ACP Flashcards

1
Q

Jaccoud arthropathy is related with which rheum Dx

A

SLE

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2
Q

Gottrens

A

Know pic

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3
Q

Chlamydia screening age

A

25 or younger

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4
Q

Cervix looked red but it’s normal finding

A

Cervical ectopy

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5
Q

Valvular lichen sclerosis predisposed to

A

Valvular SCc

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6
Q

First line drug to reduce PMS

A

SSRI

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7
Q

Incontincne associated with sudden urge to void

A

Urge incontinence

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8
Q

Hypokalemia ecg finding

A

A bother peak after the main qrs - U wave

Increased amplitude and width of the P wave
Prolongation of the PR interval
T wave flattening and inversion
ST depression
Prominent U waves (best seen in the precordial leads)
Apparent long QT interval due to fusion of the T and U waves (= long QU interval)

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9
Q

Commonest cause of tricuspid regurge

A

Pul HTN

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10
Q

WPW ECG

A

upward sloping before QRS

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11
Q

Cause of coronary arthritis in children

A

Kawasaki

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12
Q

STD associated with aortic aneurysms

A

Syphilis

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13
Q

Skin lesion that is devoid of melanocytes and intraepidermal melanin pigment

A

A: Vitiligo

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14
Q

Characteristically associated with “spaghetti and meatball” pattern on KOH preparation of scal

A

Tinea versicolor

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15
Q

Name of rash associated with acute rheumatic fever

A

Erythema marginatum

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16
Q

Eponym for a pustular neutrophilic dermatitis, fever, arthritis, and leukocytosis

A

Sweet syndrome

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17
Q

Initial drug therapy for pituitary apoplexy

A

Corticosteroid therapy

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18
Q

Physical examination finding in adolescent female that confirms estrogen production

A

Breast development

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19
Q

Diabetic complication caused by progressive loss of epinephrine and glucagon response to hypoglycemia

A

Hypoglycemic unawareness

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20
Q

Antibody most commonly associated with Hashimoto thyroiditis

A

Thyroid peroxidase antibody

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21
Q

Diagnosis associated with microcalcifications within a thyroid nodule

A

Papillary carcinoma

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22
Q

Bone disease associated with aromatase inhibitors

A

Osteopenia and osteoporosis (either)

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23
Q

Condition characterized by persistent rhinitis in the setting of chronic use of nasal decongestant

A

Rhinitis medicamentosa

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24
Q

Neuraminidase inhibitor that is contraindicated in asthma

A

Zanamivir

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25
Q

Class of drug associated with the development of compulsive behaviors

A

Dopamine agonist (accept bromocriptine, pramipexole, ropinirole)

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26
Q

Skin disease that is an FDA-approved indication for thalidomide

A

Erythema nodosum leprosum (accept leprosy)

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27
Q

Common inotropic drug that causes ST-segment depression

A

Digoxin

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28
Q

Congenital valve disorder associated with aortic coarctation

A

Bicuspid aortic valve

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29
Q

Class of antihypertensive drug associated with increased risk of CHF

A

Alpha-blockers

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30
Q

Vasculitis associated with IgA immune-complex deposition

A

Henoch-Schönlein purpura

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31
Q

The most common residua after repair of tetralogy of Fallot

A

Pulmonary valve regurgitation

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32
Q

Auditory complication of acute salicylate poisoning

A

Tinnitus or deafness (either one)

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33
Q

Urine crystals (mineral) associated with ethylene glycol poisoning

A

Calcium oxalate crystals

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34
Q

Cause of histotoxic hypoxia due to mitochondria poisoning

A

Hydrogen cyanide

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35
Q

Fish most commonly responsible for scombrotoxic fish poisoning

A

Tuna, mackerel, bonito, and skipjack (any 1)

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36
Q

Probable poisoning responsible for “mad as a hatter” syndrome in Alice in Wonderland

A

Mercury poisoning

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37
Q

Rheumatologic syndrome associated with Yersinia enterocolitica

A

Reactive arthritis (accept Reiter syndrome)

