deficit give over 48h*

Add KCL when void and K < 5.

Add dextrose when BG < 15

Insulin 0.1U/kg/hour 1-2h after fluids start.

142
Q

Unwell child. Na 132 and K 6.2. Likely dx?

A

Adrenal insufficiency

(Or Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia)

Tx: Fluid bolus, Glucose if low, HydrocortisoneIV

Then physiologic hydrocortisone and florin + medic alert braclet

143
Q

Hyperammonia. 3 steps in management:

A

“Hydrate+ Substrate- Med- Dialysis”

  1. Rehydrate
    = stop protein catabolism in tissue
  2. Give Substrate=
    Fluid, Fat, Lytes
    = D10W, NaCL, lipids
    w/ min. amt of essential a.a.
  3. Priming doses then infusion of: “ABP”
    * > Arginine HCL
    * > Na benzoate
    * > Na phenyl acetate
  4. dialysis if tx above fails
144
Q

6 mon. Hx of developmental delay. Need Resus. Next step in dx:

  • Ct scan
  • lactate, carnitine, ammonia
  • serum organic acid
  • urine a.a.
A

Lactate
Carnitine
Ammonia

145
Q

Patient w/ septo optic dysplasia. Low BP. WBC normal. Na 138, K 6.1. After fluid resus:

  • IV hydrocortisone
  • Abx
  • Hyotonic Na
  • Kayexalate
A

IV hydrocortisone

Septo-optic dysplasia= hypo pit and adrenal insuff

146
Q

In pyloric stenosis. Bircarb 34. What solution to rehydrate and why?

A

D5NS + 20 KCL

  • goal to correct fluid base, lytes, alkalosis
  • lots of Cl- help correct alkalosis
  • alkalosis is risk of post-op apnea
147
Q

Ortho Sx. Bedrest x 11 day. Anorexia, polydipsia, polyuria. Glucose normal. BMI 29. What is dx? One test?

A

Immobilization hypercalcemia.

= Excess Ca2+ due to immobilization
= GI= N/V, anorexia, constipation, pancreatitis
= GU= renal concentration altered= polyuria, polydipsia
= Cardiac= low QT, arrhythmia
= CNS= low tone, confused

One test= Ionized Ca

Tx: Hyperhydrate + Lassie (clear renal Ca2+)

148
Q

Describe mild versus moderate versus severe hydration?

A

Mild =<5%
- slight decreased U/O, slightly dry MM, slightly HR high

Moderate= 5-10%
- low U/O
moderate thirst
**- dry MM
**- elevated HR
**- sunken eyes
- less skin turgor
Severe= > 10%
- U/O DOWN
- VERy dry MM
- HR very high
- less skin turgor
lethargic
- cold limbs
149
Q

How do you rehydrate kids with gastro based on mild, mod, severe

A

Severe= IV NS, R/A and ORT when stable

Mild-Mod= ORT
%= 10 = cc/kg over4h
- Mild= 5%= 10= 50 cc/kg over 4 hour
- Mod= 10%= 100 cc/kg over 4 hour

+ replace ongoing losses and then age-appropriate diet after

150
Q

List 6 clinical signs of early hypovolemic shock:

A
  • Tachycardia
  • orthostatic hypotension
  • mild tachypnea
  • absent tears
  • dry MM or depressed fontanel
  • sunken eyes
  • abnormal skin turgor
  • dry axillae
  • cold limbs
  • delayed CRT
  • low U/O
151
Q

What are the most reliable signs of dehydration?

A
  • CRT
  • skin turgor (most severe)
  • absent tears
  • abnormal resp
  • U/O
152
Q

3 clinical signs of ICP in 8 mo. BABY

A
  • low LOC
  • HTN, brady, irregular resp
  • bulging fontanelle
  • irritable
  • 6th nerve palsy (eye look inward)
  • 3rd nerve palsy (eye dilated and down)
153
Q

10 y.o. Febrile. Resp fine. HR 140. BP 60/–. Diffuse red rash that look like impetigo. Given bolus. No change. Next?

