Abnormal Psychology Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

refers to the presence of two or more medical conditions or disorders in an individual at the same time

A

Comorbidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Seven year old Henry has been diagnosed as having ADHD and dyslexia. Which of the following terms applies to Henry having both conditions together?

A

Comorbidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Joshua and Tiffany have both been diagnosed with ADHD. Who is more likely to be prescribed medication for the condition.

A

None

*There is not enough research evidence to allow us to predict who would be prescribed medication. It is not mentioned in the question whether Joshua and Tiffany have different severity levels of ADHD or any other factors that could influence the likelihood of being prescribed medication. Therefore, without any additional information, it is not possible to predict who would be more likely to be prescribed medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

According to the usual definition, a child with a learning disability often:

A

Has no apparent handicap.

*According to the usual definition, a child with a learning disability often has no apparent handicap. This means that despite not having any obvious physical or intellectual impairments, the child still struggles with learning and acquiring knowledge. Learning disabilities can manifest in various ways, such as difficulties in reading, writing, or understanding mathematical concepts. These challenges may not be immediately apparent, making it crucial to identify and provide appropriate support to children with learning disabilities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Culture-bound syndromes: excessive fear of embarrassing or offending other people

A

Taijin Kyofusho

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Culture-bound syndromes: Dissociative episode in which an otherwise normal person suddenly goes berserk and strikes out at others, sometimes killing them

A

Amok

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Culture-bound syndromes: Shouting uncontrollably, fits of crying, trembling, feelings of warmth or heat rising from the chest to the head, and aggressive verbal or physical behavior.

A

Ataque de nervios

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Culture-bound syndromes: Involves intense fear or anxiety over the loss of semen through nocturnal emissions, ejaculations, or excretion with urine (india)

A

Dhat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Culture-bound syndromes: China: excessive fear or anxiety (bordering panic) about one’s genitals shrinking and retracting into the body causing death

A

Koro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Culture-bound syndromes: American-Indian, preoccupation with death and with the spirit of the deceased. Bad dreams, feelings of weakness, loss of appetite, fear, anxiety and a sense of foreboding may occur.

A

Ghost Sickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Neurotransmitters pass from neuron to neuron across a gap known as the

A

Synapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Suddenly and involuntarily falling asleep during daytime hours is referred to as

A

Narcolepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which psychological approach provides many of the organizing principles of visual perception?

A

Gestalt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Learned helplessness is a result of what combination of factors?

A

External locus of control and low degree of self-efficacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In drive reduction theory, an individual’s behavior is supposed to bring about

A

homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

It has been many years since Cassie first rode on a roller coaster, yet she continues to have vivid memories of that experience. This might be explained by the proximity of which two parts of the brain?

A

amygdala; hippocampus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Someone who is lacking empathy and, as a result, finds it easy to exploit others would be diagnosed with which personality disorder?

A

Antisocial PD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Martin is cleaning out a closet. There was something he wanted to reach on a top shelf, but he could not reach it and he finally gave up. It never occurred to him to use the hook end of the umbrella in the closet to reach this item. He only considered the umbrella useful for keeping rain off one’s head. Martin’s problem was

A

functional fixedness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The center of emotion in the brain is the

A

Limbic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Events that are very important and that create intense emotions, such as the Kennedy assassination in the 1960’s, the space shuttle Challenger explosion in the 1980’s, or 9/11 in 2001, often produce

A

flashbulb memories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

For the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, commonly abbreviated as DSM-5, the “5” refers to

A

the fifth version of the manual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Mason has sustained a stroke affecting the left side of his brain. While he can understand what is being said to him, he is unable to produce intelligible speech. Mason probably sustained damage to his

A

Broca’s area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In DSM-5, the term for what used to be called “Multiple Personality Disorder,” wherein individuals have two or more distinct personalities, often accompanied by amnesia regarding these transformations, is

A

dissociative identity disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Wanda is in line at the post office. She observes another customer become angry with the postal worker at the window, yelling at him and accusing him of poor service. Wanda assumes that this is because the customer is a jerk. Wanda’s thinking is characteristic of

A

fundamental attribution error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Some individuals come to believe that they have a physical characteristic that is grotesque or offensive to others, even when they are reassured by family and friends that this is not the case. Some of them have repeated plastic surgeries to address this perceived deformity and have been described as having an “addiction” to plastic surgery. There is no such “addiction” listed in DSM-5. In DSM-5, these individuals would probably be diagnosed with

A

Body dysmorphic disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Hans Selye studied animals’ responses to short-term and long-term stressors and he developed the general adaptation syndrome (GAS). The three phases of GAS are

A

alarm, resistance, exhaustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of a major depressive disorder?

A. Not getting enjoyment from activities that used to bring enjoyment

B. Feelings of worthlessness

C. A feeling of great energy and an ability to go without sleep for long periods

D. An inability to concentrate on tasks

E. Alterations in eating habits

A

C. A feeling of great energy and an ability to go without sleep for long periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When a neuron is excited by a chemical messenger, the change in electrical charge that must be reached in order to trigger an action potential is referred to as the

A

threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Loi (11) was apprehended by authorities because she was caught purposefully setting someone’s possession on fire. Upon further assessment, it was discovered that her impulsivity was brought about by her intent to bully, harass, and violate the rights of other people. What is the diagnosis?

Pyromania
Conduct Disorder
Antisocial PD

A

Conduct Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Gigi is a beggar walking along the streets of Manila. There were numerous cases where she was brought to the authorities because people were claiming that she was pretending to be blind in order to receive alms from other people. Upon further checking her recent medical history, it was proven that she does not have any difficulty seeing. What could be present in this scenario?

Malingering
Factitious Disorder
Conduct Disorder
Conversion Disorder

A

Malingering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Upon further assessment, Mil was shown to have significant hypomanic and depressive symptoms that do not meet the criteria for a manic and depressive episode. These symptoms have been causing significant distress and impairment on her end for more than 2 years already. What might be the case in this scenario?

Borderline PD
Dysthymia (Persistent Depressive Disorder)
Cyclothymic Disorder
Other Specified Bipolar Disorder

A

Cyclothymic Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

As a toddler, Gill (9) often experienced significant neglect from her caregivers. Her parents often go out because both are working to meet the needs of the family. She has then started to show signs of indifference towards her caregivers. It was observed that she is having trouble making normal relationship with her attachment figures. These disturbance were already observed before she even reached the age of 5. This is an example of ____

DSED
RAD
ODD

A

RAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Maya (23) has been having trouble finding a suitable job for 2 years. She often hops from one job on to the other because of her fear of being negatively evaluated by others. Her low self-esteem and a negative self-image has contributed to her extreme shyness which has been a pervasive pattern of behavior that kept her from forming valuable and warm relationships with others ever since she was a child. What is your diagnosis?

Generalized Anxiety Disorder
Social Anxiety Disorder
Paranoid PD
Avoidant PD

A

Avoidant PD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Huntington’s: Chromosome 4; Parkinson’s: Chromosome ________

18
6
14

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Tio has an opioid addiction. To overcome his drug dependency he was given methadone, an _________ which has a similar makeup to an opioid but less dangerous. He was given with such medication until he is able to function properly without using the drug and has a complete recovery without withdrawal symptoms.

