Activity #6 Flashcards
A breast is divided in how many quadrants for the purpose of describing and locating health issues? Name the quadrant that most breast cancers originate in.
4; upper outer
Define the Tail of Spence.
extension of the breast tissue from the upper outer breast quadrant into the axilla
What lymph nodes will become enlarged with breast cancer?
axillary lymph nodes as well as the infraclavicular and supraclavicular lymph nodes
List 3 factors that can cause tenderness or enlargement of lymph nodes.
carcinoma in nearby tissue, infection or clinical blockage
What are the characteristics of a patient who would likely have colostrum?
pregnant and during or after the 4th month
Describe Female Tanner stage 1.
preadolescents: only a small elevated nipple
Describe female Tanner stage 2.
The breast bud stage: a small mound of breast and nipple develops; the areola widens
Describe female Tanner stage 3.
The breast and areola enlarge; the nipple is flush with the breast surface
Describe female Tanner stage 4.
The areola and nipple form a secondary mound over the breast
Describe female Tanner stage 5.
Mature breast: only the nipple protrudes; the areola is flush with the breast contour (the areola may continue as a secondary mound in some women
What is gynecomastia, and what causes it?
Swelling of breast tissues in males
Caused by an imbalance of hormones, usually a decrease in testosterone compared to estrogen.
At what time of life is gynecomastia likely to occur? Is it permanent? Is it normal?
during midpuberty for a male; it is temporary and normal
What is BRCA1 & BRCA2?
Women with BRCA1 or BRCA2 genes have up to an 80% chance of developing breast cancer at some point in their lives.
Who is most likely to have the BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene?
Jewish women of Ashkenazi origin, but they also occur in African American and Hispanic women
What is mastitis? What complication sometimes follows mastitis?
infection of the breast tissue accompanied by swelling, warmth & redness, sometimes followed by breast abscess
What does striae mean?
linear stretch marks
What are CBE and SBE?
CBE- clinical breast exam
SBE- self breast exam
How often should SBE be performed?
monthly
What is the position for the patient for CBE?
Patient supine with arm raised overhead
At what physical marker should the area palpated for a CBE begin? Where should it end? Describe the area that must be palpated.
Start at axilla and go straight down to bra line. palpate breast from clavicle to bra line (inframammary fold) and mid sternum to posterior axillary line.
What pattern of palpation is recommended for CBE?
vertical pattern of small concentric circles, using light, medium and deep pressure at each point
What part of the hand does the nurse use for the CBE?
Pads of 1st 3 fingers.
What are the most common nursing diagnoses associated with breast cancer?
Disturbed Body Image, Grieving, Ineffective Coping, Ineffective Role Performance
Define ipsilateral.
On the same side. Breast lymph drains into the “ipsilateral” axillary lymph nodes.
Endocrine evaluation is recommended for female who have not reached menarche by what age?
16
African american girls puberty starts at what average age?
8
Non-African american girls puberty starts at what average age?
8.5 to 10
Define precocious puberty.
Breast development before age 7 years in Caucasians girls or age 6 years in African American girls
what are the likely causes of precocious puberty in girls?
either dysfunction of the thyroid gland or a tumor of the ovaries or adrenal gland
Define premature thelarche.
isolated breast development in the absence of other hormone development changes (menses, pubic hair) in girls younger than 8 years.
What are the likely causes of delayed development?
may occur in association with anorexia nervosa, malnutrition, or hormonal imbalance.
Lack of breast development by what age may be considered delayed development?
13
What fraction of male experience gynecomastia, and how long does it last?
1/3 of males, and it usually resolves in 1 to 2 years
List 4 signs of breast cancer.
Hyperpigmantation, unilateral vascular appearance, Peau d’ orange (orange peel) appearance, Retractions or dimpling, Recent nipple changes from everted to inverted or in the angle the nipple points,
What can unusual nipple discharge be a sign of?
infection, medication side effect, malignancy
What condition can produce scaly lesions that begin at the nipple and progress to a lump behind the nipple well
Paget’s disease
What type of glands become more prominent during pregnancy?
