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Health Assessment, Jensen 2nd ed. > Activity #6 > Flashcards

Activity #6 Flashcards

1
Q

A breast is divided in how many quadrants for the purpose of describing and locating health issues? Name the quadrant that most breast cancers originate in.

A

4; upper outer

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2
Q

Define the Tail of Spence.

A

extension of the breast tissue from the upper outer breast quadrant into the axilla

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3
Q

What lymph nodes will become enlarged with breast cancer?

A

axillary lymph nodes as well as the infraclavicular and supraclavicular lymph nodes

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4
Q

List 3 factors that can cause tenderness or enlargement of lymph nodes.

A

carcinoma in nearby tissue, infection or clinical blockage

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5
Q

What are the characteristics of a patient who would likely have colostrum?

A

pregnant and during or after the 4th month

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6
Q

Describe Female Tanner stage 1.

A

preadolescents: only a small elevated nipple

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7
Q

Describe female Tanner stage 2.

A

The breast bud stage: a small mound of breast and nipple develops; the areola widens

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8
Q

Describe female Tanner stage 3.

A

The breast and areola enlarge; the nipple is flush with the breast surface

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9
Q

Describe female Tanner stage 4.

A

The areola and nipple form a secondary mound over the breast

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10
Q

Describe female Tanner stage 5.

A

Mature breast: only the nipple protrudes; the areola is flush with the breast contour (the areola may continue as a secondary mound in some women

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11
Q

What is gynecomastia, and what causes it?

A

Swelling of breast tissues in males

Caused by an imbalance of hormones, usually a decrease in testosterone compared to estrogen.

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12
Q

At what time of life is gynecomastia likely to occur? Is it permanent? Is it normal?

A

during midpuberty for a male; it is temporary and normal

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13
Q

What is BRCA1 & BRCA2?

A

Women with BRCA1 or BRCA2 genes have up to an 80% chance of developing breast cancer at some point in their lives.

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14
Q

Who is most likely to have the BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene?

A

Jewish women of Ashkenazi origin, but they also occur in African American and Hispanic women

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15
Q

What is mastitis? What complication sometimes follows mastitis?

A

infection of the breast tissue accompanied by swelling, warmth & redness, sometimes followed by breast abscess

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16
Q

What does striae mean?

A

linear stretch marks

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17
Q

What are CBE and SBE?

A

CBE- clinical breast exam

SBE- self breast exam

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18
Q

How often should SBE be performed?

A

monthly

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19
Q

What is the position for the patient for CBE?

A

Patient supine with arm raised overhead

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20
Q

At what physical marker should the area palpated for a CBE begin? Where should it end? Describe the area that must be palpated.

A

Start at axilla and go straight down to bra line. palpate breast from clavicle to bra line (inframammary fold) and mid sternum to posterior axillary line.

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21
Q

What pattern of palpation is recommended for CBE?

A

vertical pattern of small concentric circles, using light, medium and deep pressure at each point

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22
Q

What part of the hand does the nurse use for the CBE?

A

Pads of 1st 3 fingers.

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23
Q

What are the most common nursing diagnoses associated with breast cancer?

A

Disturbed Body Image, Grieving, Ineffective Coping, Ineffective Role Performance

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24
Q

Define ipsilateral.

A

On the same side. Breast lymph drains into the “ipsilateral” axillary lymph nodes.

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25
Q

Endocrine evaluation is recommended for female who have not reached menarche by what age?

A

16

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26
Q

African american girls puberty starts at what average age?

A

8

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27
Q

Non-African american girls puberty starts at what average age?

A

8.5 to 10

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28
Q

Define precocious puberty.

A

Breast development before age 7 years in Caucasians girls or age 6 years in African American girls

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29
Q

what are the likely causes of precocious puberty in girls?

A

either dysfunction of the thyroid gland or a tumor of the ovaries or adrenal gland

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30
Q

Define premature thelarche.

A

isolated breast development in the absence of other hormone development changes (menses, pubic hair) in girls younger than 8 years.

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31
Q

What are the likely causes of delayed development?

A

may occur in association with anorexia nervosa, malnutrition, or hormonal imbalance.

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32
Q

Lack of breast development by what age may be considered delayed development?

A

13

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33
Q

What fraction of male experience gynecomastia, and how long does it last?

A

1/3 of males, and it usually resolves in 1 to 2 years

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34
Q

List 4 signs of breast cancer.

A

Hyperpigmantation, unilateral vascular appearance, Peau d’ orange (orange peel) appearance, Retractions or dimpling, Recent nipple changes from everted to inverted or in the angle the nipple points,

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35
Q

What can unusual nipple discharge be a sign of?

