AC Tech quiz

Question 1

If localizer or glide-slope signal interference occurs because of a vehicle or aircraft the autopilot Will:
A. Disengage with all appropriate warnings.
B. Follow the erroneous signals without fail.
C. Disregard the ILS signal and remains engaged in an attitude stabilizing mode.

Answer 1

C. Disregard the ILS signal and remains engaged in an attitude stabilizing mode.

Question 2

Can the left VHF be used in data mode (datalink)?
Yes.
No.
Only if the right VHF is u/s.

Answer 2

Yes

Question 3

The RAT (Ram Air Turbine) generator is deployed:
A. Automatically if both AC transfer buses lose power in flight.
B. Manually by pushing the Ram Air Turbine switch on the overhead panel.
C. Both a and b are correct.

Answer 3

C. Both a and b are correct.

Question 4

A runway is considered contaminated when more than ___ % of the area to be used is covered by standing water, slush or snow.
A. 25 B. 20 C. 15

Answer 4

A. 25%

Question 5

In flight TO/GA is armed when:
Either go-around switch is pushed.
The flaps are out of the UP position or glide-slope is captured.
Approach is armed.

Answer 5

The flaps are out of the UP position or glide-slope is captured.

Question 6

There is fire detection and extinguishing systems for the following:
Engine and APU.
Engine,APU,main gear wheel wells.
Engine, APU, cargo compartments, lavatories.

Answer 6

Engine, APU, cargo compartments, lavatories.

Question 7

The centre tank pumps will continue to operate:
A. Until the fuel is depleted.
B. Until the centre pumps are selected off.
C. Until 15 seconds of continuous low pressure.

Answer 7

C. Until 15 seconds of continuous low pressure.

Question 8

The fuel jettison system allows fuel to be dumped from:
All fuel tanks.
Centre tank only.
Left main only through the X-feed open

Answer 8

All fuel tanks.

Question 9

The left and right primary hydraulic pumps are:
Electrically driven.
Engine driven.
Pneumatically driven.

Answer 9

Engine driven.

Question 10

When both centre hydraulic system demand pumps are selected to ON:
They both operate to provide a primary source of pressure to the centre system only if the electric pumps are u/s.
Only the C2 pump will operate.
Both pumps cannot operate simultaneously.

Answer 10

Both pumps cannot operate simultaneously.

Question 11

The RTO Auto-brake setting commands maximum braking pressure if:
Groundspeed is above 85 KTS
Both thrust levers are retarded to idle
All of the above

Answer 11

All of the above

Question 12

How many ILS receivers are installed on the B777 and how are they tuned?
1 auto-tuned by the FMC.
3 usually auto-tuned by the FMC but can be manually tuned on the NAV radio page.
2 each manually tuned on its respective FMC.

Answer 12

3 usually auto-tuned by the FMC but can be manually tuned on the NAV radio page.

Question 13

In flight APU bleed air is available below approximately:
10,000 feet.
22,000 feet.
25,000 feet.

Answer 13

22,000 feet.

Question 14

Which of the following parameters does the engine auto-start system NOT monitor?
EGT.
N2.
Oil pressure and temperature.

Answer 14

Oil pressure and temperature.

Question 15

The Left TRIM AIR system supplies:
Three zone supply ducts.
The flt deck and three zone supply ducts.
The flt deck and two zone supply ducts.

Answer 15

The flt deck and three zone supply ducts.

Question 16

Flight crew shoulder heat and foot heaters have electric heating elements with no airflow. Both are available on the ground.
A. True. B. False.

Answer 16

False

Question 17

Landing altitude (normally provided by FMC) can be manually set using the LANDING ALTITUDE selector. Landing altitude selection limits are:
A. Sea level to 10,000 feet.
B. Sea level to 14,000 feet.
C. 1,000 feet below sea level to 14,000 feet.

Answer 17

C. 1,000 feet below sea level to 14,000 feet.

Question 18

What stabilizer trim condition exists when both Stabilizer Trim Cutout Sw are in the CUTOUT position?
A. Stabilizer Trim is 1/2 normal rate.
B. Electrical power is shutoff.
C. Hydraulic power is shut off.

Answer 18

C. Hydraulic power is shut off.

Question 19

To prevent inadvertent deployment during cruise, flap and slat extension is inhibited from the UP position:
A. At greater than 250 kts or greater than 10,000 ft.
B. At greater than 300 kts or greater than 20,000 ft.
C. At greater than 275 kts or greater than 20,000 ft.

Answer 19

At greater than 275 kts or greater than 20,000 ft.

Question 20

If the flow bar is not in view and the valve light is extinguished on the Fuel Cross-feed Valve switch, what is the position of the Crossfeed Valve?
A. Switch is OFF and valve is closed.
B. Switch is OFF and valve is open.
C. Switch is ON and valve is closed.