Montgomery
Define mammography. What age should this usually begin?
low-dose x-ray of the breasts to aid in the diagnosis of breast disease; should be performed as a screening tool annually beginning at age 40 years
Describe breast ultrasound test.
noninvasive test using high-frequency sound waves; differentiates between a solid and cystic mass; is used as a guide in needle aspirations
Describe breast MRI.
uses a magnetic field (not x-rays), radio waves, and a computer to detect and stage breast cancer and other breast abnormalities
Describe the ductogram test.
examination of the breast ducts to determine cause of unilateral, single-pore nipple discharge
Decribe the cytological smear test.
smearing and staining a cell sample (obtained from breast discharge) to determine cause
What is a TSH test, and how can it help diagnose a breast condition?
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone;
blood test drawn to determine whether nipple discharge is secondary to a thyroid problem.
Define prepuce.
In uncircumcised males, loose, hoodlike skin called the prepuce or foreskin covers the glans
Define glans.
In uncircumcised males, loose, hoodlike skin called the prepuce or foreskin covers the glans
What is smegma?
Sloughed epithelial cells and mucus collect between glans and foreskin, forming a white, cheese like substance
What is removed in circumcision?
The prepuce.
Where does spermatogenesis occur?
in each testicle is a series of coiled ducts known as seminiferous tubules
How long does it take a spermatozoan to mature?
90 days
Where are follicle-stimulating hormone and leutinizing hormone produced?
anterior pituitary
What is the function of the testicles?
produces spermatozoa and testosterone
What is BPH? Briefly describe it.
Benign prostatic hyperplasia is an enlarge prostate gland that constricts the urinary tract. Common in men over 60, characterized by a rubbery or boggy prostate gland consistency.
What is ED and what are its most common causes?
Erectile dysdunction; Heart disease, atherosclerosis, high cholesterol, high blood pressure, diabetes, obesity, Metabolic syndrome, Parkinson’s disease, multiple sclerosis, Tobacco use, and alcoholism.
What is epidydimitis?
inflammation or infection of the coiled tube that stores sperm while they mature; symptoms are severe testicle pain, swelling and fever
What is testicular torsion?
happens when a testicle twists, blocking blood vessels; a rare condition most common between age 10 and ; if uncorrected, the testicle can die
What is the finger position for doing TSE?
Examine each testicle with both hands. Place the index and middle fingers under the testicle and the thumbs on top. Roll the testicle gently from side to side.
Define priapism.
persistent and painful erection of the penis
Define hypospadias.
a congenital condition in males in which the opening of the urethra is on the underside of the penis.
Define epispadias.
rare type of malformation of the penis in which the urethra ends in an opening on the upper aspect (the dorsum) of the penis.
Define phimosis.
the prepuce cannot be retracted over the glans. Occurs during the first 6 years of life;
Define paraphimosis.
the retracted prepuce cannot be placed back over the glans. May be severe enough enough to restrict circulation to the glans.
Define balanitis or balanoposthitis.
inflammation of the glans and prepuce that occurs in uncircumcised men.
Define hydroceles.
collection of serous fluid develops in the tunica vaginalis testis surrounding the testes.
Define spermatoceles.
benign scrotal mass, contains sperm and develops on the head of the epididymis.
Describe scabies.
highly communicable skin condition caused by a mite that is transmitted by direct skin contact. Associated papules, vesicles, pustules, and intense itching are the usual findings.
What are the symptoms of chlamydia?