Antagonist
Aversive
Agonist
Antabuse

A

Agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Makie (7) is showing signs of problems in social communication and interaction. She often behaves in a manner that is inappropriate for the social context. She is also often unable to pick-up verbal and nonverbal cues which often led to her being unable to properly relate to kids her age. She has no known problems when it comes to cognitive nor language ability. No restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior were observed with her. This might be a case of _________

Social Pragmatic Communication Disorder
Autism Spectrum Disorder
Childhood-Onset Fluency Disorder
Communication Disorder

A

Social Pragmatic Communication Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Ili has been eating small beads for quite some time already. She was discovered to have an intense fear of gaining weight. She was also undergoing intense exercise to loose weight. Just two days ago, she was hospitalized because her body as been losing a significant amount of weight. This is an example of ___________

Pica Disorder
Restrictive Food Intake Disorder
Anorexia Nervosa
Bulimia Nervosa

A

Anorexia Nervosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

This system helps regulate our emotional experiences and expressions and, to some extent, our ability to learn and to con- trol our impulses. It is also involved with the basic drives of sex, aggression, hunger, and thirst.

A

Limbic sysmtem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The ____ regulates many automatic activities, such as breathing, the pumping action of the heart (heartbeat), and digestion.

A

Hindbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A man was brought into the clinic because he is facing legal charges for he was caught masturbating while watching an unsuspecting person while they were taking a bath from afar. It was discovered that he was doing it ever since he was a child. While the man was remorseful for his actions, he has not shown any significant distress or impairment on his end. The clinician mentioned in their report that the man did not met the criteria for the diagnosis of Voyeuristic Disorder. Is their decision correct?

a. Yes, because the diagnosis should’ve been Exhibitionistic Disorder.

b. Yes, because the man has not shown significant distress or impairment which is a criteria for Voyeuristic Disorder

c. No, because the man has been showing the symptoms ever since he was a child which is well-beyond the 6-month criteria for paraphilic disorders.

d. No, because the man has shown remorse which is enough to diagnose him with Voyeuristic Disorder

A

b. Yes, because the man has not shown significant distress or impairment which is a criteria for Voyeuristic Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Thinking seriously about suicide

A

Suicidal ideation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Formulation of specific method for killing oneself

A

Suicide plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The person survives self- injures with the intent to die

A

Suicide attempt - attempters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The person survive from self-injured but doesn’t have intent to die; communicate a cry for help

A

Suicide attempt- gesturer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Emile durkeim: formalized suicide; out of duty/ sacrifice. Example, People who commit suicide due to the reason of brought dishonor to the family. The sacrifice of one’s life in order to save or benefit others, for the good of the group, or to preserve the traditions and honor of a society. It is always intentional.

A

Altruistic suicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Chromosome 21

A

Down syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Deficiency in the amount or content of speech , a disturbance often seen in people with schizophrenia.

A

Alogia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Inability to experience pleasure, associated with some mood and schizophrenic disorders.

A

Anhedonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Part of the brain that responsible for emotion

A

Amygdala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The _____ helps manage your body temperature, hunger and thirst, mood, sex drive, blood pressure and sleep. .Keep your body in a stable state called homeostasis.

A

Hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Hindbrain contains the ff:

A

Medula
Pons
Cerebellum (motor coordination)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

This disorder is characterized by disturbed sleep (either insomnia or excessive sleepiness during the day) brought on by the brain’s inability to synchronize its sleep patterns with the current patterns of day and night. At least 1 month but less than 3 months. “Spring ahead; fall back”

A

Carcadian rhythm sleep disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Happens when a person is socially separated from other people and feel they have no place among other people or the society; thus, the decision to commit suicide. In this case, the suicide is self-centered because the person lacks feelings due to a lack of interaction with the society.

A

Egoistic Suicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

A form of self-harm in which someone mimics the act of suicide without the intent to kill themselves

A

Parasuicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

one of four types of suicide proposed in 1897 by Émile Durkheim, involving the perception that one’s relationship to society has changed so radically that its values and norms are no longer personally relevant. Ex. Loss of high prestige job.

A

Anomic Suicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Occurs when a person is excessively regulated, when their futures are pitilessly blocked and passions violently choked by oppressive discipline. It is the opposite of anomic suicide, and occurs in societies so oppressive their inhabitants would rather die than live on. Loss control over one’s own destiny. Ex. Athletes who got injured and couldn’t play anymore.

A

Fatalistic Suicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Number of people displaying a disorder in the total population at any given time

A

prevalence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Number of new cases of a disorder appearing during a specific period

A

incidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Cause or source of a disorder

A

etiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Obsessional thinking involving excessive, repetitive thoughts or themes that interfere with other forms of mental activity. It is a common feature of obsessive-compulsive disorder and generalized anxiety disorder.

A

Rumination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Refers to a person’s ability to withstand stress without becoming seriously impaired

A

Stress Tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Social Learning Theory

A

Albert Bandura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Psychotic disorder featuring symptoms of both schizophrenia and major mood disorder.

A

schizoaffective disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Motor movement disturbance seen in people with some psychoses and mood disorders in which body postures are waxy and can be “sculpted” to remain fixed for long periods.

A

catalepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

a person who demonstrates exceptional, usually isolated, cognitive abilities, such as rapid calculation, identifying the day of the week for any given date, or musical talent, especially in an individual with a mental or neurodevelopmental disorder, such as intellectual developmental disorder or autism spectrum disorder.

A

Savant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Disturbance of motor behavior in which the person remains motionless, sometimes in an awkward posture, for extended periods.

A

catatonic immobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Disorder of movement involving immobility or excited agitation. Sometimes accompanies psychotic disorders or mood disorders.

A

Catatonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Psychotic disorder involving the symptoms of schizophrenia but lasting less than 6 months.

A

schizophreniform disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Devastating psychotic disorder that may involve characteristic disturbances in thinking (delusions), perception (hallucinations), speech, emotions, and behavior.

A

schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Sexual disorder in which the client finds it difficult to function adequately while having sex

A

sexual dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Psychotic disturbance in which individuals develop a delusion similar to that of a person with whom they share a close relationship.

A

shared psychotic disorder (folie à deux)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

involved in processing of information and coordination of movement, as well as inhibition and restraint. It also assists in the regulation of eating, sexual, and aggressive behaviors, all of which may be involved in different psychological disorders. Its interaction with dopamine is implicated in
schizophrenia.

A

serotonin Neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

(previously known as somatization disorder) Disorder involving extreme and long-lasting focus on multiple physical symptoms for which no medical cause is evident

A

somatic symptom disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by academic performance that is substantially below what would
be expected given the person’s age, intelligence quotient (IQ) score, and education.

A

specific learning disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Unreasonable fear of a specific object or situation that markedly interferes with daily life functioning.

A

specific phobia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Disorder involving brief periods when breathing ceases during sleep

A

sleep apnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Contemporary version of psychoanalysis that still emphasizes unconscious processes and conflicts but is briefer and more focused on specific problems

A

psychodynamic psychotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Cognitive-behavioral intervention to reduce unwanted behaviors by having clients imagine the extremely aversive consequences of the behaviors and establish negative rather than positive associations with them.

A

covert sensitization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

the false attribution to the self of great ability, knowledge, importance or worth, identity, prestige, power, accomplishment, or the like.