  • Bolus - intubate- pen
  • Bouls - inotrope- Clox
  • Bolus- Ceftriax- Intubate
  • Inotrope- Intubate- Clox
  • Intubate-Bolus-Pen
A

Bolus
+ Inotrope
+ Cloxacillin

B/C Toxin Mediated Septic Shock
-> fever, generalized red macular rash, low BP and organ failure
- Fluid ++
- Abx: antistaph + anti-toxin
= Clox + Clinda
154
Q

2 wk sepsis. Low bP. RR 70. 50% Oxygen with sat 95%. Next step:

  • IV Abx
  • Bag Mask
  • Intuabte
A

IV Abx

** ABX key in septic shock

155
Q

Three things to do in refractory hypotensive septic shock (After boluses):

A
  • *1. ongoing boluses 20cc/kg (until perfusion better or rales or hepatomegaly)
  • *2. vasopressor
  • epi if cold hypotensive shock
  • norepi if warm
  • normotensive= dopa
    3. 1st dose ABX if not given
  • *4. Consider steroids if fluid refectory
    5. Correct any low BG, low Ca
    6. Early intubation
    7. ICU consult
156
Q

List 3 symptoms of high Na

A

Dehydration or polyuria
Irritable
Cognitive dysfunction
Sz, Coma

157
Q

Kid V/D. Glucose water only fed. Na 108. Not sz. Tx?

  • correct ovr 4-6 hr via 3% NS
  • correct to 135-140 in 24 hr
  • correct to 118-120 in 24 hour
A

Correct to 118-120 in 24 h

No faster than 0.5 meq/hour (or max 10 per day)

158
Q

Why do you remove esophageal foreign bodies that are sitting for > 24 hour?

  • esophagitis
  • aspiration
  • risk of esophageal perf
A

Risk of esophageal perforation

159
Q

4 clinical signs suggestive of inhalation injury in acute burn?

A
  1. Facial burns
  2. Soot in mouth, nares
  3. Singed Facial Hair
  4. Edema or blister of oropharynx
  5. Stridor or WOB, Drooling, Crackle, Wheeze
  6. Carbonaceous sputum
160
Q

What are complication of inhalation injury in burn?

A

Early: CO poisoning, airway obstruction, pulmonary edema

Acute: ARDS

Late: pneumonia or PE

161
Q

Child in house fire. Soot by nostrils. Stridor. Tx?

  • observe as will likely improve
  • arrange urgent intubation
  • racemic epi
  • IV steroids
  • IV Abx
A

Arrange urgent intubation

162
Q

Describe what these burns look like:

  • superficial (1st)
  • partial thick (2nd)
  • deep partial thick (3rd)
  • full thickness (4th degree)
A

1st degree= Superficial: red sunburn; peel and heal w/in 4-5d; doesn’t count in BSA %

2nd degree=
>Partial Thickness: red, wear, BLISTER, MOIST underneath, heal 1-2d of wound care

3rd degree=
> Deep Partial Thickness= white, WAXY, SPECKLED, wks to heal, may need skin graft

4th degree= extend to muscle + bone
Full Thickness: Leathery, dry, no pain, Need Sx (excision + graft)

163
Q

How do you estimate BSA in burns?

A

Rule of 9 until < 9.
Rule of 9 (each arm, head= 9%, torso each side or each leg= 18%)

< 8= Cild’s Palm= 1% BSA

164
Q

T or F: you should give prophylactic Abx for kids with mod-severe burn.

A

False.

Breed resistance

165
Q

When do you refer to a burn centre?

A
  • *- Burn > 10% TBSA
  • *- 3rd degree burn (deep partial)
  • *- inhalation injury
  • *- burn to face, hands, feet, perineum, genital, major joints
  • high electrical voltage burn or lighting (risk rhabdo)
  • chemical burn
  • major trauma associated
  • ** child abuse or neglect suspected
  • pregnancy
  • inadequate home or social environment
166
Q

What type of burn injury should you suspect if pt burnt in closed space?

A

Inhalation injury

167
Q

What is the most important management in inhalational burns?

A

Intubate early

+/- beta agonist for wheeze
+/- chest PT if prolonged intubation

168
Q

BB. Burn on both hands + scald on chest. Told pulled coffee pot on self. What do you do? List three reasons to admit.

A
  1. Call child protective services.

3 reasons to admit:

  • Suspected abuse or neglect
  • Burn to face, hands, perineum, genital, or major joints.
  • Burns affecting > 10% TBSA
169
Q

What prognostic feature associated w/ worst neuro outcome in drowning:

  • increased submersion time
  • GCS < 7
  • poor quality CPR at scene
  • cardioresp arrest at scene
A

Increased length of submersion

*>5 min. most critical

Other:

  • resus time > 1/2 hr
  • GCS < 5
  • CPR need in ED
  • art blood pH < 7.1
170
Q

How do you tx drowning?

A
  • Immediate CPR at scene
  • C-spine precaution if worry of injury based on mech
  • no Pulse= CPR + warm w/ ECMO
  • defibrillate pulseless VT or VF max 3 X
  • Intubate
  • Warm, Humidified air + IVF
  • NO epi if < 30C
  • Warm to 34 C
  • If no effective rhythm to CPR AFTER body temp warm 32-34 then d/c resus
  • if non-icy water can stop resus after 30 min.
171
Q

Icy submersion. T28C. VS absent. CPR started. Can you stop resus after 30 min? Why or why not?

A

No.

Continue until pt warm to min. 32-34C

Even if normal temp resus till 30 min.

172
Q

What should you do with submersion pt who is asymptomatic by the time they get to ED?

A

Observe min. 6-8 hour

as 1/2 will get WOB or hypoxemia progressing to pulmonary edema in first 4-8 h usually

173
Q

T or F: it is mandatory to do CXR in all asymptomatic submersion pt in ED prior to d/c

A

Controversial

  • PIR: not necessary as not reliable predictor of clinical course
174
Q

Intubation Mnemonic

A

7P’s:

  • prepare (pt, MD, pharm, equipment)
  • pre oxygenate
  • premedicate
  • paralysis
  • placement of ETT
  • post intubation care
175
Q

How do you confirm the ETT placement

A

5C’s

  • clinical (AE)
  • clinical by direct laryngoscopy
  • Co2
  • condensation in ETT
  • CXR
176
Q

Four causes of hypoxemia:

A
  1. Hypoventilation
  2. V/Q mismatch (ventilation/perfusion ratio)
  3. R-L shunt
    > areas of no ventilation
    > no change with ++ FiO2
  4. Diffusion impairment
    > impaired barrier to gas exchange
    i.e. pul fibrosis, edema
177
Q

Sudden deoxygenation while ETT. Mnemonic

A

DOPE

  • Displaced ETT
  • Obstruction
  • Pneumo
  • Equipment Failure
178
Q

Define shock

A

Inadequate oxygen delivery to meet metabolic demands.

179
Q

When do you use atropine in intubation?

A

< 6 y.o.

Risk of bradycardia

180
Q

SVT. When to shock and when med

A

Cardio resp compromise (low BP, LOC, signs of shock)

OR IO/IV unavailable

= 0.5-1J/kg
If ineffective= 2J/kg

If stable + IV/IO= Adenosine 0.1 mg/kg bolus

181
Q

What is the bradycardia w/ poor perfusion algorithm?

A

ABC
ID and tx underlying cause

> Cardioresp compromise
> CRP if HR < 60 WITH POOR perfusion despite good vent
> Persist= Epi
0.1 mL/kg 1:19K
> Atropine for increased vagal tone
182
Q

Definition of anaphylaxis

A

Low BP after KNOWN allergen

2+ after LIKELY allergen (skin/MM, GI, resp, BP)

Acute + Skin/MM + AND either resp or BP down.

183
Q

PGE dosing

A

0.1 mcg/kg/min

AE: apnea, fever, flushing, tachy or bradycardia, low BP.

184
Q

List some TBI EBM guidelines:

A 
ICP probe if GCS min. 8
if ICP > 20 x 5 min
= sedation
 = muscle relax
= hyperosmolar therapy
= drain EVD if present

** only hyperventilate (pCO2 25-30) if impending herniation (Cushing’s triad, blown pupil)

185
Q

How do you manage cerebral herniation?

A

Dx= blown pupil, Cushing’s triad

HOB 30
Hyperventilate
Mannitol or hypertonic NS (5 cc/kg IV push)
Consult NeuroSx

186
Q

Basic approach to burn?

A
  • remove clothes + other exposure
  • ABCDE + 100% FiO2 + trauma assessment
  • wash w/ tepid water, flush chem burns, cool minor burns
  • estimate % BSA w/ partial or full thickness

If > 10%= Parkland formula
4 cc/kg x %TBSA + Normal 24 maintenance
- 1/2 volume in first 8hr and other half over 16 hour
- + IVF dextrose in addition to burn
- control pain
- no prophylactic Abx
- tetanus booster if deeper than superficial

187
Q

How can we re-warm patients?

A

Remove wet clothing

Rewarming
> Passive (blanket cover body)

Active
> External: hair huggers, heating blankets
> Internal: heated 42 C, humidified air via ETT, heated IV fluid, gastric, blades, colon, peritoneal lavage w/ warm saline

Continue until min. 34 C

188
Q

Hypothermic w/ no rhythm. What do you do?

A
  • Airway
  • CPR
  • shock if V fib
  • Rewarm min. 32-34C

** Not responsive to cardiac med so don’t give Epi until > 30 C!

189
Q

Chocolate blood associated w/ which abnormal hemoglobin-O2 thing?

A

Methemoglobinemia

Hob iron put into oxidized state -> can’t bind O2.

Tx: methylene blue

190
Q

Cherry red skin . Linked with which abN Hgb-O2 thing?

