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SURGX > ABS3 > Flashcards

ABS3 Flashcards

1
Q

Approximately how long does it take from migration of a keratinocyte from the base layer to the time it is shed from the epidermis

A

50 days (40 to 56 days)

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2
Q

What is the embryologic origin of melanocytes

A

Neural crest

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3
Q

Primary type of collagen present in fetal skin

A

Type III

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4
Q

A pressure of 60 mmHg can result in pressure necrosis of the skin and underlying soft tissue after

A

1 hour

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5
Q

Radiation wavelengths that is primarily responsible for the development of skin cancer after exposure to the sun

A

UVB

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6
Q

Best initial treatment of burn with hydrofluoric acid

A

Copious irrigation with water

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7
Q

Is associated with pyoderma gangrenosum

A

Monoclonal immunoglobulin agammopathy

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8
Q

A “sebaceous” cyst is removed from the scalp of a 48-year-old woman. What would be expected on histologic exam

A

The presence of epidermis covered by an external basal layer

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9
Q

Angiosarcoma associated with Stewart-Treves syndrome arises in areas exposed to

A

Lymphedema

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10
Q

Type of melanoma has the best overall prognosis

A

Lentigo maligna

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11
Q

A patient presents with a biopsy proven melanoma of the thigh which is 3 mm thick on histologic examination. At the time of excision, how wide should the margins be

A

2 cm

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12
Q

A chemotherapeutic agent used in the treatment if some patients with dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans (DFSP)

A

Imatinib

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13
Q

A patient presents with a biopsy proven Merkel cell carcinoma 2 mm in diameter. At the time of excision, how wide should the margin be

A

3 cm

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14
Q

Nevus sebaceous of Jadassohn is most commonly associated with

A

Basal cell carcinoma

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15
Q

The relative risk of developing a squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck for a patient who abuses both cigarettes and alcohol is

A

35-fold increased risk

*Smoking alone: Male = 1.9-fold increased risk, Female = 3-fold increased risk
*Alcohol alone: 1.7-fold increased risk

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16
Q

The primary lymphatic drainage of the midline of the upper lip is

A

Preauricular nodes

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17
Q

Features of oral tongue carcinoma

A

 Presentation as ulcerated exophytic mass
 May involve submandibular and upper cervical lymph nodes
 Can result in ipsilateral paresthesias and deviation of the tongue on protrusion with fasciculations and eventual atrophy
 CO2 laser useful or excision o small early tumors

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18
Q

Lymphatic drainage from the supraglottic larynx is primarily to

A

Superior jugular nodes

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19
Q

Delphian node

A

Prelaryngeal node

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20
Q

Infection that is correlated with nasopharyngeal cancer

A

EBV, Epstein Barr virus

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21
Q

Most common salivary gland neoplasm

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

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22
Q

Level V lymph nodes in the neck are located in the

A

Posterior triangle

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23
Q

When the tracheostomy is no longer needed, the tube is removed and closure of the opening usually occurs spontaneously

A

Over a 2-week period

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24
Q

Most common causative organism in otitis externa is

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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25
Q

Bell’s palsy is most commonly associated with

A

Infection with Herpes simplex

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26
Q

Most common etiology of facial nerve paralysis

A

Bell’s palsy or idiopathic facial paralysis
*Treatment = Oral steroids plus antiviral therapy

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27
Q

Ramsay Hunt syndrome is characterized by severe otalgia followed by the vesicles of the external ear and is caused by

A

Varicella zoster virus

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28
Q

Strawberry tongue is seen in

A

Scarlet fever

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29
Q

Indication for tonsillectomy in children

A

After three or more infections per year despite adequate medical therapy

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30
Q

Most common therapy used in the treatment of recurrent respiratory papillomatosis (RRP)

A

Laryngoscopy with excision and/ or ablation of lesions
*HPV subtypes 6 and 11

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31
Q

Most common site of recurrent respiratory papillomatosis (RRP)

A

Larynx

32
Q

Reinke’s edeme is

A

Edema in the superficial lamina propria of the vocal cord

33
Q

What temporal bone fracture pattern is most likely to have an associated facial nerve injury

A

Transverse

34
Q

Most significant consideration in the management of temporal bone injuries is

A

The status of the facial nerve

*Delayed of partial paralysis = Almost always resolve with conservative management
*Immediate paralysis = Considered for nerve decompression

35
Q

The treatment of choice for a small squamous carcinoma of the lip is

A

Surgical excision alone

36
Q

Primary repair is possible after excision of what percentage of the lip

A

<33%

37
Q

The most common location for Kaposi’s sarcoma of the oropharynx is

A

Palate

38
Q

What is the probability that a neck mass measuring 2.5 cm in an adult is malignant

A

80%

*Neck mass >2cm = Greater than 80% probability of being malignant

39
Q

What structures is removed in a modified radical neck dissection

A

Level I-V lymph nodes

40
Q

Structures removed in a Sistrunk procedure

A

Portion of the hyoid bone
*THYROGLOSSAL DUCT CYST

41
Q

Branchial cleft anomalies involving the pyriform sinus arise from the

A

3rd branchial cleft

42
Q

Most common malignant epithelial neoplasm of the salivary gland

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

*Most common benign = Pleomorphic adenoma or benign mixed tumor

43
Q

Most common malignancies of salivary gland in pediatric population

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma and acinic cell carcinoma
*Adult = Pleomorphic adenoma