A

Delusion of grandeur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

the false conviction that the actions of others and events occurring in the external world have some special meaning or significance (typically negative) in relation to oneself.

A

Delusion of reference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

the false conviction that others are threatening or conspiring against one

A

Delusion of persecution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Traditional cut-off in diagnosing intellectual disability

A

IQ score below 70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

DSM-5 sets four intellectual disability severity levels:

A

mild, moderate, severe, and profound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

The ff are hyperactivity/impulsivity symptoms of ADHD except:

Forgetfulness
Fidgeting
Has difficulty waiting for one’s turn
Blurts out answer before the question is complete

A

Forgetfulness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

A nucleus within the basal ganglia involved in learning and memory that is implicated in body dysmorphic disorder and obsessive-compulsive disorder.

A

caudate nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Which neurotransmitter is reduced in both the manic and depressive phases of bipolar disorder?

A

Serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

A neurotransmitter of the central nervous system whose disturbances apparently figure in depression.

A

serotonin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

A genetic deficiency in a liver enzyme, phenylalanine hydroxylase, that causes severe intellectual disability unless phenylalanine can be largely restricted from the diet.

A

phenylketonuria (PKU).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

A DSM-5 disorder defined by depressive
symptoms that last at least 2 years.

A

persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

a therapy approach that focuses on managing irrational or unhealthy thoughts, emotions, and behaviors.

A

Rational emotive behavior therapy (REBT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

A drug useful in treating both mania and depression in bipolar disorder

A

lithium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Memory that underlies
behavior but is based on experiences that cannot be consciously recalled; typically not compromised in cases of dissociative amnesia. Compare explicit memory.

A

implicit memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

A disorder defined by excessive concern and help-seeking abouthealth concerns in the absence of major physical symptoms

A

illness anxiety disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Involves being unable to recall a specific event or events or a specific period of time.

A

Localized amnesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

In IAD, physical symptoms are:

A

mild or not present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

formal thought disorder is also known ;

A

Disorganized speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Central nervous system neurotransmitter, a catecholamine that is also a precursor of norepinephrine and apparently figures
in schizophrenia and Parkinson’s disease.

A

dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

A rare
dissociative disorder (formerly called multiple
personality disorder, or MPD) in which two or
more distinct and separate personalities are
present within the same individual, each with
his or her own memories, relationships, and
behavior patterns, with only one of them dominant at any given time.

A

dissociative identity disorder (DID)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

A DSM-5 disorder defined by severe temper outbursts and observably irritable mood between outbursts in youth older than age 6.

A

disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

A method for reducing the biasing effects of the expectations of research participant and experimenter; neither is allowed to know whether the independent variable of the experiment is being applied to the participant

A

double-blind procedure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

As applied by Masters and Johnson, the second stage of the sexual response cycle, characterized by pleasure associated with increased blood flow to the genitalia.

A

excitement phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

A form of intellectual disability caused by a third copy of chromosome 21; involves an IQ score usually lower than 50 as well as distinctive physical characteristics.

A

Down syndrome (trisomy 21)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

A phenomenon in which individuals exhibiting psychotic symptoms fall to the bottom of the social ladder or even become homeless because they cannot hold down a job or sustain a relationship Incorrect.

A

Downward Drift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

sociological concept purporting to explain the higher incidence of schizophrenia in urban poverty centers, suggesting that during the preclinical phase people tend to drift into poverty and social isolation. Also called downward drift hypothesis.

A

Downward Drift Hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

produced or determined by society or social forces.

A

sociogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

schizophrenia posits that stressful social conditions, such as living in impoverished circumstances, are major contributors to and causal agents of the disorder.

A

sociogenic hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

The most widely used and accepted
treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder, in
which the suff erer is prevented from engaging in
compulsive ritual activity and instead faces the
anxiety provoked by the stimulus, leading eventually to extinction of the conditioned response
(anxiety).

A

exposure and response prevention
(ERP). T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Disorder in which the
individual’s physical or psychological symptoms appear under voluntary control and are
adopted merely to assume the role of a sick
person; called factitious disorder by proxy or
Munchausen syndrome when a parent produces
a physical illness in a child.

A

factitious disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

With impairment in reading

A

dyslexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

With impairment in mathematics

A

dyscalculia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

With impairment in written expression

A

dysgraphia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Is a process that strengthens the likelihood of a particular response by adding a stimulus after the behavior is performed.

A

Positive reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Strengthens the likelihood of a particular response, but by removing an undesirable consequence.

A

Negative reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

allowing a child to play on their tablet if they finish their homework is an example of positive reinforcement, is what reinforcement?

A

Positive reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

A child finishing their homework to avoid having their tablet taken, is what kind of reinforcement?

A

Negative Reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Behavioral deficits in schizophrenia, which include flat affect, anhedonia, asociality, alogia, and avolition.

A

negative symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

A short-lived anxiety reaction to a traumatic event, at least 2 days, if it lasts more than a month, it is diagnosed as posttraumatic stress disorder.

A

acute stress disorder (ASD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Anxiety disorder in which the
person fears situations in which it would be
embarrassing or diff icult to escape if panic
symptoms occurred; most commonly diagnosed in some individuals with panic disorder.

A

agoraphobia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

A negative symptom in schizophrenia,
marked by diminished speaking

A

alogia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

A dementia involving a progressive atrophy of cortical tissue and marked by memory impairment, intellectual deterioration, and loss of motivation.

A

Alzheimer’s disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

A group of stimulating drugs that produce heightened levels of energy and, in large doses, nervousness, sleeplessness, and paranoid delusions

A

amphetamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Any of the various forms of a particular
gene

A

Allele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

A subcortical structure of the temporal lobe involved in attention to emotionally
salient stimuli and memory of emotionally
relevant events.

A

amygdala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

A negative symptom in schizophrenia or a symptom in depression in which the individual experiences a loss of interest and pleasure.

A

anhedonia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

A disorder in which a person restricts food that results in extreme weight loss, fears gaining weight, and has a distorted body image.

at least 3 months, adolescence

A

anorexia nervosa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

A drug that makes the drinking of alcohol produce nausea and other unpleasant effects

A

Antabuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Expected or anticipated pleasure for events, people, or activities in the future.

A

anticipatory pleasure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Any drug that alleviates depression; also widely used to treat anxiety disorders.

A

antidepressant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Psychoactive drugs, such as thorazine or olanzapine, that reduce psychotic symptoms but have long-term side effects resembling symptoms of neurological diseases.

A

antipsychotic drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Personality disorder defined by the absence of concern for others’ feelings or social norms and a
pervasive pattern of rule breaking.

*Onset: age at least 18 yrs old
*Comorbid history of conduct disorder before age 15
*at least 3 symptoms of Law breaking, lying/ deceitfulness, impulsivity, irritability, lack of remorse, reckless disregard for own safety and others

A

Antisocial PD (Cluster B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

An unpleasant feeling of fear and
apprehension accompanied by increased physiological arousal. Anxiety can be assessed by
self-report, by measuring physiological arousal,
and by observing overt behavior

A

anxiety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Disorders in which fear or anxiety is overriding and the primary disturbance; include phobic disorders, social anxiety disorder, panic disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, and agoraphobia.

A

anxiety disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Minor tranquilizers or benzodiazepines used to treat anxiety disorders

A

anxiolytics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

A negative symptom of schizophrenia marked by an inability to form close relationships and to feel intimacy.

