Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

IFER > Abnormal Operations > Flashcards

Abnormal Operations Flashcards

1
Q

What are some examples of hazardous weather?

A
  • Volcanic ash cloud
  • Thunderstorms
  • Turbulence
  • Wind shear
  • Icing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

It is a cooperative and concerted effort by whom to assist pilots in the avoidance of hazardous weather?

A
  • Pilots
  • Meteorologists
  • ATS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Meteorologists are responsible for what in regards to hazardous weather?

A

Observation of weather phenomena, and forecasting their occurrence.

Forecasts and observations must be produced in sufficient time for avoiding action to be taken.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is ATS responsible in terms of hazardous weather?

A

Distributing reports of hazardous meteorological information.

Controllers make visual and limited radar weather observations for the information of meteorologists and pilots, and relay pilot weather reports to the BoM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are pilots responsible for when it comes to hazardous weather?

A

The safety of their own aircraft using advice and clearances passed by ATS, and information from their own visual or airborne radar observations.

Also responsible for passing visual and airborne radar observations to ATS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who collates information on volcanic ash activity?

A

Volcanic Ash Advisory Centres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where is the VAAC reporting in the Australian and South East Asian region based?

A

Darwin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When a clearance includes air routes affected by volcanic ash within Australian-administered airspace __________

A

1) determine the pilot’s awareness of the volcanic ash and intentions; and
2) suggest amended routing if necessary

A pilot may have more up to date information on volcanic activity and may plan or request route clearances and amendments contrary to information available to ATC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are pilot reporting obligations regarding volcanic activity?

A

Reports are required from all aircraft as follows:
- whenever pre-eruption volcanic activity or volcanic eruptions are observed; and
- whenever volcanic ash cloud is observed or encountered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What hazardous phenomena may thunderstorms contain?

A
  • Icing
  • Hail
  • Turbulence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How will pilots attempt to avoid CB?

A
  • Visual observation
  • Airborne weather radar
  • METRAD observations by ATC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Under what conditions should authorised MET systems information be used to provide pilots advice?

A

Only use authorised MET systems information within 75NM of weather radar sites:
- for weather avoidance
- in conjunction with information on weather conditions derived from airborne or other observations;
- at pilot request; or
- to supplement hazard alert information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When providing information based on authorised MET systems information, how should the information be prefixed?

A

MET RADAR DISPLAY INDICATES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How can turbulence be generated?

A
  1. Thermals
  2. Jet streams
  3. Topographical features
  4. Wake turbulence
  5. Microbursts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the categories of turbulence?

A
  1. Light
  2. Moderate
  3. Severe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define light turbulence

A
  • Accelerometer readings less than 0.5 g
  • Pilots don’t have to report
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define moderate turbulence

A

There may be moderate changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude, but the aircraft remains under positive control at all times

  • usually, small variations in air speed
  • changes in accelerometer readings of 0.5g to 1.0g at the aircraft’s centre of gravity
  • difficulty in walking
  • occupants feel a strain against seat belts
  • loose objects move about.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define severe turbulence

A

Abrupt changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude

  • aircraft may be out of control for short periods
  • usually, large variations in air speed
  • changes in accelerometer readings greater than 1.0g at the aircraft’s centre of gravity
  • occupants are forced violently against seat belts
  • loose objects are tossed about.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When are pilots required to report turbulence?

A

When experiencing turbulence greater than ‘light’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is turbulence to be reported by pilots?

A

As an AIREP SPECIAL.

Requires prefix “AIREP SPECIAL” and immediate report when the degree of turbulence is severe. Include “IN CLOUD” if applicable.

e.g. TURBULENCE MODERATE (IN CLOUD) or

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In what turbulence conditions should a vertical separation standard of 2000ft be established?

A

In controlled airspace
- in known standing wave conditions; or
- in severe turbulence at all levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When should ATC issue traffic information in response to reports of turbulence?

A

When less than 2000ft of vertical separation exists between aircraft and severe turbulence is reported.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define wind shear

A

Wind direction and/or speed change over a vertical or horizontal distance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In which phases of flight are aircraft particularly susceptible to the adverse effects of wind shear?