May be asymptomatic; painful urination, lower abdominal pain, vaginal discharge, discharge from the penis, painful sexual intercourse, bleeding in-between periods, testicular pain
What is gonorrhea?
bacterial STI that is reportable in every state; Symptoms in Men: dysuria, urethral discharge, rectal pain
Symptoms in Women: yellow vaginal secretions, painful urination (dysuria) and dyspareunia (painful intercourse), tenderness with pelvic examination
WHat is syphyllis?
bacterial STI with 3 stages
The goals of Healthy People 2010 is to reduce the proportion of adolescents and adults with what STIs?
chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphillis, genital herpes, PID and HIV
It is a common for adolescents to have this misconception about STIs.
The misconception that oral sex does not put them at risk for STIs.
WHat is the name of the STI that often presents with vaginal impurities, thin or thick secertions, a foul vaginal odor, purulent, yellow-green, frothy discharge, pain on pelvic examination, cervical redness, contract bleeding, pH higher than 4.5 and occasional dysuria.
trichmoniasis
What are the signs of bacterial vaginitis?
vaginal secretions that have a strong (fishy) odor and vaginal itching and burning. Examination may reveal a creamy white-to gray secretion that coats the vaginal wall.
Why is it important for a female who had had the HPV immunization to still get yearly exams?
The HPV vaccine targets types 11, 16 and 18 the most common types, which cause about 70% of cervical cancer cases.
How many ways are there to check for HPV?
Only one- Pap smear.
What age should HPV screening start?
11-12
WHich form of HSV is most commonly spread by sexual contact?
II
What are external hemmorrhoids?
varicose veins that originate below the pectinate line and are covered by anal skin
Define anal fistula.
inflammatory tract or tube that opens at one end in the anus and at the other end onto the the skin surface.
What is the most common symptom of rectal cancer?
bleeding
Name 2 sources of bacterial prostatitis.
Ascending UTI and hematogenous spread.
What are the common nursing diagnoses associated with the male genital system?
Ineffective Sexuality Pattern
Risk for Infection
Urinary Retention
Risk for Urge Incontinence
Describe Skene’s gland.
aka paraurethral gland: produce clear fluid that aids in lubrication during intercourse. They are located at the 7-o’clock and 5-o’clock positions of the vestibule.
Describe Bartholin glands.
secrete clear mucus into the vaginal introitus during intercourse. They are positioned at 7-o’clock and 5-o’clock positions of the posterior vestibule
What is the function of FSH in males and in females?
stimulate growth and maturation of the ovarian follicle and the production of testosterone; maintains spermatogenesis in males
LH: what does it stand for? What hormone does it affect?
Leutinizing hormone: progesterone
What is the hormone responsible for release of FSH and LH?
Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone (GnRH)
What is the difference between male Tanner stage 4 and 5?
Males at stage 4 have pubic hair but it does not extend to the medial thighs, as it does for Stage 5.
How many consecutive months without menstruation constitutes menopause?
12
What is dysmenorrhea?
painful menstruation typically involving cramps
What is polycystic ovarian syndrome?
a condition accompanied by obesity, acne, hirsutism, and acanthosis nigricans
Acanthosis nigricans cause hyperpigmentation where?
neck, underarms
What is a cystocele?
prolapse of the bladder into the vagina
What position must the patient be in to evaluate for cystocele?
standing and also lying down
What is rectocele?
prolapsed rectum into posterior vaginal wall
What are Nabothian cysts?
Tiny, mucus filled cysts that form on the surface of the cervix
This is also referred to as PID. Infection spreads throughout uterus and into fallopian tubes causing fallopian tubes to be inflamed.
Salpingitis
what is rectovaginal fistula?
a condition where lower portion of large intestine (rectum) has a connection to the vagina. Bowel contents leak through the fistula, allowing bowel contents to leak through the vagina
What are uterine fibroids?
noncancerous growths of the uterus that often appear during childbearing years. Symptoms includes
Name the most common nursing diagnoses associated with the female genital system.
Ineffective sexuality patterns
Risk for infection
Ineffective health maintenance
At what age should a female have her first Pap smear?
within 3 years of sexual activity or at age 21 (whichever comes first)