A

asociality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

The type or style of an infant’s attachment to his or her caregivers can set the stage for psychological health or problems later in development.

A

attachment theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

A disorder in children marked by difficulties in focusing adaptively on the task at hand, inappropriate fidgeting and antisocial behavior, and excessive non-goal-directed behavior

A

attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
(ADHD).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Trait-like tendencies to make a certain type of attribution for life events.

A

attributional style.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

The explanation a person has for why an event or behavior has occurred.

A

attribution

139
Q

A disorder beginning in childhood that involves deficits in social communication and social interactions, restricted and repetitive behaviors, and in some cases severe deficits in speech. DSM-5 combined Asperger’s disorder, pervasive developmental disorder not otherwise specified, and childhood disintegrative disorder into the category of autism spectrum disorder

-onset in early childhood

A

autism spectrum disorder

140
Q

Personality disorder defined by aloofness and extreme sensitivity to potential rejection, despite an intense desire for affiliation and affection.

onset is early adulthood
At least 4 or more symptoms of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to criticism, restrained in intimate relationship, preoccupied of being criticized.

A

avoidant personality disorder (cluster C)

141
Q

A negative symptom in schizophrenia in which the individual lacks interest and drive.

A

avolition

142
Q

Clinical approach to depression that seeks to increase participation in positively reinforcing activities.

A

behavioral activation (BA) therapy

143
Q

The school of psychology originally associated with John B. Watson, who proposed that observable behavior, not consciousness, is the proper subject matter of psychology. Contemporary behaviorists do use mediational concepts, provided they are firmly anchored to observables

A

behaviorism

144
Q

Any of several drugs commonly used to treat anxiety, such as Valium and Xanax

A

benzodiazepines

145
Q

A personality inventory that assesses the five broad domains of personality: openness, conscientiousness, agreeableness, extraversion, and neuroticism.

A

Big Five Inventory-2 (BFI-2)

146
Q

Included as a disorder in DSM-5; includes recurrent episodes of unrestrained eating.

(one time per week for at least 3 months)
absence of compensatory behaviors

A

binge eating disorder

147
Q

the likely course of a disease

A

prognosis

148
Q

A diagnosis defined on the basis of at least one lifetime episode of mania. Most people with this disorder also experience episodes of major depression.

*Symptoms last 1 week,
*require hospitalization, or include psychosis
* adolescence or early 20s

A

bipolar I disorder

(formerly known as manic-depressive
disorder)

149
Q

A form of bipolar disorder, diagnosed in those who have experienced at least one major depressive episode and at least one episode of hypomania.

  • Symptoms last at least 4 days
  • No psychotic symptoms are present
  • adolescence or early 20s
A

bipolar II disorder

150
Q

A form of bipolar disorder characterized by swings between elation and depression over at least a 2-year period, but with moods not so severe as manic or major depressive episodes.

A

cyclothymic disorder

151
Q

A negative symptom of schizophrenia that involves a lack of outward expression of emotion.

A

blunted affect

152
Q

A disorder marked by preoccupation with an imagined or exaggerated defect in appearance—for example, facial wrinkles or excess facial or body hair. Typically begins in adolescence

A

body dysmorphic disorder (BDD)

Specifier: w/ good or fair insight (not true)
w/ poor insight (probably true)
w/ absent insight/ delusional
(completely convinced)
w/ muscle Dsymorphia
(belief that his body is small)

153
Q

Performance of repetitive behaviors or mental acts (e.g., mirror checking, seeking reassurance, or excessive grooming) in response to the appearance concerns

A

body dysmorphic disorder (BDD)

154
Q

Previously known as “Dsymorphia”

A

body dysmorphic disorder (BDD)

155
Q

Personality disorder defined by impulsiveness and unpredictability, an uncertain self-image, intense and unstable social relationships, and extreme swings of mood.

A

borderline personality disorder (cluster B)

156
Q

It is very common in clinical settings, very hard to treat, and associated with recurrent periods of
suicidality

A

borderline personality disorder

157
Q

Presence of five or more of the following signs of instability in relationships, self-image, and impulsivity from early adulthood.

A

borderline personality disorder

158
Q

A disorder in which a person has a sudden onset of psychotic symptoms—incoherence, loose associations, delusions, hallucinations—immediately after a severely disturbing event; the symptoms last more than 1 day but no more than 1 month.

A

brief psychotic disorder

159
Q

A disorder characterized by episodic, uncontrollable eating binges followed by purging either by vomiting or by taking laxatives.

The episodes of bingeing and compensatory behavior occur at least once a week for 3 months.

A

bulimia nervosa

160
Q

The key difference between anorexia and bulimia is_______

A

weight loss.

161
Q

Perhaps the world’s most popular drug; a generalized stimulant of body systems, including the sympathetic nervous system. Though seldom viewed as a drug, caffeine is addictive, produces tolerance, and induces withdrawal symptoms in habitual users upon cessation of use.

A

caffeine.

162
Q

The collection of historical or biographical information on a single individual, often including experiences in therapy.

A

case study

163
Q

Constellation of schizophrenia symptoms including repetitive, peculiar, complex gestures and, in some cases, an almost manic increase in overall activity level. It can also manifest itself as immobility, with a fixity of posture maintained for long periods, with accompanying muscular rigidity, trancelike state of consciousness, and waxy flexibility

A

catatonia

164
Q

A therapeutic procedure to relieve emotional suffering introduced by Breuer and developed further by Freud in the late nineteenth century, whereby a patient recalls and relives an earlier emotional catastrophe and reexperiences the tension and unhappiness.

A

cathartic method.

165
Q

A pain-reducing, stimulating, and addictive alkaloid obtained from coca leaves that can increase attention, produce euphoria, heighten sexual desire, and in large doses cause paranoia and hallucinations.

A

cocaine

166
Q

The process of knowing; the thinking, judging, reasoning, and planning activities of the human mind. Behavior is now often explained as depending on these processes.

A

cognition

167
Q

Behavior therapy that incorporates theory and research on cognitive processes such as thoughts, perceptions, judgments, self statements, and tacit assumptions; a blend of both the cognitive and behavioral paradigms.

A

cognitive behavior therapy (CBT)

168
Q

The consequences of having
been born in a given year and having grown up
during a particular time period with characteristic pressures, problems, challenges, and opportunities

A

cohort effects

169
Q

The irresistible impulse to repeat
an irrational act or thought over and over

A

compulsion.

170
Q

Pleasure experienced in the moment or in the presence of
a pleasurable stimulus

A

consummatory pleasure.

171
Q

A disorder in which sensory or motor function is impaired, even though
there is no detectable neurological explanation
for the deficits

A

conversion disorder

172
Q

In _____, the person suddenly develops neurological symptoms, such as blindness, seizures, or paralysis. The symptoms suggest an illness related to neurological damage,
but medical tests indicate that the bodily organs and nervous system are fine.

One or more symptoms affecting voluntary motor or sensory function.

A

conversion disorder

173
Q

Functional Neurological symptom Disorder is also known as___

A

conversion disorder

174
Q

loss of the voice other than whispered speech (conversion disorder)

A

Aphonia

175
Q

A “stress hormone” secreted by the
adrenal cortices; helps the body prepare to face
threats.

A

cortisol

176
Q

A form of bipolar disorder characterized by swings between elation
and depression over at least a 2-year period,
but with moods not so severe as manic or major
depressive episodes.

A

cyclothymic disorder

177
Q

In psychoanalytic theory, reality-distorting strategies unconsciously
adopted to protect the ego from anxiety.

A

defense mechanisms.

178
Q

A disorder in men
involving persistent delay in reaching orgasm or
inability to reach orgasm

A

delayed ejaculation

179
Q

A state of great mental confusion
in which consciousness is clouded, attention
cannot be sustained, and the stream of thought
and speech is incoherent. The person is probably disoriented; emotionally erratic; restless or
lethargic; and oft en has illusions, delusions, and
hallucinations.

A

delirium.

180
Q

One of the withdrawal symptoms that sometimes occurs when
a period of heavy alcohol consumption is terminated; marked by fever, sweating, trembling,
cognitive impairment, and hallucinations

A

delirium tremens (DTs)

181
Q

A disorder in which the
individual has persistent delusions and is very
often contentious but has no disorganized
thinking or hallucinations

A

delusional disorder

182
Q

Beliefs contrary to reality, firmly held
despite evidence to the contrary and common in
paranoid disorders: of control, belief that one is
being manipulated by some external force such as
radar, TV, or a creature from outer space; of grandeur, belief that one is an especially important or
powerful person; of persecution, belief that one is
being plotted against or oppressed by others.

A

delusions.

183
Q

Deterioration of cognitive abilities,
such as memory, judgment, abstract thought,
control of impulses, intellectual ability, that
impairs functioning

A

dementia

184
Q

Form of
dementia that oft en co-occurs with Parkinson’s
disease; characterized by shuff ling gait, memory loss, and hallucinations and delusions

A

dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB)

185
Q

As applied in psychopathology, a view that assumes that individuals
predisposed toward a particular psychological
disorder will be particularly aff ected by stress
and will then manifest abnormal behavior.

A

diathesis–stress

186
Q

Predisposition toward a disorder.

A

diathesis

187
Q

A therapeutic approach to borderline personality disorder that combines client-centered empathy and
acceptance with behavioral problem solving,
social skills training, and limit setting

A

dialectical behavior therapy (DBT)

188
Q

The determination that the set of
symptoms or problems of a patient indicates a
particular disorder

A

diagnosis

189
Q

The
field that studies disorders of childhood
within the context of normal development
over the life span

A

developmental psychopathology.

190
Q

The initial stage in weaning an addicted person from a drug; involves
medical supervision of the sometimes painful
withdrawal.

A

detoxification

191
Q

The first stage of the sexual
response cycle, characterized by sexual interest
or desire, oft en associated with sexually arousing fantasies

A

desire phase

192
Q

Loss of the sense that the
surroundings are real; present in several psychological disorders, such as panic disorder,
depersonalization disorder, and schizophrenia

A

derealization.

193
Q

Experiences of extreme psychological detachment from surroundings.

A

Derealization.

194
Q

A DSM-5 disorder defined by the sustained presence of depersonalization (detachment from
sense of self) or derealization (detachment from
the sense of reality).

Unlike the other dissociative
disorders, this disorder involves no disturbance of memory

A

depersonalization/derealization disorder

195
Q

An alteration in perception of the self in which the individual loses a
sense of reality and feels estranged from the
self and perhaps separated from the body; may
be a temporary reaction to stress and fatigue or
part of panic disorder, depersonalization disorder, or schizophrenia.

A

depersonalization.

196
Q

A personality disorder in which people are overly
concerned about maintaining relationships. People with this disorder oft en allow others to make
decisions for them and are reluctant to make
demands that could challenge relationships.

The core feature is an excessive reliance on others

At least five symptoms

A

dependent personality disorder

197
Q

Symptom of schizophrenia that is marked by odd behaviors that
do not appear organized, such as bouts of agitation; unusual dress; or childlike, silly behavior.

A

disorganized behavior.

198
Q

Speech found in schizophrenia patients that is marked by poorly
organized ideas and speech that is diff icult for
others to understand; also known as formal
thought disorder

A

disorganized speech

199
Q

A state of mental confusion
with respect to time; place; and identity of self,
other persons, and objects

A

disorientation

200
Q

A
DSM-5 disorder defined by severe temper outbursts and observably irritable mood between
outbursts in youth older than age 6.

A

disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

201
Q

A symptom in which some
aspect of emotion, memory, or experience is
inaccessible consciously

A

dissociation

202
Q

A dissociative disorder
in which the person suddenly becomes unable
to recall important personal information to an
extent that cannot be explained by ordinary forgetfulness

A

dissociative amnesia.

203
Q

Disorders in which
the normal integration of consciousness, memory, or identity is suddenly and temporarily
altered; include dissociative amnesia, dissociative identity disorder (multiple personality),
and depersonalization/derealization disorder.

A

dissociative disorders.

204
Q

A rare
dissociative disorder (formerly called multiple
personality disorder, or MPD) in which two or
more distinct and separate personalities are
present within the same individual, each with
his or her own memories, relationships, and
behavior patterns, with only one of them dominant at any given time

A

dissociative identity disorder (DID).

205
Q

Birth partners who
developed from separate fertilized eggs and
who are only 50 percent alike genetically, just
as siblings born from diff erent pregnancies
involving the same father; also called fraternal
twins.

A

dizygotic (DZ) twins.

206
Q

Lack of conscious access to memory, typically of a
stressful experience. The fugue subtype
involves traveling or wandering coupled with loss
of memory of one’s identity or past

A

Dissociative amnesia

207
Q

involves a disconcerting and
disruptive sense of detachment from one’s self or surroundings.

A

depersonalization/derealization disorder

208
Q

A form of
intellectual disability caused by a third copy of
chromosome 21; involves an IQ score usually
lower than 50 as well as distinctive physical
characteristics.

A

Down syndrome (trisomy 21)

209
Q

A treatment that produces a convulsion by passing
electric current through the brain; despite public concerns about this treatment, it can be useful in alleviating profound depression.

A

electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).

210
Q

. The expression, experience, and
physiology that guide responses to problems
and challenges in the environment.

A

emotion.

211
Q

The study of the frequency
and distribution of illness in a population.

A

epidemiology

212
Q

The study of changes in gene
expression that are caused by something other
than changes in the DNA (gene) sequence or
structure, such as DNA methylation.

A

epigenetics

213
Q

A disorder involving
recurrent and persistent inability to attain an erection or maintain it until completion of
sexual activity.

A

erectile disorder

214
Q

As applied by Masters
and Johnson, the second stage of the sexual
response cycle, characterized by pleasure
associated with increased blood flow to the
genitalia.

A

excitement phase.

215
Q

Marked preference
for obtaining sexual gratification by exposing
one’s genitals to an unwilling observer.

A

exhibitionistic disorder

216
Q

Memory involving the conscious recall of experiences; the area of deficits
typically seen in dissociative amnesia.

A

explicit memory

217
Q

The most widely used and accepted
treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder, in
which the suff erer is prevented from engaging in
compulsive ritual activity and instead faces the
anxiety provoked by the stimulus, leading eventually to extinction of the conditioned response
(anxiety).