A
  1. Climb-out
  2. Approach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How is wind shear categorised?

A
  1. Light
  2. Moderate
  3. Strong
  4. Severe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Define light wind shear

A

Shear causing minor excursions from flight path and/or airspeed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Define moderate wind shear

A

Shear causing significant effect on control of the aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Define strong wind shear

A

Shear causing difficulty in keeping the aircraft to desired flight path and/or airspeed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Define severe wind shear

A

Shear causing hazardous effects to aircraft controllability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the primary means of detecting wind shear?

A

Aircraft reports of wind shear encountered during climb and descent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When will wind shear be included in the ATIS?

A

When it is forecast or reported at an intensity greater than ‘light’

32
Q

At non-controlled aerodromes, how else, other than via ATIS, should pilot reports of shear be broadcast?

A

To all aircraft on the CTAF and should include the name of the aerodrome.

33
Q

When should shear be included in the ATIS at controlled aerodromes?

A

When reported on the approach or take-off paths or forecast.

34
Q

Until when should ATC reports of wind shear continue?

A

Until either two successive aircraft have failed to report shear conditions or the expiry of the forecast period – whichever is later.

35
Q

An AIREP SPECIAL must be sent on pilot reports of what in regards to wind shear?

A
  1. Moderate, strong or severe wind shear
  2. Changes in intensity
  3. Cessation
36
Q

In the absence of _________________ pilot reports of wind shear ______________ shall remain valid _____________

A
  1. Further advice
  2. Greater than intensity ‘light’
  3. For a period of one hour
37
Q

What actions should ATC take in response to reports of wind shear at non-controlled aerodromes?

A

Advise pilots likely to be affected by moderate, strong or severe wind shear on approach or take-off paths at non-controlled aerodromes.

38
Q

List some consequences of in-flight icing

A
  • increase the stall speed of the aircraft by increasing its weight and changing the aerodynamics of the wing and tail
  • make it almost impossible to operate control surfaces and landing gear
  • destroy the smooth flow of air over the aircraft
  • increase drag and decrease lift
  • cause engine failure
  • cause propeller vibrations
  • damage compressor blades of jet engines
  • produce errors in instrument readings of air speed, altitude and vertical speed
  • interfere with communications systems
39
Q

How is icing severity classified?

A
  1. Trace
  2. Light
  3. Moderate
  4. Severe
40
Q

Define trace icing

A

Used when the rate of accumulation is slightly greater than rate of sublimation (the process of ice changing directly to vapour, bypassing the liquid phase) resulting in the ice becoming perceptible.

It is not hazardous and de-icing/anti-icing equipment is not utilized unless encountered for an extended period of time (i.e. over one hour).

41
Q

Define light icing

A

The rate of accumulation may create a problem if flight is prolonged in the environment (i.e. more than one hour).

Occasional use of de-icing/anti-icing equipment removes or prevents accumulation. It does not present a problem if the de-icing/anti-icing equipment is used.

42
Q

Define moderate icing

A

The rate of accumulation is such that even short encounters become potentially hazardous and use of de-icing/anti-icing equipment or diversion is necessary.

A heading or level change is desirable.

43
Q

Define severe icing

A

The rate of accumulation is such that de-icing/anti-icing equipment fails to reduce or control the hazard, and thus an immediate diversion is necessary.

A heading or level change is essential.

44
Q

What should pilots provide when experiencing incidences of moderate or severe icing?

A

A short AIREP

45
Q

What are the two types of collision avoidance system fitted to modern aircraft?

A

Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS): Provides information and instructions to avoid collision with other aircraft.

Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS): Provides information and instructions to avoid terrain.

46
Q

What are the two classes of warning provided by TCAS?

A
  1. Traffic Advisory
  2. Resolution Advisory
47
Q

In the event of a TCAS TA, what should the pilot do?

A

Use all available information to prepare for appropriate action if an RA occurs including:
- attempt to establish visual contact; and
- change the flight path only if a collision risk is established visually.