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38
Q

Diagnosis for lateral hip pain that worsens with resisted abduction of the hip

A

trochanteric bursitis

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39
Q

Disease associated with subcutaneous calcium deposits under pressure surfaces

A

Scleroderma

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40
Q

Name of deforming but nonerosive arthropathy associated with SLE

A

Jaccoud arthropathy

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41
Q

A psoriasis-like skin lesion on palms and soles associated with reactive arthritis

A

Keratoderma blennorrhagicum

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42
Q

Recommended colon cancer screening interval with flexible sigmoidoscopy for average risk individuals

A

Every 5 years

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43
Q

Liver disease associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus, thyroiditis, and celiac sprue

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

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44
Q

The most common nonmalignant hepatic tumor

A

Follicular nodular hyperplasia

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45
Q

Most likely diagnosis in this patient with abdominal pain

A

Necrotizing pancreatitis (accept pancreatitis)

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46
Q

Malabsorption syndrome associated with increased risk for intestinal lymphoma

A

Celiac disease (accept Crohn disease)

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47
Q

Mechanism of acute varicocele associated with renal carcinoma

A

Obstruction of the testicular vein

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48
Q

Monoclonal antibody that reduces mortality in early-stage, HER2-positive breast cancer

A

Trastuzumab

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49
Q

The infectious agent causing nasopharyngeal carcinoma

A

Epstein-Barr Virus

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50
Q

Tumor associated with severe, watery diarrhea, flushing, hypokalemia, hypercalcemia, and hyperglycemia

A

Vasoactive intestinal peptide tumor

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51
Q

Vitamin deficiency syndrome associated with carcinoid syndrome

A

Pellagra (accept niacin, vitamin B3 or nicotinic acid deficiency)

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52
Q

Eponym for retracting the knees to the chest when neck is flexed

A

Brudzinski sign

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53
Q

Neurodegenerative disease associated with micrographia

A

Parkinson disease

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54
Q

Physical finding on back of the hand that is associated with bulimia

A

Calluses, scarring or ulceration over dorsum of hand (accept any one)

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55
Q

Anterior midline mass that moves upward with the tongue is protruded

A

Thyroglossal cyst

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56
Q

Physical examination sign defined as spinal or limb paresthesias elicited by neck flexion

A

Lhermitte sign

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57
Q

Chronic anovulation results in this endometrial change

A

Endometrial hyperplasia or malignancy (accept either)

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58
Q

Amsel criteria are used to diagnose this disorder

A

Bacterial vaginosis

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59
Q

Diagnosis suggested by dyspareunia and punctate ulcers around the Bartholin glands

A

Vulvar vestibulitis

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60
Q

Diagnosis for febrile illness characterized by a vesicular eruption involving the mouth, hands, and feet

A

Hand, foot, and mouth disease (accept Enterovirus infection)

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61
Q

Non-gastrointestinal complication of E. coli O157:H7 infection

A

Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (accept TTP) or reactive arthritis (accept Reiter syndrome)

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62
Q

Source of rabies in US patients without obvious inoculation

A

Bats

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63
Q

Name of syphilitic lesions in intertriginous areas characterized by moist, white plaques

A

Condylomata lata

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64
Q

Infection classically associated with hemorrhagic mediastinitis

A

Anthrax

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65
Q

Genitourinary source of this cellular structure found in the urine

A

Glomerulus (dysmorphic erythrocytes)

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66
Q

Most common condition responsible for pseudohyponatremia

A

Hyperlipidemia and multiple myeloma (either answer)

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67
Q

Cause of proteinuria in young healthy male with normal BP, creatinine, BUN and microscopic urinalysis

A

Orthostatic proteinuria

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68
Q

Most common cardiac valve abnormality associated with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

A

Mitral valve prolapse

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69
Q

Diagnosis for these urine crystals

A

Struvite (accept triple phosphate)

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70
Q

Name for zone of ischemic, viable brain tissue following an ischemic stroke

A

Ischemic penumbra or watershed

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71
Q

Common name for syndrome characterized by quadriplegia and paralysis of horizontal eye movements