A

exposure and response prevention
(ERP)

218
Q

Disorder in which the
individual’s physical or psychological symptoms appear under voluntary control and are
adopted merely to assume the role of a sick
person; called factitious disorder by proxy or
Munchausen syndrome when a parent produces
a physical illness in a child.

A

factitious disorder.

219
Q

Childhood disorders characterized by outward-directed
behaviors, such as aggressiveness, noncompliance, excessive activity, and impulsiveness; the category includes attention-deficit/
hyperactivity disorder, conduct disorder, and
oppositional defiant disorder

A

externalizing disorders

220
Q

Subtypes of Factitious Disorder: called ______ the person presents himself or herself to others as ill, impaired, and ____________ injured when a parent produces a physical illness in a child.

A

Factitious Disorder Imposed on Self
Munchausen syndrome

221
Q

A reaction to real or perceived immediate danger in the present; can involve arousal, or sympathetic nervous system activity.

A

fear

222
Q

A cognitive model
for the etiology of agoraphobia; suggests the
condition is driven by negative thoughts about
the consequences of having a panic attack in
public

A

fear-of-fear hypothesis

223
Q

A recurrent and
persistent delay or absence of orgasm in a
woman during sexual activity adequate in focus,
intensity, and duration; in many instances the
woman may experience considerable sexual
excitement.

A

female orgasmic disorder.

224
Q

A
DSM disorder defined by prolonged absence of
sexual desire, subjective arousal, or biological
arousal

A

female sexual interest/arousal disorder

225
Q

A paraphilic disorder
that involves reliance on an inanimate object for
sexual arousal, to an extent that causes distress
or social diff iculties.

A

fetishistic disorder

226
Q

An unpredictable recurrence of
experiences from an earlier drug high.

A

flashback.

227
Q

A symptom of mania that
involves a rapid shift in conversation from one
subject to another with only superficial associative connections.

A

flight of ideas

228
Q

Malformation (or even
breakage) of the X chromosome, associated with
intellectual disability; symptoms include large,
underdeveloped ears; a long, thin face; a broad
nasal root; enlarged testicles in males; and, in
many cases, attention deficits and hyperactivity

A

fragile X syndrome.

229
Q

A disorder in which
the person gains sexual gratification by sexually touching of an unsuspecting person,
typically in public places that provide an easy
means of escape.

A

frotteuristic disorder

230
Q

Subtype of dissociative
amnesia disorder in which the person experiences total amnesia, moves, and establishes a
new identity.

A

fugue subtype

231
Q

Inhibitory neurotransmitter that may be involved in
the anxiety disorders.

A

gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

232
Q

Disorder characterized by chronic, persistent anxiety
and worry.

A

generalized anxiety disorder (GAD).

233
Q

A
disorder in which the woman persistently experiences pain or vaginal muscle spasms when
intercourse is attempted.

A

genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder

234
Q

Found in paranoid
schizophrenia, delusional disorder, and mania,
an exaggerated sense of one’s importance,
power, knowledge, or identity.

A

grandiose delusions.

235
Q

In the subcortical region of
the brain, the structure that regulates many
visceral processes, including metabolism, temperature, perspiration, blood pressure, sleeping, and appetite

A

hypothalamus

236
Q

An extremely happy or irritable mood accompanied by symptoms such as
increased energy and decreased need for sleep,
but without the significant functional impairment associated with mania.

A

hypomania.

237
Q

An opiate combined with other
drugs such as acetaminophen to produce prescription pain medications, including the commonly abused drug Vicodin.

A

hydrocodone.

238
Q

The neuroendocrine connections
among hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and
adrenal cortex, central to the body’s response
to stress.

A

HPA axis

239
Q

A disorder in which
the person has a compulsive need to acquire
objects and extreme diff iculty in disposing of
those objects

A

hoarding disorder.

240
Q

Cognitive theory
of depression that began with learned helplessness theory, was modified to incorporate
attributions, and has been modified again to
emphasize hopelessness—an expectation that
desirable outcomes will not occur and that no
available responses can change the situation.

A

hopelessness theory.

241
Q

A personality disorder defined by overly dramatic behavior, emotional excess, and sexually provocative
behavior.

A

histrionic personality disorder

242
Q

In the subcortical region of the
brain, the long, tubelike structure that stretches
from the septal area into the temporal lobe.

A

hippocampus

243
Q

A research technique
involving the intensive examination of people,
such as the off spring of people with schizophrenia, who have a high probability of later developing a disorder

A

high-risk method

244
Q

An extremely addictive narcotic drug
derived from morphine

A

heroin.

245
Q

A drug or chemical, such as
LSD, psilocybin, or mescaline, whose eff ects
include hallucinations; oft en called a psychedelic.

A

hallucinogen.

246
Q

Perceptions in any sensory
modality without relevant and adequate external stimuli.

A

hallucinations.

247
Q

Delusional thinking that
reads personal significance into seemingly
trivial remarks or activities of others and completely unrelated events

A

ideas of reference.

248
Q

A disorder defined
by excessive concern and help-seeking about
health concerns in the absence of major physical symptoms.

A

illness anxiety disorder

249
Q

Treatment for anxiety
disorders that involves visualizing feared scenes
for extended periods of time. Frequently used in
the treatment of posttraumatic stress disorder
when in vivo exposure to the initial trauma cannot be conducted.

A

imaginal exposure

250
Q

Childhood disorders characterized by inward-focused experiences and behaviors, such as depression, social
withdrawal, and anxiety; the category includes
childhood anxiety and mood disorders.

A

internalizing disorders.

251
Q

Classical conditioning of panic attacks in response to internal
bodily sensations of arousal (as opposed to the
external situations that trigger anxiety).

A

interoceptive conditioning

252
Q

A disorder identified
in early childhood characterized by belowaverage intellectual functioning associated
with impairment in adaptive behavior

A

intellectual disability.

253
Q

A shortterm, here-and-now focused psychological
treatment initially developed for depression
and influenced by the psychodynamic emphasis
on relationships.

A

interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT).

254
Q

A disorder of individuals who have experienced
episodes of depression but not of mania.
Depression episodes are marked by sadness
or loss of pleasure, accompanied by symptoms
such as feelings of worthlessness and guilt;
withdrawal from others; loss of sleep, appetite,
or sexual desire; and either lethargy or agitation.

A

major depressive disorder (MDD).

255
Q

A
sexual dysfunction disorder defined by persistent absence of or deficiency in sexual fantasies
and urges in men; for women,

A

male hypoactive sexual desire disorder.

256
Q

Faking a physical or psychological incapacity to avoid a responsibility or gain
an end, where the goal is readily recognized
from the individual’s circumstances; distinct
from conversion disorder, in which the incapacity is assumed to be beyond voluntary control.

A

malingering

257
Q

Intense elation or irritability, accompanied by symptoms such as excessive talkativeness, rapid thoughts, distractibility, grandiose
plans, heightened activity, and insensitivity to the
negative consequences of actions.

A

mania.

258
Q

A drug derived from the dried and
ground leaves and stems of the female hemp
plant Cannabis sativa

A

marijuana.

259
Q

Methylenedioxymethamphetamine, a
chemical component of Ecstasy; initially used as
an appetite suppressant for World War I soldiers
and derived from precursors found in nutmeg,
dill, saff ron, and sassafras.

A

MDMA.

260
Q

An approach to suicide
prevention in which access to lethal methods is
reduced. Examples include keeping guns locked
in cabinets, reducing the unrestricted sale of
poisons, and erecting suicide barriers on bridges.

A

means restriction.

261
Q

A therapeutic regimen,
introduced by Philippe Pinel during the French
Revolution, whereby mentally ill patients were
released from their restraints and were treated
with compassion and dignity rather than with
contempt and denigration.

A

moral treatment.

262
Q

Personality disorder defined by extreme selfishness
and self-centeredness; a grandiose view of
one’s uniqueness, achievements, and talents; an insatiable craving for admiration and
approval from others; willingness to exploit
others to achieve goals; and expectation of
much more from others than one is willing to
give in return.

A

narcissistic personality disorder.

263
Q

A catecholamine neurotransmitter, disturbances of which have been
related to mania, depression, and particularly
to anxiety disorders. It is also a sympathetic
nervous system neurotransmitter, a hormone
released in addition to epinephrine and similar
in action, and a strong vasoconstrictor.

A

norepinephrine

264
Q

The principal alkaloid of tobacco (an
addicting agent).

A

nicotine.

265
Q

Chemical substances
important in transferring a nerve impulse from
one neuron to another, for example, serotonin
and norepinephrine.

A

neurotransmitters

266
Q

In Beck’s theory of depression, a person’s negative views of the self, the
world, and the future, in a reciprocal causal
relationship with pessimistic assumptions
(schemas) and cognitive biases such as selective abstraction.

A

negative triad.

267
Q

An
anxiety disorder involving persistent and
uncontrollable thoughts or the performance of
certain acts again and again, causing significant
distress and interference with everyday functioning.

A

obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD).

268
Q

Personality disorder defined by inordinate diff iculty with making decisions, extreme concern
with details and eff iciency, and poor relations
with others due to demands that things be done
just so, as well as the person’s unduly conventional, serious, formal, and stingy emotions

A

obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.

269
Q

The third stage of the sexual
response cycle, characterized by a peak of sexual pleasure, generally including ejaculation in
men and contraction of the outer vaginal walls
in women.

A

orgasm phase.

270
Q

An anxiety disorder in which
the individual has sudden, inexplicable, and frequent panic attacks, and then fears the possibility of another panic attack.

A

panic disorder

271
Q

A sudden attack of intense
apprehension, terror, and impending doom,
accompanied by symptoms such as labored
breathing, nausea, chest pain, feelings of choking and smothering, heart t palpitations, dizziness, sweating, and trembling.

A

panic attack.

272
Q

A personality
disorder defined by expectation of mistreatment
at the hands of others, suspicion, secretiveness,
jealousy, argumentativeness, unwillingness to
accept blame, and cold and unemotional aff ect.

A

paranoid personality disorder

273
Q

Sexual attraction to
unusual objects or unusual sexual activities
that leads to social diff iculties or distress.

A

paraphilic disorder

274
Q

The division of the autonomic nervous system that is
involved with maintenance; controls many of
the internal organs and is active primarily when
the organism is not aroused.

A

parasympathetic nervous system.

275
Q

Behavioral program in which parents are taught to
modify their responses to their children so that
prosocial rather than antisocial behavior is consistently rewarded.

A

parent management training (PMT)

276
Q

A paraphilic disorder
defined by a sexual attraction to prepubescent
children; the person has either acted on the
urges or the urges create distress or dysfunction.

A

pedophilic disorder

277
Q

A DSM-5 disorder defined by depressive
symptoms that last at least 2 years.

A

persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)

278
Q

A group of disorders
involving long-standing, inflexible, and maladaptive personality traits that impair functioning

A

personality disorder

279
Q

In classical conditioning
theory, a biological predisposition to associate
evolutionarily-relevant stimuli (such as dangerous animals) readily with unconditioned stimuli.

A

prepared learning.

280
Q

Inability of
the male to inhibit his orgasm long enough for
mutually satisfying sexual relations.

A

premature (early) ejaculation.

281
Q

An
anxiety disorder in which a particularly stressful
event, such as military combat, rape, or a natural
disaster, brings in its aft ermath intrusive reexperiencing of the trauma, a desire to avoid reminders
of the event, changes in emotions and thought
patterns, and indicators of heightened arousal.

A

posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). A

282
Q

Mood symptoms in the week before menses

A

Premenstrual dysphoric disorder

283
Q

Behavioral excesses in
schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions.

A

positive symptoms

284
Q

As applied to psychopathology or
any other trait, caused by multiple genes contributing their eff ects, typically during multiple
stages of development.

A

polygenic.

285
Q

Primarily the therapy procedures pioneered by Freud, entailing free association, dream analysis, and working through the
transference neurosis. More recently the term
has come to encompass the numerous variations on basic Freudian therapy.

A

psychoanalysis.

286
Q

The DSM defines
psychological disorder as a clinically significant behavioral or psychological syndrome or
patterns. The definition includes a number of
key features, including distress, disability or
impaired functioning, violation of social norms,
and dysfunction.

A

psychological disorder.

287
Q

A symptom characterized by pacing, restlessness, and inability to
sit still.

A

psychomotor agitation.

288
Q

A symptom commonly observed in major depressive disorder
in which the person moves his or her limbs and
body slowly.

A

psychomotor retardation. A

289
Q

The field concerned with
the nature and development of psychological
disorders

A

psychopathology

290
Q

A personality syndrome related
to antisocial personality disorder but defined by
an absence of emotion, impulsivity, manipulativeness, and irresponsibility

A

psychopathy.

291
Q

A disorder characterized by
disturbances in thought, emotion, and behavior; disordered thinking in which ideas are not
logically related; delusional beliefs; faulty perception, such as hallucinations; disturbances
in attention; disturbances in motor activity;
blunted expression of emotion; reduced desire
for interpersonal relations and withdrawal from
people; diminished motivation and anticipatory
pleasure

A

schizophrenia.

292
Q

Diagnosis given
to people who have all the symptoms of schizophrenia for more than 2 weeks but less than 6
months

A

schizophreniform disorder

293
Q

A subtype
of mood disorders in which episodes consistently occur at the same time of year; in the most
common form, major depressive episodes consistently occur in the winter

A

seasonal aff ective disorder (SAD).

294
Q

The fourth and final stage
of the sexual response cycle, characterized by
an abatement of muscle tension, relaxation,
and a sense of well-being.

A

resolution phase

295
Q

Diagnosis applied
when a patient has symptoms of both mood
disorder and either schizophreniform disorder
or schizophrenia.

A

schizoaff ective disorder.

296
Q

A personality
disorder defined by emotional aloofness; indifference to the praise, criticism, and feelings of
others; maintenance of few, if any, close friendships; and solitary interests.

A

schizoid personality disorder

297
Q

A neurotransmitter of the central
nervous system whose disturbances apparently figure in depression.

A

serotonin.

298
Q

Personality disorder defined by eccentricity, oddities
of thought and perception (magical thinking,
illusions, depersonalization, derealization),
digressive speech involving overelaborations,
and social isolation; under stress, behavior may
appear psychotic

A

schizotypal personality disorder

299
Q

A disorder in
which the child feels intense fear and distress
when away from someone on whom he or she
is very dependent.

A

separation anxiety disorder.