A

infection, medication side effect, malignancy

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36
Q

What condition can produce scaly lesions that begin at the nipple and progress to a lump behind the nipple well

A

Paget’s disease

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37
Q

What type of glands become more prominent during pregnancy?

A

Montgomery

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38
Q

Define mammography. What age should this usually begin?

A

low-dose x-ray of the breasts to aid in the diagnosis of breast disease; should be performed as a screening tool annually beginning at age 40 years

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39
Q

Describe breast ultrasound test.

A

noninvasive test using high-frequency sound waves; differentiates between a solid and cystic mass; is used as a guide in needle aspirations

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40
Q

Describe breast MRI.

A

uses a magnetic field (not x-rays), radio waves, and a computer to detect and stage breast cancer and other breast abnormalities

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41
Q

Describe the ductogram test.

A

examination of the breast ducts to determine cause of unilateral, single-pore nipple discharge

42
Q

Decribe the cytological smear test.

A

smearing and staining a cell sample (obtained from breast discharge) to determine cause

43
Q

What is a TSH test, and how can it help diagnose a breast condition?

A

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone;

blood test drawn to determine whether nipple discharge is secondary to a thyroid problem.

44
Q

Define prepuce.

A

In uncircumcised males, loose, hoodlike skin called the prepuce or foreskin covers the glans

45
Q

Define glans.

A

In uncircumcised males, loose, hoodlike skin called the prepuce or foreskin covers the glans

46
Q

What is smegma?

A

Sloughed epithelial cells and mucus collect between glans and foreskin, forming a white, cheese like substance

47
Q

What is removed in circumcision?

A

The prepuce.

48
Q

Where does spermatogenesis occur?

A

in each testicle is a series of coiled ducts known as seminiferous tubules

49
Q

How long does it take a spermatozoan to mature?

A

90 days

50
Q

Where are follicle-stimulating hormone and leutinizing hormone produced?

A

anterior pituitary

51
Q

What is the function of the testicles?

A

produces spermatozoa and testosterone

52
Q

What is BPH? Briefly describe it.

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia is an enlarge prostate gland that constricts the urinary tract. Common in men over 60, characterized by a rubbery or boggy prostate gland consistency.

53
Q

What is ED and what are its most common causes?

A

Erectile dysdunction; Heart disease, atherosclerosis, high cholesterol, high blood pressure, diabetes, obesity, Metabolic syndrome, Parkinson’s disease, multiple sclerosis, Tobacco use, and alcoholism.

54
Q

What is epidydimitis?

A

inflammation or infection of the coiled tube that stores sperm while they mature; symptoms are severe testicle pain, swelling and fever

55
Q

What is testicular torsion?

A

happens when a testicle twists, blocking blood vessels; a rare condition most common between age 10 and ; if uncorrected, the testicle can die

56
Q

What is the finger position for doing TSE?

A

Examine each testicle with both hands. Place the index and middle fingers under the testicle and the thumbs on top. Roll the testicle gently from side to side.

57
Q

Define priapism.

A

persistent and painful erection of the penis

58
Q

Define hypospadias.

A

a congenital condition in males in which the opening of the urethra is on the underside of the penis.

59
Q

Define epispadias.

A

rare type of malformation of the penis in which the urethra ends in an opening on the upper aspect (the dorsum) of the penis.

60
Q

Define phimosis.

A

the prepuce cannot be retracted over the glans. Occurs during the first 6 years of life;

61
Q

Define paraphimosis.

A

the retracted prepuce cannot be placed back over the glans. May be severe enough enough to restrict circulation to the glans.

62
Q

Define balanitis or balanoposthitis.

A

inflammation of the glans and prepuce that occurs in uncircumcised men.

63
Q

Define hydroceles.

A

collection of serous fluid develops in the tunica vaginalis testis surrounding the testes.

64
Q

Define spermatoceles.

A

benign scrotal mass, contains sperm and develops on the head of the epididymis.

65
Q

Describe scabies.

A

highly communicable skin condition caused by a mite that is transmitted by direct skin contact. Associated papules, vesicles, pustules, and intense itching are the usual findings.

66
Q

What are the symptoms of chlamydia?

A

May be asymptomatic; painful urination, lower abdominal pain, vaginal discharge, discharge from the penis, painful sexual intercourse, bleeding in-between periods, testicular pain

67
Q

What is gonorrhea?