44
Q

Most common site of salivary neoplasm

A

Parotid gland

45
Q

The breast receives its principal blood supply from

A

(1) Perorating branches of the internal mammary artery
(2) Lateral branches of the posterior intercostal arteries; and
(3) Branches from the axillary artery, including the highest thoracic, lateral thoracic, and pectoral branches of the thoracoacromial artery

46
Q

Initiates ductal development

A

Estrogen

47
Q

Responsible or differentiation of epithelium and or lobular development

A

Progesterone

48
Q

Primary hormonal stimulus for lactogenesis in late pregnancy and the postpartum period

A

Prolactin

49
Q

Regulate the release of estrogen

A

Gonadotropins luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

50
Q

Also called recurrent periductal mastitis, is a condition of recurrent retroareolar infections and abscesses

A

Zuska disease

51
Q

Chronic inflammatory condition that originates within the accessory areolar glands of Montgomery or within the axillary sebaceous glands

A

Hidradenitis suppurativa of the nipple-areola complex or axilla

52
Q

A variant of thrombophlebitis that involves the superficial veins of the anterior chest wall and breast

A

Mondor disease

53
Q

Risk actors or the development of breast cancer include

A

Early menarche
Nulliparity
Late menopause
Longer lactation period

  • Increased exposure to estrogen is associated with an increased risk for developing breast cancer, whereas reducing exposure is thought to be protective
  • Factors that increase the number of menstrual cycles, such as early menarche, nulliparity, and late menopause, are associated with increased risk
  • Moderate levels of exercise and a longer lactation period, actors that decrease the total number of menstrual cycles, are protective
54
Q

Postmenopausal women at high risk for breast cancer to receive either

A

Tamoxifen or raloxifene

55
Q

The gold standard against which breast conservation therapy or DCIS is evaluated is

A

Mastectomy
* Women with DCIS and evidence o extensive disease (>4 cm o disease or disease in more than one quadrant) usually require mastectomy
* Adjuvant tamoxifen therapy is considered or DCIS patients with estrogen-receptor (ER)-positive disease

56
Q

Clinical situations where sentinel lymph node (SLN) dissection is not recommended include

A

 Patients with inflammatory breast cancers
 Those with palpable axillary lymphadenopathy and biopsy-proven metastasis
 DCIS without mastectomy
 Prior axillary surgery

57
Q

How many lactiferous ducts drain into the nipple of the mature female breast

A

15-20

58
Q

During pregnancy, alveolar epithelium develops in the breaths which is responsible after delivery for the production of milk. Which part of the alveolar epithelial cell is responsible for the production of the fat present in human milk

A

Cytoplasm

59
Q

Protein component of the milk

A

Endoplasmic reticulum (merocrine secretion)

Lipid component = Cytoplasm (apocrine secretion)

60
Q

The medial mammary artery is a tributary of the

A

2nd, 3rd, and 4th intercostal arteries

61
Q

Absence of the breast (amastia) is associated with

A

Poland syndrome

62
Q

Increased risk of breast cancer in men with

A

Klinefelter’s syndrome

Klinefelter’s syndrome = Gynecomastia
Fleischer’s syndrome = Polymastia

63
Q

The treatment of choice for Zuska’s disease is

A

Antibiotics, incision, and drainage

64
Q

Conditions lead to gynecomastia due to an increased production of estrogen

A

Nontesticular tumors – Adrenal cortical neoplasms, lung carcinoma, hepatocellular carcinoma

65
Q

Conditions lead to gynecomastia due to an decreased in testosterone production

A

 Klinefelter’s syndrome
 Aging
 Renal failure

66
Q

The treatment of choice for Mondor’s disease is

A

Observation and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

67
Q

The appropriate therapy for Paget’s disease of the nipple is

A

Resection

68
Q

Pathognomonic of Paget’s disease of the nipple

A

Presence of large, pale, vacuolated cells (Paget cells) in the rete pegs of the epithelium

69
Q

A 35-year-old woman with a BRAC1 gene mutation seeks your advice about her known increased risk of breast cancer. You should recommend

A

Prophylactic bilateral mastectomy and, if she has completed childbearing, prophylactic bilateral oophorectomy

70
Q

Present screening recommendations for BRCA mutation carriers who do not undergo prophylactic mastectomy include

A

Clinical breast examination every 6 months and mammography every 12 months beginning at age 25 years

71
Q

Appropriate treatment for a 3-cm fibroadenoma

A

Option for treatment include surgical removal, cryoablation, or observation (especially those larger than 2 cm)

72
Q

The average lifetime risk for a woman to develop breast cancer is approximately

A

12%

Aged 50 years = 11% lifetime risk of developing breast cancer
Aged 70 years = 7%

73
Q

Routine mammography in women over 50 years of age decreases mortality from breast cancer by approximately

A

33%

74
Q

Current recommendations are that women undergo baseline mammography at age

A

35

*Annual mammographic screening beginning at age 40

75
Q

The most common genetic cause of breast cancer is a mutation in

A

BRAC2

SURGX (7 decks)

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