48
Q

What action do ATC need to take in response to a TCAS TA?

A

ATC do not have to take action in relation to a TCAS TA, but may need to pass traffic information.

49
Q

In the event of an RA, pilots must:

A
  • immediately conform to the RA indication, even if this conflicts with an ATC instruction, unless doing so would jeopardise the safety of the aircraft;
  • limit the alterations of the flight path to the minimum extent necessary to comply with the RA; and
  • notify ATC, as soon as permitted by workload, of an RA which requires a deviation from the current ATC instruction or clearance.
50
Q

When a flight crew advises they are responding to a TCAS RA:

A
  • Do not issue instructions that contradict those issued by the RA; and
  • Acknowledge the report by using the phrase (Callsign) ROGER
  • Once an aircraft manoeuvres in response to an RA, ATS is not responsible for providing separation between that aircraft and any other aircraft, airspace, terrain or obstruction.
51
Q

When a TCAS RA conflict is resolved, what must pilots do?

A
  • promptly return to the terms of the latest ATC instruction or clearance and notify ATC of the manoeuvre; or
  • comply with an amended ATC clearance or instruction issued.
52
Q

ATC responsibility for separation resumes when separation is re-established after:

A
  • the responding aircraft has returned to its assigned level;
  • the pilot advises ATC that the TCAS manoeuvre is complete; or
  • the responding aircraft has executed an alternate clearance.
53
Q

Inputs to GPWS include what?

A
  • radio altitude (radio altimeter)
  • airspeed/Mach number
  • barometric altitude
  • landing gear position
  • flap position
  • glideslope deviations
54
Q

What does GPWS do?

A

Provide guidance to avoid potential Controlled Flight Into Terrain (CFIT).

Computes the closure rate with terrain and compares with acceptable, pre-programmed values.

55
Q

In what circumstances is an aircraft required to have GPWS fitted?

A

A turbine engine aeroplane that:
- has a maximum take-off weight of more than 15,000KG, or is carrying 10 or more passengers; and
- is engaged in regular public transport, or charter, operations;
- must not be operated under the Instrument Flight Rules unless it is fitted with:
—– an approved GPWS that has a predictive terrain hazard warning function; or
—– if the aeroplane has a maximum take-off weight of 5,700KG or less, but is carrying 10 or more passengers - a TAWS-B+ system.

56
Q

What is the vapour zone?

A

Airspace affected by the fuel dumped from an aircraft in flight is known as the Vapour Zone 1000 FT above, 2000 FT below, 5 NM horizontally behind and ½ NM on each side of the aircraft

57
Q

Treat all airspace in which dumping takes place as ________________ from the time dumping is expected to commence until ___________________

A
  1. Reserved airspace
  2. Five minutes after it has been completed
58
Q

For safety reasons, do not permit fuel to be dumped in what pattern?

A

In a circular or racetrack pattern.

59
Q

When an aircraft seeks to undertake non-emergency fuel dumping, what should ATC do?

A
  1. Establish aircraft in a suitable area for fuel dumping. This may be over water or over land. Try to remain away from major air routes.
  2. Climb the fuel dump aircraft to at least 6000ft AGL in the fuel dump area.
  3. Keep aircraft clear of the fuel dump area, known as the vapour zone.
  4. The vapour zone is defined as that airspace at least 1000ft above, 2000ft
    below, 5NM horizontally behind and ½NM on each side of the aircraft. (i.e. the
    minimum vertical distance to have an aircraft below the fuel dumping aircraft
    would be 3000ft or more if possible).
  5. Make a broadcast on the appropriate frequencies to alert unknown aircraft of
    the fuel dump. Advise other sectors if necessary, especially lower sectors.
  6. Continue to broadcast on the appropriate frequencies during the fuel dump and for 5 minutes after the dumping has finished. This may mean lower sectors have to do the broadcasting as well.
  7. Determine where and when the fuel dump will start and for how long will it continue.
  8. Advise other affected sectors when fuel dumping is completed.
60
Q

Which code will a pilot attempt to squawk in the event of unlawful interference?

A

7500.