A

bacterial STI that is reportable in every state; Symptoms in Men: dysuria, urethral discharge, rectal pain
Symptoms in Women: yellow vaginal secretions, painful urination (dysuria) and dyspareunia (painful intercourse), tenderness with pelvic examination

68
Q

WHat is syphyllis?

A

bacterial STI with 3 stages

69
Q

The goals of Healthy People 2010 is to reduce the proportion of adolescents and adults with what STIs?

A

chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphillis, genital herpes, PID and HIV

70
Q

It is a common for adolescents to have this misconception about STIs.

A

The misconception that oral sex does not put them at risk for STIs.

71
Q

WHat is the name of the STI that often presents with vaginal impurities, thin or thick secertions, a foul vaginal odor, purulent, yellow-green, frothy discharge, pain on pelvic examination, cervical redness, contract bleeding, pH higher than 4.5 and occasional dysuria.

A

trichmoniasis

72
Q

What are the signs of bacterial vaginitis?

A

vaginal secretions that have a strong (fishy) odor and vaginal itching and burning. Examination may reveal a creamy white-to gray secretion that coats the vaginal wall.

73
Q

Why is it important for a female who had had the HPV immunization to still get yearly exams?

A

The HPV vaccine targets types 11, 16 and 18 the most common types, which cause about 70% of cervical cancer cases.

74
Q

How many ways are there to check for HPV?

A

Only one- Pap smear.

75
Q

What age should HPV screening start?

A

11-12

76
Q

WHich form of HSV is most commonly spread by sexual contact?

A

II

77
Q

What are external hemmorrhoids?

A

varicose veins that originate below the pectinate line and are covered by anal skin

78
Q

Define anal fistula.

A

inflammatory tract or tube that opens at one end in the anus and at the other end onto the the skin surface.

79
Q

What is the most common symptom of rectal cancer?

A

bleeding

80
Q

Name 2 sources of bacterial prostatitis.

A

Ascending UTI and hematogenous spread.

81
Q

What are the common nursing diagnoses associated with the male genital system?

A

Ineffective Sexuality Pattern
Risk for Infection
Urinary Retention
Risk for Urge Incontinence

82
Q

Describe Skene’s gland.

A

aka paraurethral gland: produce clear fluid that aids in lubrication during ­intercourse. They are located at the 7-o’clock and 5-o’clock positions of the vestibule.

83
Q

Describe Bartholin glands.

A

secrete clear mucus into the vaginal introitus during intercourse. They are positioned at 7-o’clock and 5-o’clock positions of the posterior vestibule

84
Q

What is the function of FSH in males and in females?

A

stimulate growth and maturation of the ovarian follicle and the production of testosterone; maintains spermatogenesis in males

85
Q

LH: what does it stand for? What hormone does it affect?

A

Leutinizing hormone: progesterone

86
Q

What is the hormone responsible for release of FSH and LH?

A

Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone (GnRH)

87
Q

What is the difference between male Tanner stage 4 and 5?

A

Males at stage 4 have pubic hair but it does not extend to the medial thighs, as it does for Stage 5.

88
Q

How many consecutive months without menstruation constitutes menopause?

A

12

89
Q

What is dysmenorrhea?

A

painful menstruation typically involving cramps

90
Q

What is polycystic ovarian syndrome?

A

a condition accompanied by obesity, acne, hirsutism, and acanthosis nigricans

91
Q

Acanthosis nigricans cause hyperpigmentation where?

A

neck, underarms

92
Q

What is a cystocele?

A

prolapse of the bladder into the vagina

93
Q

What position must the patient be in to evaluate for cystocele?

A

standing and also lying down

94
Q

What is rectocele?

A

prolapsed rectum into posterior vaginal wall

95
Q

What are Nabothian cysts?

A

Tiny, mucus filled cysts that form on the surface of the cervix

96
Q

This is also referred to as PID. Infection spreads throughout uterus and into fallopian tubes causing fallopian tubes to be inflamed.

A

Salpingitis

97
Q

what is rectovaginal fistula?

A

a condition where lower portion of large intestine (rectum) has a connection to the vagina. Bowel contents leak through the fistula, allowing bowel contents to leak through the vagina

98
Q

What are uterine fibroids?

A

noncancerous growths of the uterus that often appear during childbearing years. Symptoms includes

99
Q

Name the most common nursing diagnoses associated with the female genital system.

A

Ineffective sexuality patterns
Risk for infection
Ineffective health maintenance

100
Q

At what age should a female have her first Pap smear?

A

within 3 years of sexual activity or at age 21 (whichever comes first)

Health Assessment, Jensen 2nd ed. (5 decks)

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