A

Carbon monoxide

Co2 bind Hgb w/ more affinity so O2 not binding

Tx: 100% O2 or hyperbaric

191
Q

Flushed. lactic acidosis. High venous saturation. “Functional hypoxia”. Linked to which Hgb-O2 relationship?

A

Cyanide

Suspect if house fire recovery.

Tx: inhaled amyl nitrate, Iv Na nitrate to induced methemglobinemia.

192
Q

Who needs dialysis?

A

AEIOU

  • Acid-base
  • Electrolyte
  • Intoxication
  • Overload
  • Uremic
193
Q

Most effective strategy to prevent submersion injuries:

  • personal floatation if > 12 mo
  • 4 sided fence w/ self -lock and self-closing gate
  • swimming till bronze level
  • parent CPR training
A

4 sided fence w/ self-closing and self-locking ability
Min. 4 feet high.

** swimming program for < 4 y.o. do NOT decrease rate of drowning

194
Q

T or F: personal flotation device should be worn by all min. 9 kg.

A

True.

If can’t sit= can’t wear it!

195
Q

RF for submersion?

A
  • Male
  • child unattended; no supervision
  • Exposure to water
  • limited swimming ability
  • med dx (Sz, long Qt etc.)
  • alcohol + drug
196
Q

T or F: you should delay removal from submersion victim for cervical spine immobilization.

A

False.

Do not delay removal from water.

Only immobilize if suspect:

  • diving
  • alcohol or other
  • trauma
197
Q

T or F: you should do abdo thrust for submersion victims.

A

False. Avoid.

Can decompress stomach once airway secured.

198
Q

Most important strategy influencing survival in submersion victims?

  • immediate C-spine immobilization
  • immediate CPR
  • passive external rewarming, EMS activation for core rewarming
  • early airway
A

Immediate CPR by rescuers

199
Q

Good prognostic factors in victims of submersion injuries:

A
  • Immediate bystander CPR (most imp)
  • Return to spontaneous circulation < 10 min
  • submersion < 5 min
  • PERLA at scene
  • normal sinus at scene
200
Q

Complications of submersion victims:

A
  • ARDS
  • pul edema
  • pneumonia
  • cerebral edema -> ICP
  • Trauma
  • Hypothermia
201
Q

What is the definition of hypothermia?

A

< 35 Core Temp

202
Q

Be-Low 3-0
Just push
No Do

A

<30 C pt
Just CPR
No dopa or epinephrine

203
Q

What is heat stroke?

A

Core T > 40
CNS dysf’n (disoriented, gait disturbance)

Tx: remove clothing
Active cooling (ice packs)

Stop once < 38.5

Replace fluid + slat orally

204
Q

Leading cause of morbidity and mortality in burns?

A

Infection

205
Q

T or F: household circuit rarely harmful and only cause local injury.

A

True.

IF SEE entry+ exit then know went through heart and do ECG

206
Q

Smells like garlic. What time of toxidrome?

A

Cholinergic.

DUMBBELLS

207
Q

Cocaine
Amphetamine
MDMA (ecstasy)
All examples of what toxidrome?

A

Sympathomimetics

All = UP

208
Q

List complications of ecstasy?

A

HTN
Hyperthermia

Hyponatremia (drinking too much water b/c hot)

Serotonin Syn= HARMED (high temp, autonomic, rigid, DTR ++ , myoclonus, encephalopathy, diaphoresis)

Cardiac ischemia

209
Q

Match the antidote:

  • Iron
  • Carbon monoxide
  • Pesticide
  • Nifedipine
  • Methanol
  • Glyburide
A

Iron= Deferoxamine

CO= O2

Pesticide= Atropine

Nifedipine= Glucagon

Methanol= Fomepizole

Glyburide= BG

210
Q

Glyburide or Metformin cause hypoglycaemia? The other causes?

A

Glyburide= low BG

Metformin= fine BG but lactic acidosis!!

211
Q

Toxic dose of acetaminophen?

A

150 mg/kg

212
Q

How do you treat acetaminophen toxicity?

A
  • Activated charcoal if within 1 hour (avoid if sedated)
  • NAC (based on nomogram)
  • Nomogram start at 4h
  • NAC best if given within first 8h
  • F/U BW (INR, LFT, lipase)
213
Q

What are salicylate take home?

A

AG Met Acid

+ Resp alkalosis (high RR)

Hearing loss
Low BG

Tx: Glucose, alkalinize serum
If CNS symp= Hemodialysis

214
Q

F with stupor after house fire. Metabolic acidosis. Lactate 23. Likely cause:

  • Carbon monoxide
  • metformin OD
  • hydrocarbon
  • cyanide exposuer
A

Cyanide exposure

Post house fire= cyanide!

Lactic acidosis!

RC: Specialties Woo Hoo (31 decks)

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