A

Locked in syndrome

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72
Q

Anatomical location of the lesion responsible for internuclear ophthalmoplegia

A

Medial longitudinal fasciculus

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73
Q

Diagnosis for dementing syndrome characterized primarily by impairment of interpersonal and executive function

A

Frontotemporal dementia

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74
Q

CSF protein 14-3-3 is associated with this condition

A

Creutzfeldt-Jacob dementia

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75
Q

Part of the macula that is the point of visual fixation

A

FOVEA

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76
Q

Mechanism by which topical beta-blockers reduce intraocular pressur

A

Reduction of aqueous humor secretion

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77
Q

Agent causing conjunctivitis and umbilicated papular lesions on lid margins

A

Molluscum contagiosum

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78
Q

Meaning of metamorphopsia

A

Seeing wavy or distorted lines

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79
Q

Physical examination hallmark of endophthalmitis

A

Hypopyon (accept pus in anterior chamber)

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80
Q

Pickwickian syndrome refers to this condition

A

Obesity hypoventilation syndrome

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81
Q

Stage 2 chest x-ray findings in sarcoidosis

A

Adenopathy plus infiltrates

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82
Q

Antibody implicated in TRALI syndrome

A

Antileukocytic antibody

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83
Q

Name of memory disturbance associated with GABA agonists for sleep

A

Anterograde amnesia

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84
Q

The most specific symptom of narcolepsy

A

Cataplexy

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85
Q

Diagnosis for nonseasonal rhinitis and negative allergy skin tests

A

Vasomotor rhinitis

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86
Q

Disease associated with Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

A

Syphilis

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87
Q

Congential immune deficiency syndrome classically associated with recurrent infection with encapsulated bacteria

A

Common variable immunodeficiency

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88
Q

Immune disease associated with abnormal nitroblue tetrazolium dye test

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

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89
Q

Eponym describing urticarial lesions that worsen when stroked

A

Darier sign

90
Q

Diagnosis for this specific form of psoriasis

A

Plaque psoriasis

91
Q

Diagnosis characterized by flushing and persistent central facial erythema

A

Rosacea

92
Q

Blistering disease associated with intercellular antibody and complement deposition

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

93
Q

Psoriatic genial lesions associated with reactive arthritis

A

Circinate balanitis

94
Q

Diagnosis associated with elevated LDL, tendinous xanthoma, and family history of early cardiovascular death

A

Familial hypercholesterolemia (or, type 2)

95
Q

Hypoglycemic drug that decreases GI absorption of carbohydrates

A

Acarbose

96
Q

Provocative test to assess estrogen status in secondary amenorrhea

A

Progestogen challenge

97
Q

Syndrome of gynecomastia, small testes, and hypergonadotropic hypogonadism

A

Klinefelter syndrome

98
Q

Pituitary disorder associated with colon polyps and colon cancer

A

Acromegaly

99
Q

rimary therapy for common variable immunodeficiency

A

Immunoglobulin replacement therapy

100
Q

Immune deficiency that poses risk of allergic reaction to transfused plasma

A

IgA deficiency

101
Q

Type of physical urticaria that means “to write on the skin”

A

Dermographism (accept dermatographism)

102
Q

Drug class used to prevent recurrences of angioedema in patients with hereditary angioedema

A

Androgens (also accept synthetic 17-alpha alkylated androgens, or danazol, stanozolol oxandrolone, oxymetholone, methyltestosterone)

103
Q

Drug for epinephrine refractory anaphylaxis in patients taking beta-blockers

A

Glucagon

104
Q

Diagnosis for asymptomatic unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia and normal hemoglobin and liver chemistry tests

A

Gilbert disease

105
Q

Most common physical examination finding associated with Barrett esophagus

A

Obesity (accept BMI > 25)

106
Q

Alternative medication to antibiotics in mild traveler’s diarrhea

A

Bismuth subsalicylate

107
Q

Restricted drug for irritable bowel syndrome associated with ischemic colitis

A

Alosetron

108
Q

Drug class that decreases the risk of cholecystitis in acute biliary colic

A

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug

109
Q

Drug causing von Willebrand factor to be released from storage sites

A

Desmopressin (accept DDAVP, arginine vasopressin)

