ACS Flashcards

1
Q

what is the role of troponin in diagnosing ACS?

A

MI diagnosed by; a rise in troponin with at least 1 value above the 99th percentile of upper reference limit

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2
Q

what does a rise in troponin indicate?

A

necrotic cardiomyocytes

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3
Q

when are the troponin levels measured?

A

immediately if pain, 3, 6, 24 hours

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4
Q

what are the ST changes in a STEMI?

A

> 1mm in 2 or more contiguous leads

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5
Q

What are other changes can occur on an ECG of a STEMI?

A
  • T wave inversion/flattening
  • pathological Q waves
  • new LBBB
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6
Q

what are pathological Q waves on an ECG?

A

broad (> 1mm or 40 ms)
deep (> 2mm)
> 25% depth of QRS complex
in V1-V3

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7
Q

when should P-PCI be offered to patients, and what is it?

A

Primary PCI is opening up an occluded coronary artery by balloon insertion via catheter

offered within 12 hours of onset of symptoms

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8
Q

What medications and doses should a patient be on post ACS?

A
Aspirin - 75 mg OD 
Clopidogrel - 75 mg OD
BB - Bisoprolol - 2.5-5.0 mg OD 
ACEi
Statin - SimV 40 mg OD
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9
Q

what is the acute management of NSTEMI?

A
  • morphine
  • oxygen
  • nitrates + BB IV
  • aspirin 300 mg
  • ticagreolor/clopidogrel 300 mg (antiplatelet)
  • fondaparinux (antithrombin)
  • Tirofiban (high risk pt.)
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10
Q

Who should antithrombin treatment be offered to? and e.g.

A

Fondaparinux

patients at high risk of bleeding + not having PCI within 24 hours

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11
Q

What should be given alternatively to fondaparinux in patient at risk of bleeding , and why?

A

unfractioned heparin

either if;

  • angiography is likely within 24 hours
  • patients creatinine is > 265 umol/L
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12
Q

name a glycoprotein IIa/IIIb receptor antagonist

A

Tirofiban

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13
Q

name a glycoprotein IIa/IIIb receptor antagonist

A

Tirofiban

Abciximab

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14
Q

what additional medication can be given 3-14 days post STEMI and whats it for?

A

aldosterone antagonist e.g. eplerenone

if patient post STEMI has signs of HF or LVD

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15
Q

DVLA guidelines state that post ACS, how long do you have to abstain from driving?

A

4 weeks

1 week off driving if you were successfully treated with angioplasty

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16
Q

what is the dose for morphine or diamorphine to relieve chest pain in ACS?

A

2.5-5mg IV

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17
Q

what is the aim of the LDL range when taking statins?

A

< 1.8 mmol/L

18
Q

ST elevation in aVR may be seen in… ?

A

tripple vessel disease/ occlusion of left main coronary artery

19
Q

what is the exercise recommendations for post ACS lifestyle modifications?

A

at least 30 minutes of moderate aerobic exercise 5 times/week

20
Q

T wave inversion is normal in which ECG leads?

A

V1 and aVR

21
Q

Deeper Q waves of > 2mm are a normal variant in which leads?

A

lead III + aVR

22
Q

what are the ECG characteristics of LBBB?

A

Broad QRS complex (>0.12 ms/3 small sq.)
Deep S wave in V1
No Q wave in V5/V6

23
Q

When to call 999 when experiencing chest pain on exertion with a diagnosis of stable angina?

A

15 minutes after the onset of pain

having taken 2 spray doses of GTN under the tongue with 5 minutes interval between

24
Q

While speculating a diagnosis but considering ACS, what monitoring is require?

A
  • pain exacerbations and ensure adequate pain relief
  • heart rate and BP
  • heart rhythm
  • oxygen saturations
  • repeat ECG
25
Q

In an INFERIOR STEMI; in which leads would you expect to see elevation and which leads reciprocal depression?

A

ST elevation; leads II,III, aVF

ST depression; aVL (lateral leads)

26
Q

what are VERAPAMIL + DILTIAZEM ?

A

rate limiting calcium channel blockers, management of stable angina

27
Q

What medication is varapamil contraindicated with and why?

A

beta blockers + verapamil are contraindicated

due to risk of complete heart block

28
Q

if wanting to combine a calcium channel blocker and beta blockers, which should you give?

A

dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, e.g. modified release nifedipine

29
Q

what is torsades de pointes?

A

long QT interval arrhythmia; palpitations

30
Q

what is the management of TORSADES DE POINTED?

A

IV magnesium sulphate

31
Q

list ANTI ISCHAEMIC medications.

A
  • beta blockers
  • nitrates
  • calcium channel blockers
  • nicrorandil
  • ivabridine
  • ranolazine
32
Q

list ANTIPLATELET medications.

A
  • aspirin
  • P2Y12 receptor inhibitors
  • clopidogrel
  • prasugrel, ticagrelor,
  • glycoprotein IIa/IIIb inhibitors
33
Q

name INDIRECT ANTICOAGULANTS.

A
  • unfractioned heparin
  • low molecular weight heparin
  • factor xa inhibitor = fondaparinux
34
Q

name DIRECT ANTICOAGULANTS.

A
  • bivalirudin
  • dabigatran
  • factor xa inhibitors; apixaban, rivaroxaban
35
Q

auscultation of AORTIC STENOSIS?

A

ejection systolic murmur
loudest in aortic area
radiating to carotids

36
Q

auscultation of MITRAL REGURGITATION?

A

pansystolic murmur
loudest in apex
radiating to axilla

37
Q

auscultation of MITRAL STENOSIS?

A

mid diastolic rumbling murmur
heard best with bell of stethoscope
at apex w/ patient at left lateral position

38
Q

auscultation of AORTIC REGURGITATION?

A

early diastolic murmur
heard best at left 4th intercostal space
w/ patient sat forwards on expiration

39
Q

3 feature of typical angina

A

1) precipitated by physical exertion
2) relived by rest or GTN spray
3) constricting discomfort in the front of the chest, shoulder, jaw, arms, neck

40
Q

risk factors for coronary artery disease

A
  • hyperlipidaemia
  • hypertension
  • diabetes
  • age
41
Q

features of pathological Q waves

A
  • broad
  • deep
  • > 25% depth of QRS complex
  • ## V1-V3