Answer 20

A. Switch is OFF and valve is closed.

Question 21

When does fuel jettison begin, after arming jettison logic?
A. After setting FUEL to REMAIN.
B. After time to jettison has been calculated.
C. After pushing fuel jettison switches to ON.

Answer 21

C. After pushing fuel jettison switches to ON.

Question 22

When is the Pitch Limit indicator displayed?
A. At Glide Slope Capture.
B. Any time the aircraft approaches VS.
C. When the Flaps are not UP, or at slow speeds with Flaps Up.

Answer 22

C. When the Flaps are not UP, or at slow speeds with Flaps Up

Question 23

Current Ground Speed on the PFD is displayed when MACH is:
A. Less than M.40.
B. Less than M.50.
C. Less than M.30.

Answer 23

A. Less than M.40.

Question 24

When is the airplane heading referenced to magnetic north in NORM mode?
A. At all times.
B. When the airplane is between 82 Deg. N and 82 Deg. S.
C. When the airplane is between 73 Deg. N and 60 Deg. S.

Answer 24

B. When the airplane is between 82 Deg. N and 82 Deg. S. With exceptions when north of 70N or south of 60S

Question 25

What causes the gear to extend when the alternate gear extension switches are used?
A. Hydraulic power.
B. Gravity.
C. Both A and B

Answer 25

C. Both A and B

Question 26

When is the expanded gear indication displayed on primary EICAS?
A. The gear is down and locked.
B. The gear position disagrees with the Gear Lever position.
C. For 10 seconds after the gear is UP and locked.

Answer 26

B. The gear position disagrees with the Gear Lever position.

Question 27

When is the EICAS message BRAKE TEMP displayed?
A. When brake temp is 4 units or greater.
B. When brake temp is 5 units or greater.
C. When brake temp is 3 units or greater.

Answer 27

B. When brake temp is 5 units or greater.

Question 28

What do boxes on an FMS CDU page as a prompt mean?
A. Entry optional.
B. Entry required.
C. Both A and B.

Answer 28

B. Entry required.

Question 29

A position update is recommended if the total time in the navigation mode is expected to exceed:
12 hours.
24 hours.
16 hours.

Answer 29

24 hours.

Question 30

When is ILS automatic turning inhibited?
A. Autopilot is engaged and either localizer or glide slope captured.
B. The FD is engaged and either localizer or glideslope captured, and the airplane is below 500 ft. AGL.
C. Either A or B.

Answer 30

C. Either A or B.

Question 31

The flight deck is maintained at a slightly higher pressure than the cabin and receives 100% fresh conditioned air from:

A. the left pack only.
B. both packs.
C. the right pack only

Answer 31

A. the left pack only.


Question 32

To erase the CVR recording, the erase button must be held for 3 sec:
A. On the ground with AC power ON and brakes set.
B. On the ground with brakes set.
C. Cannot be erased

Answer 32

C. Cannot be erased

Question 33

The electrical load management system will automatically shed AC loads by the following priority:
A. Galleys first, then Utility Busses.
B. Individual equipment items, then Utility Busses.
C. Galleys, individual equipment items, then Utility Busses.

Answer 33

A. Galleys first, then Utility Busses.

Question 34

When is EICAS message ELEC GEN DRIVE L, R displayed?
A. When the respective IDG has low oil pressure.
B. When the respective IDG is disconnected.
C. When the Generator control Breaker has tripped.

Answer 34

A. When the respective IDG has low oil pressure.

Question 35

Each cargo compartment is divided into 4 detection zones. If smoke is detected in any zone, a fire warning occurs.
A. True. B. False.

Answer 35

A. True.

Question 36

What does the Rudder Trim Selector do?
A. Alters the rudder ratio changer.
B. Trims the rudder in the desired direction.
C. Activates yaw dampers in the proper direction.

Answer 36

B. Trims the rudder in the desired direction.

Question 37

What could the EICAS message LOAD RELIEF signify?
A. Flap speeds exceeded with flaps 15 or greater.
B. Relieve hydraulic system pressure to actuators.
C. Ensure trailing edge flaps extend first.

Answer 37

A. Flap speeds exceeded with flaps 15 or greater.

Question 38

Where is climb gradient?

Answer 38

Go-Around climb gradient in FCOM PD landing. PD.12.4

Question 39

Where is required equipment list for CAT II & III?

Answer 39

SOP 2014, third to last page.

Question 40

Which flap drive system(s) have asymmetry protection?
A. Primary and secondary.
B. Primary only.
C. Secondary only.

Answer 40

A. Primary and secondary.

Question 41

Which hydraulic system powers the Alternate Brakes and the Nose and Main Gear Steering?
A. Left hydraulic system.
B. Right hydraulic system.
C. Centre hydraulic system.

Answer 41

C. Centre hydraulic system.

Question 42

When the ENG ANTI-ICE selector is in AUTO, and the ANTI-ICE valve is commanded OPEN, or the selector is ON, the approach idle is selected by the EEC.
A. True.
B. False.

Answer 42

A. True.