Code 7600 may also be used in this situation.

61
Q

What is the ATC response to code 7500 being squawked?

A

‘(callsign) CONFIRM SQUAWKING ASSIGNED CODE’

62
Q

How should the absence of a reply to a confirm squawking code request be regarded?

A

As possible evidence of the emergency

63
Q

How is a hijack situation involving an aircraft on the ground at an aerodrome where ATS are on duty coordinated?

A

In accordance with AEPs

64
Q

Who may determine that an escort aircraft may be useful in helping an aircraft in distress.

A

The IFER manager

65
Q

What factors should be considered in selecting escort aircraft?

A
  • Suitability of airborne aircraft
  • Assistance from military if suitable civil aircraft are not available
  • Aircraft and pilot have the navigational capability to effect an interception either with or without the assistance of ground or airborne surveillance systems
  • Speed of escort aircraft is capable of matching distressed aircraft; and
  • Aircraft has sufficient fuel endurance for the task
66
Q

When planning an interception do not give __________

A

the interceptor a prolonged tail chase.

67
Q

How should an intercepting aircraft be positioned?

A

Vertically position the interceptor, relative to the distressed aircraft, to make the most of the primary method of interception being employed i.e. visual or electronic.

68
Q

How is the intercepting aircraft flown in a visual interception by day?

A

The intercepting aircraft is flown at 1000FT below the distressed aircraft against the sky and achieve maximum sighting distance

69
Q

How is the intercepting aircraft flown in a visual interception by night?

A

On clear nights:
- the intercepting aircraft is flown 1000FT above the distressed aircraft to eliminate confusion between stars and lights of the distressed aircraft

When over land, where lights of cities could cause confusion:
- the intercepting aircraft is flown at 1000FT below the distressed aircraft.

70
Q

How is the intercepting aircraft flown in an electronic interception?

A

An aircraft flying an electronic interception is to be flown at 1000 FT above the distressed aircraft.

This provides best utilisation of the radar and clears lower altitudes should the distressed aircraft be unable to hold altitude.

71
Q

What types of datalink may pilots use to notify of emergencies?

A

ADS-C
- indicated by the generic code ADC

CPDLC
- will display a CPD emergency code and will send an emergency message
- the reporting rate will change to 5 minutes

72
Q

Are there different checklists for DATALINK emergencies within and outside your FIR?

A

Yes

73
Q

What are the four ‘strategies’ pilot emergency checklists are generally categorised into?

A

Land immediately - Land at once even if, for example, this means ditching or landing in trees. The consequence of continued flight is likely to be more hazardous than that of a landing at a site normally considered unsuitable.

Land as soon as possible - Do not continue flight for longer than is necessary to achieve a safe but unhurried landing at the nearest suitable site.

Land as soon as practicable - Land at the nearest aviation location or, if there is none reasonably close, at a safe landing site selected for subsequent convenience.

Land at Destination - The problem does not require a diversion - the aircraft can continue to destination, possibly with some degradation of performance or handling

74
Q

In an emergency, or when fuel must be dumped without adequate warning or delay, controllers shall _______________

A

Make every effort to keep other aircraft clear of the “vapour zone”.

Additionally, ATS is responsible for:
1. Noting the area where jettison was effected (Lat/Long on screen or scratchpad).

  1. Recording weather conditions and reporting the incident to the appropriate authority without delay (this would be your Ops supervisor or similar).
75
Q

What is fuel starvation?

A

Fuel starvation can occur when there is ample fuel remaining in the tank(s) but for some reason the flow of fuel to the tanks is interrupted, reduced or completely stopped.

76
Q

What is fuel exhaustion?

A

Fuel exhaustion occurs when there is no useable fuel remaining in the tanks.

77
Q

What does the declaration MINIMUM FUEL by a pilot indicate?

A

Informs ATC that all planned aerodrome options have been reduced to a specific aerodrome of intended landing and any change to the existing clearance may result in landing with less than planned fixed fuel reserve.

This is not an emergency situation but an indication that an emergency situation is possible should any additional delay occur.

IFER (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions