Acute Care Flashcards

1
Q

What are the ways to ensure good quality CPR?

A
  • On a firm surface
  • Push hard (1/3 anterior diameter)
  • Compress at rate 100-120
  • Allow full chest recoil
  • Switch compressors Q2min with <5s between change
  • <10s for pulse check
  • Avoid excessive ventilation
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2
Q

How do you manage bradycardia (if < 60 bpm + impaired perfusion)?

A
  1. Epinephrine 1:10,000 (0.01 mg/kg)
  2. Pacing
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3
Q

How do you manage bradycardia +pulseless (PEA)?

A
  1. Epinephrine 1:10,000 (0.01 mg/kg)
  2. No electricity indicated
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4
Q

How do you manage SVT (narrow complex)?

A
  1. Meds: Adenosine 0.1mg/kg, 2nd line procainamide or amiodarone
  2. Synchronized cardioversion (0.5-1.0 J/kg)
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5
Q

How do you manage Ventricular tachycardia + pulse?

A
  1. Meds: Adenosine (stable), 2nd line is amiodarone or procainamide
  2. Unstable: synchronized cardioversion (0.5-1.0J/kg)
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6
Q

How do you manage V tach no pulse or V fib?

A
  1. Epinephrine 1:10,000 (0.01mg/kg), 2nd line lidocaine or amiodarone (equally effective)
  2. Defibrillation 2J/kg then 4J/kg (max 10J/kg)
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7
Q

What are the indications for intubation?

A
  1. Patient can’t ventilate or oxygenation or impending failure (lung, airway, CNS, PNS)
  2. Reduction of LV afterload
  3. Need to decrease metabolic demand or regulate physiology (e.g. TBI)

Other:

  • GCS < 9 in the trauma patient
  • Inability to maintain a patent and protected airway
  • Refractory hypoxia and/or respiratory acidosis
  • Inadequate respiratory drive
  • Severe WOB
  • Potential for deterioration (e.g. inhalation burn, Stevens-Johnson Syndrome)
  • As needed for procedures/imaging
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8
Q

How do you determine ETT size?

A
  • <1yo: 3.0, 1-2yo: 3.5 ETT
  • 2y +
    • 4 + (age/4) uncuffed
    • 3.5 + (age/4) microcuffed
  • Broselow tape!
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9
Q

What are 5 differences in the pediatric airway?

A
  • Larger tongue → more upper airway obstruction
  • Epiglottis is narrow and angled posteriorly over the glottic opening
  • Glottic opening is directed posterio-inferiorly
  • Cricoid cartilage → narrowest part of the airway
  • Larynx sits higher in an infant at C3-4 (vs. C4-5)
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10
Q

What are injuries with an increased risk of intracranial injuries?

A

Fall from > 3 ft, MVC or impact from high-velocity projectile

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11
Q

What are clinical signs associated with an increased risk of intracranial injuries?

A
  • Prolonged loss of consciousness or impaired level of consciousness
  • Disorientation or confusion; amnesia
  • Worsening headache
  • Repeated or persistent vomiting
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12
Q

What are the absolute and relative indications for performing a CT head after a head injury?

A
  • Absolute indications: moderate-to-severe head injury (GCS 13 or lower), focal neurological deficit on exam, suspected open or depressed skull # or diastatic skull # seen on x-ray
  • Relative indications:
    • Abnormal mental status: GCS < 14 at any point from time of initial assessment onward, or GCS < 15 at 2 h after injury
    • Clinical deterioration over 4 h to 6 h of observing a symptomatic patient in the ED, including worsening headache or repeated vomiting
    • Signs suggestive of a basal skull fracture
    • Large, boggy scalp hematoma in child ≥ 2 years of age; in younger children, consider performing a skull x-ray first
    • Mechanism of trauma raising suspicion for serious injury (eg, falling from a height, a motor vehicle collision in which speed was a factor, or impact with a projectile, such as a gunshot or a metal fragment)
    • Persistent irritability in a child < 2 years of age
    • Seizures at the time of the event or later
    • Known coagulation disorder
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13
Q

What are risk factors for post-traumatic seizures?

A

Younger age, severe head trauma (GCS < 9), cerebral edema, SDH, open or depressed skull #

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14
Q

What creating a rapid response system, special attention should be paid to which areas during implementation?

A
  • Special attention should be paid to the following details of implementation:
    • Composition (skills and disciplines) and member availability
    • Calling criteria
    • Awareness of and interface with hospital staff
    • Methods of activation
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