300
Q

A specific form of serotonin reuptake
inhibitors (SRIs) with less eff ect on dopamine
and norepinephrine levels; SSRIs inhibit the
reuptake of serotonin into the presynaptic neuron, so that serotonin levels in the cleft are sustained for a longer period.

A

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
(SSRIs).

301
Q

DSM-5 disorders
involving problems with sexual arousal, desire,
orgasm, or pain.

A

sexual dysfunctions

302
Q

A paraphilic
disorder defined by a sexual attraction to causing pain or humiliation

A

sexual masochism disorder

303
Q

The general pattern
of sexual physical processes and feelings, made
up of four phases: desire, excitement, orgasm,
and resolution.

A

sexual response cycle

304
Q

A paraphilic disorder defined by a sexual attraction to inflicting
pain or humiliation on another person.

A

sexual sadism disorder.

305
Q

A common diagnosis in
China, a syndrome characterized by weakness,
mental fatigue, negative emotions, increased
recollections, and sleep problems

A

shenjing shuairuo

306
Q

A
collection of fears linked to the presence of
other people.

A

social anxiety disorder (social phobia).

307
Q

DSM-5 disorders defined by concerns about
physical symptoms. See conversion disorder,
illness anxiety disorder, and somatic symptom
disorder

A

somatic symptom and related disorders

308
Q

A DSM-5 diagnosis defined by excessive concern and helpseeking regarding physical symptoms.

A

somatic symptom disorder

309
Q

A set of developmental disorders encompassing dyslexia and
dyscalculia; characterized by failure to develop in
a specific academic area to the degree expected
by the child’s intellectual level.

A

specific learning disorders.

310
Q

An unwarranted fear and
avoidance of a specific object or circumstance,
for example, fear of nonpoisonous snakes or fear
of heights

A

specific phobia.

311
Q

As applied by Masters and
Johnson, a pattern of behavior in which the
individual’s focus on and concern with sexual performance causes him or her to be an
observer rather than a participant, thus impeding natural sexual responses.

A

spectator role.

312
Q

The pernicious beliefs and attitudes
held by a society about groups considered deviant in some manner, such as people with mental
illness

A

stigma

313
Q

A drug, such as cocaine, that
increases alertness and motor activity and at the
same time reduces fatigue, allowing an individual
to remain awake for an extended period of time

A

stimulant.

314
Q

A neural region involved in motor
action and responses to reward.

A

striatum.

315
Q

Thoughts about intentionally taking one’s own life.

A

suicidal ideation

316
Q

An act intended to cause
one’s own death.

A

suicide attempt.

317
Q

The intentional taking of one’s own
life.

A

suicide.

318
Q

The division
of the autonomic nervous system that acts on
bodily systems—for example, contracting the blood vessels, reducing activity of the intestines, and increasing the heartbeat—to prepare
the organism for exertion, emotional stress, or
extreme cold.

A

sympathetic nervous system.

319
Q

A major behavior therapy procedure that has a fearful person,
while deeply relaxed, imagine a series of progressively more fearsome situations, such that
fear is dispelled as a response incompatible
with relaxation; useful for treating psychological problems in which anxiety is the principal
diff iculty.

A

systematic desensitization.

320
Q

Small gap between two neurons
where the nerve signal passes electrically or
chemically from the axon of the first to the dendrites, cell body, or axon of the second.

A

synapse

321
Q

A fear of off ending others that
has been observed in Japan and other cultures
that place an emphasis on social hierarchy and
appropriateness.

A

taijin kyofusho

322
Q

The diff iculty in the
correlational method of research whereby the
relationship between two variables may be
attributable to a third factor

A

third-variable problem.

323
Q

The tendency to believe that thinking about something is as morally wrong as engaging in the action or can make the imagined event more likely to occur. Believed to contribute to the persistence of obsessions.

A

thought-action fusion

324
Q

A physiological process in which greater and greater amounts of an addictive drug are required to produce the same effect.

A

tolerance

325
Q

A psychodynamic therapy that has been found to be more helpful than treatment as usual for those with borderline personality disorder, in which a focus is placed on the client’s responses to the therapist and how those might shed light on experiences and expectations in the client’s other relationships.

A

transference-focused therapy.

326
Q

The venting of the analysand’s emotions, either positive or negative, by treating the psychoanalyst as the symbolic representative of someone important in the past.

A

transference

327
Q

A group of antidepressants with molecular structures characterized by three fused rings; they interfere with the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin.

A

tricyclic antidepressants.

328
Q

A form of dementia caused by cerebrovascular disease, most commonly occurring after strokes. Because the areas of the brain affected by disease can vary, the symptoms of vascular dementia vary as well.

A

vascular dementia

329
Q

A disorder defined by a sexual attraction to watching others in a state of undress or having sexual relations.

A

voyeuristic disorder

330
Q

Negative physiological and psychological reactions evidenced when a person suddenly stops taking an addictive drug; reactions include cramps, restlessness, and even death.

A

withdrawal

331
Q

Disorders in which drugs such as alcohol and cocaine are abused to such an extent that behavior becomes maladaptive, social and occupational functioning are impaired, and control or abstinence becomes impossible. Dependence on the drug may be physiological and produce tolerance and withdrawal.

A

substance use disorders

332
Q

Repetitive thought about why a person is experiencing a negative mood.

A

rumination

333
Q

System of brain structures involved in the motivation to pursue rewards. Believed to be involved in depression, mania, schizophrenia, and substance use disorders

A

reward system.

334
Q

The region of the frontal lobe of the brain that helps maintain an image of threats and rewards faced, and also helps maintain focus and make plans relevant to those threats and rewards.

A

prefrontal cortex.

335
Q

Currently defined as exhibiting a body
mass index (BMI) greater than 30.

A

obese.

336
Q

Insanity plea that specifies an individual is not to be held legally responsible for the crime because the person had a mental illness at the time of the crime. Different states and federal law have different standards for defining mental illness and what must be demonstrated by the defense. In most cases, the defense must show that because of the mental illness the accused person could not conform his or her behavior to the law and did not know right from wrong when the crime was committed.

A

not guilty by reason of insanity (NGRI).

337
Q

The brain region in the fear circuit that is especially important in panic disorder; the major source in the brain of norepinephrine, which helps trigger sympathetic nervous system activity.

A

locus coeruleus.

338
Q

A relatively new hallucinogen, chemically similar to mescaline and the amphetamines

A

Ecstasy

339
Q

Form of self-observation involving collection of data in real time (e.g., diaries) regarding thoughts, moods, and stressors

A

ecological momentary assessment
(EMA)

340
Q

Insanity plea in which a mentally ill person can be held morally and legally responsible for a crime but can then, in theory, be sent to a prison hospital or other suitable facility for psychiatric treatment rather than to a regular prison for punishment. In reality, however, people judged GBMI are usually put in the general prison population, where they may or may not receive treatment.

A

guilty but mentally ill (GBMI)

341
Q

délires de négation, are specific psychopathological entities characterized by the delusional belief of being dead, decomposed or annihilated, having lost one’s own internal organs or even not existing entirely as a human being.

A

Nihilistic delusions

342
Q

People with this type of delusional disorder believe that another person, often someone important or famous, is in love with them. They may attempt to contact the person of the delusion and engage in stalking behavior.

A

Erotomanic Delusion

343
Q
A