110
Q

A two-gene defect [(–/–), (α/α)] produces this thalassemia variant

A

α-thalassemia

111
Q

Blood banking procedure to prevent primary alloimmunization to HLA antigens

A

Leukocyte reduction (accept Leukopore filter)

112
Q

Drug treatment for erythromelalgia

A

Aspirin

113
Q

Diagnosis for IgM antibodies directed against RBC I/i antigens

A

Cold agglutinin disease

114
Q

Common drug that exacerbates chronic idiopathic urticaria

A

ASPIRIN//NSAIDS

115
Q

Name of syndrome associated with this finding and gastrointestinal bleeding

A

Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (Rendu-Osler-Weber syndrome)

116
Q

Topical drug treatment for superficial basal cell carcinoma

A

Imiquimod or 5-fluorouracil (either acceptable)

117
Q

Most frequent side-effect of isotretinoin

A

Dry lips and eyes (accept dry skin)

118
Q

Syndrome of familial hypercalcemia and low urine calcium level

A

Familial benign hypocalciuric hypercalcemia (accept familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia)

119
Q

Diagnosis in a hyperosmolar patient with an elevated level of arginine vasopressiN

A

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

120
Q

Isthmus of thyroid gland is inferior to this cartilage

A

Cricoid cartilage

121
Q

Best drug class to restore fertility in women with prolactinoma

A

Dopamine agonist (accept bromocriptine or cabergoline)

122
Q

Mechanism of type 1 amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis

A

Iodine-induced thyrotoxicosis

123
Q

The ossicles conduct vibration from the ear drum to this structure

A

Cochlea

124
Q

Endolymphatic hydrops is associated with this disease

A

M?ni?re disease

125
Q

Condition associated with otoliths in semicircular canal

A

Benign positional vertigo

126
Q

Eponym for acute onset of interstitial keratitis and vestibuloauditory dysfunction

A

Cogan syndrome

127
Q

environmental cause of auricular calcification

A

Frostbite (accept hypothermia, cold exposure)

128
Q

Device that reduces afterload and increases coronary perfusion

A

Intra-aortic balloon pump

129
Q

MI location most commonly associated with papillary muscle rupture

A

Inferior wall

130
Q

ECG diagnosis for patient with chest pain (diffuse ST elevation)

A

pericarditis

131
Q

First-line drug for congenital long QT syndrome

A

β-blocker

132
Q

Mechanism responsible for the pacemaker syndrome

A

Atrioventricular dyssynchrony (accept dyssynchrony)

133
Q

Anatomical location of pancreatic cancer associated with obstructive jaundice

A

Head of pancreas

134
Q

Second most common cause of cancer death in the U.S.

A

Colorectal cancer

135
Q

Surgical intervention associated with increased risk of renal cancer

A

Renal transplantation

136
Q

Stage classification for a patient with small-cell lung cancer involving both lungs

A

Extensive (accept stage IV)

137
Q

A tripartite benign tumor composed of blood vessel, muscle, and fat elements

A

Angiomyolipoma (accept hamartoma)

138
Q

Device that prevents 50% of unintentional carbon monoxide poisonings

A

Carbon monoxide detector

139
Q

Time after acetaminophen overdose when aminotransferase levels begin to rise

A

: 36 hours (accept any answer within 24 to 72 hours range)

140
Q

Cause of bright red venous blood due to mitochondria poisoning

A

Hydrogen cyanide

141
Q

Acute metal exposure associated with abdominal colic, headache, and fatigue

A

Lead

142
Q

Stimulation of this parasympathetic receptor produces salivation, bronchorrhea, and bronchospasm

A

Muscarinic

143
Q

DISEASE most associated with digit ulceration

A

Systemic sclerosis (accept scleroderma)

144
Q

First-line drug class to reduce PMS symptoms

A

SSRIs (accept a member drug within class)

145
Q

Neurominidase inhibitor causing broncospasm

A

Zanamivir

146
Q

Antibiotics for UTI causing elevated Cr and hyperkalemia

A

Septra. Trimethoprim K sparing hyper k. The sulfa portion look like glcazide can cause hypoglycemia

147
Q

Pressor antagonist for SIADH

A

Conivaptan or tolvaptan

148
Q

Anti TB med can lower OCP

A

Rifampin

149
Q

Nib

A

Tyrosine kinase inhibitor

150
Q

Fever pneumonia is colitis in transplant pts

A

CMV

151
Q

Rabies treatment in preg

A

Amox

152
Q

Thalidomide uses

A

Leprosy and antiemetic (no longer used )

153
Q

Direct renin inhibitor

A

Aliskiren - don’t use bc increase mortality

154
Q

B12 def sym triggered by anesthetic agent

A

Nitrous oxide

155
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis complication producing pain in the arms, hyperreflexia, and hypertonia

A

Atlantoaxial sublux

156
Q

Painless do dual palmar hand

A

Duprtren

157
Q

Vasculitis renal aneurysm

A

Pan

158
Q

Sup vena cava syndrome Dx

A

CT contrast

159
Q

Most common cancer causing jaundice and palpable gallbladder

A

Pancreatic

160
Q

Bisphosphonate infusion side effect of jaw

A

Osteonecrosis of jaw (exposed alveolar bone) also atypical fracture

161
Q

Breast ca brain tumor leukemia

A

Li-fraumeni

162
Q

Name of fever exaggerate q 48h

A

Tertian fever (every 3rd d caused by rbc lysis by parasites)

163
Q

Austin flint murmur

A

Aortic murmur

164
Q

Vasculitis associated with antiglomerular memb ab

A

Good pasture

165
Q

The most common cause of acute pancreatitis in the U.S

A

Gallstones

166
Q

Diagnostic test of choice for Zenker diverticulum

A

Barium swallow

167
Q

Non-malignant diagnosis associated with dysphagia for solids and liquids and regurgitation

A

Achalasia

168
Q

Enzyme deficiency in Gilbert syndrome

A

Glucuronosyltransferase

169
Q

Gene mutation associated with familial adenomatous polyposis

A

APC gene

170
Q

fat and empty space in bone marrow

A

Aplastic anemia

171
Q

Name the most common anatomical site for occurrence of warfarin skin necrosis

A

Limbs and breasts (accept either answer)

172
Q

Treatment for ITP that is used only in Rh(+) patients

A

Anti-Rho(D) = rogam

173
Q

A metalloproteinase that cleaves large multimers of von Willebrand factor

A

ADAMTS 13

174
Q

Diagnosis associated with anion gap acidosis, osmolar gap, and urinary calcium oxalate crystals

A

Ethylene glycol poisoning

175
Q

Gas poisoning associated with flame-shaped retinal hemorrhages

A

Carbon monoxide

176
Q

Alcohol poisoning associated with increased osmolar gap but a normal anion gap

A

Isopropyl alcohol

177
Q

Fish responsible for ciguatera fish poisoning

A

Groupers, parrot fish, snappers, mackerel, moray eels, and barracudas (name only 1)

178
Q

Cause of red, hot, painful ears and saddle nose deformity

A

Relapsing polychondritis

179
Q

Treatment for familial Mediterranean fever

A

Colchicine

180
Q

in patients with chronic limb pain, measurement of skin temperature helpful to establish this diagnosis

A

Complex regional pain syndrome (accept reflex sympathetic dystrophy and causalgia)

181
Q

Characterized by pain, numbness, and tingling in the forefoot, aggravated by high heel shoes

A

Morton neuroma

182
Q

Diagnosis for normal blood pressure, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, and elevated renin and aldosterone levels

A

Bartter syndrome

183
Q

Treatment of scleroderma renal crisis and serum creatinine >3 mg/dL

A

ACE inhibitor (accept specific ACE inhibitor)

184
Q

Characterized by glycosuria, phosphaturia, aminoaciduria, and tubular proteinuria

A

Proximal (type 2) renal tubular acidosis (accept Fanconi syndrome)

185
Q

Renal vascular disease associated with this finding on angiography (beeding or renal artery)

A

Fibromuscular disease (accept Fibromuscular dysplasia)

186
Q

Recommended duration of antibiotic treatment for inhalational anthrax

A

60d

187
Q

Treatment of first recurrence of mild C. difficile colitis

A

metronidazole

188
Q

Shock syndrome caused by bacterial exotoxins that act as superantigen

A

Toxic shock syndrome

189
Q

Tropical zoonosis associated with hemorrhage, abdominal pain, hepatosplenomegaly and this finding [ image ] red sclera/eye white sparing a ring of white around the iris watery eyes

A

Leptospirosis

190
Q

Infection associated with this erythrocyte inclusion (four dots in RBC)

A

Babesioses

191
Q

Eponym for criteria used to diagnose acute rheumatic fever

A

jone’s criteria

192
Q

Name for cutaneous sarcoidosis characterized by red indurated papules, plaques, or nodules on the central face

A

Lupus pernio

193
Q

Split urine collection (daytime and nighttime) used to diagnose this condition

A

Orthostatic (accept positional) proteinuria

194
Q

Diagnosis suggested by serum potassium of 7.0 meq/L and this ECG

A

VPseudohyperkalemia

195
Q

Multiple myeloma type typically associated with low anion gap

A

IgG myeloma

196
Q

An ulcerative form of impetigo

A

Ecthyma

197
Q

This parasitic cutaneus infection is transmitted by the sandfly

A

Leishmaniasis

198
Q

Painful condition of the axillary, inguinal, and perianal areas with bid nodules/lumps

A

Hidradenitis suppurativa

199
Q

Develops after infection with β-hemolytic Streptococcus

A

Guttate psoriasis

200
Q

Eponym describing the ability to laterally extend bullae by application of pressure

A

Asboe-Hansen sign (accept indirect Nikolsky sign or Nikolsky II sign)

201
Q

bilateral auricular inflammation

A

Relapsing polychondritis (accept polychondritis)

202
Q

Most likely genetic cause of findings indicated by the arrows - osteophites in MCP

A

hemachromatosis

203
Q

SLE complication characterized by acute leg paralysis, bladder and bowel dysfunction

A

Transverse myelitis

204
Q

Name of test associated with these findings 48 hours following 5 insertions of a sterile needle [ image 5 red spots on forearm)

A

Pathergy test for becet

205
Q

Diagnosis for ankle pain and periosteal new bone formation

A

Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy

206
Q

Aquired bone disease associated with hearing loss

A

paget disease

207
Q

Most common extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis

A

Acute anterior uveitis

208
Q

rbc in ant chamber

A

hyphema

209
Q

skin necrosis following eating raw oysters

A

Vibrio vulnificus

210
Q

Most likely diagnosis bronchoalveolar lavage finding of transparent long worms

A

Strongyloides stercoralis (accept Strongyloides)

211
Q

Eponym for test to detect abnormal lacrimal gland function with tear test strips

A

schimer test

212
Q

: Spondyloarthropathy associated with this finding of back skin ulceration

A

Reactive spondyloarthropathy (accept Reiter syndrome)

213
Q

Diagnosis for woody induration of extremities, sparing hands and face, and absent Raynaud phenomenon

A

Eosinophilic fasciiti

214
Q

Crystals associated with highly destructive osteoarthritis including “Milwaukee shoulder”

A

Basic calcium phosphate (accept hydroxyapatite)

215
Q

Condition significantly associated with high titers of anti-U1-ribonucleoprotein (RNP) antibodies

A

Mixed connective tissue disease

216
Q

Indicated pulmonary test for patient with this disorder ear thickened??

A

Flow volume loop

217
Q

Form of scleroderma presenting as localized indurated plaques

A

morphea

218
Q

malar rash belongs to which type of lupus

A

acute cutanous lupus

219
Q

A noninflammatory disease associated with calcification and ossification of spinal ligaments and of peripheral entheses

A

dish

220
Q

Syndrome of entrapment of the median nerve in the proximal forearm where it passes through the pronator teres muscle

A

pronator teres syndrome

221
Q

ENT complication shared by primary atrophic rhinosinusitis, relapsing polychondritis, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis

A

Saddle nose deformity