Abdominal Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What clinical signs should you look for at the beginning of the abdo exam

A

Age
Confusion
Pain
Scars
Distension
Colour (pallor, jaundice, hyperpigmentation)
Oedema (from liver cirrhosis in abdo usually)
Cachexia
Hernias

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2
Q

Which hernias may be visible from the end of the bed

A

(e.g. umbilical/incisional hernia). Asking the patient to cough will usually cause hernias to become more pronounced.

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3
Q

What is hyperpigmentation

A

bronzing of the skin associated with haemochromatosis.

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4
Q

Why is age important in an abdo exam

A

patient’s approximate age is helpful when considering the most likely underlying pathology, with younger patients more likely to have diagnoses such as inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) and older patients more likely to have chronic liver disease and malignancy.

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5
Q

What are features of hepatic encephalopathy

A

confusion

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6
Q

What objects should you look out for at the beginning of an abdo exam (8)

A

Stoma bag(s): note the location of the stoma bag(s) as this can provide clues as to the type of stoma (e.g. colostomies are typically located in the left iliac fossa, whereas ileostomies are usually located in the right iliac fossa).

Surgical drains: note the location of the drain and the type/volume of the contents within the drain (e.g. blood, chyle, pus).

Feeding tubes: (e.g. nasogastric/nasojejunal) is the patient currently being fed.

Other medical equipment: ECG leads, medications, total parenteral nutrition, catheters (note volume/colour of urine) and intravenous access.

Mobility aids

Vital signs

Fluid balance

Prescriptions

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7
Q

Which parts of the upper limb should you examine during the gastro exam

A

Palms
Nails
Wrist
Arm
Axillae

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8
Q

What are you looking for on the palms in a gastro exam

A

Pallor: may suggest underlying anaemia (e.g. malignancy, gastrointestinal bleeding, malnutrition).

Palmar erythema: a redness involving the heel of the palm that can be associated with chronic liver disease (it can also be a normal finding in pregnancy).

Dupuytren’s contracture (eg genetics, excessive alcohol use, increasing age, male gender and diabetes.)

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9
Q

What should you look for on the nails in a gastro exam

A

Koilonychia: spoon-shaped nails, associated with iron deficiency anaemia (e.g. malabsorption in Crohn’s disease).

Leukonychia: whitening of the nail bed, associated with hypoalbuminaemia (e.g. end-stage liver disease, protein-losing enteropathy)

Clubbing: most likely to appear in an abdominal OSCE station include inflammatory bowel disease, coeliac disease, liver cirrhosis and lymphoma of the gastrointestinal tract.

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10
Q

What do you look for in a patient’s wrists in an abdo exam

A

Asterixis
Pulse (radial)
Temperature

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11
Q

In the context of an abdominal examination, the most likely underlying cause of asterixis is …?

A

either hepatic encephalopathy (due to hyperammonaemia)
or
uraemia secondary to renal failure.

CO2 retention secondary to type 2 respiratory failure is another possible cause of asterixis.

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12
Q

What do you look for on the arms of a patient in a gastro exam? (3)

What does each suggest?

A

Bruising: may suggest underlying clotting abnormalities secondary to liver disease (e.g. cirrhosis).

Excoriations: scratch marks that may be caused by the patient trying to relieve pruritis. In the context of an abdominal examination, this may suggest underlying cholestasis.

Needle track marks: important to note as intravenous drug use can be associated with an increased risk of viral hepatitis.

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13
Q

What do you look for in the axillae in a gastro exam

What do each indicate

A

Acanthosis nigricans: darkening (hyperpigmentation) and thickening (hyperkeratosis) of the axillary skin which can be benign (most commonly in dark-skinned individuals) or associated with insulin resistance (e.g. type 2 diabetes mellitus) or gastrointestinal malignancy (most commonly stomach cancer).

Hair loss: loss of axillary hair associated with iron-deficiency anaemia and malnutrition.

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14
Q

What do you look for in the eyes of a patient in gastro (6)

A

Conjunctival pallor: suggestive of underlying anaemia.

Jaundice: most evident in the superior portion of the sclera (ask the patient to look downwards as you lift their upper eyelid).

Corneal arcus: a hazy white, grey or blue opaque ring located in the peripheral cornea, typically occurring in patients over the age of 60. In older patients, the condition is considered benign, however, its presence in patients under the age of 50 suggests underlying hypercholesterolaemia.

Xanthelasma: yellow, raised cholesterol-rich deposits around the eyes associated with hypercholesterolaemia.

Kayser-Fleischer rings: dark rings that encircle the iris associated with Wilson’s disease. The disease involves abnormal copper processing by the liver, resulting in accumulation and deposition in various tissues (including the liver causing cirrhosis).

Perilimbal injection

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15
Q

What is perilimbal injection

What disease is it associated with and what other clinical features are associated

A

inflammation of the area of conjunctiva adjacent to the iris.

a sign of anterior uveitis, which can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease.

Other clinical features of anterior uveitis include photophobia, ocular pain and reduced visual acuity.

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16
Q

What do you look for when looking at a gastro patient’s mouth (5)

Why are each important

A

Angular stomatitis: a common inflammatory condition affecting the corners of the mouth. It has a wide range of causes including iron deficiency (e.g. gastrointestinal malignancy, malabsorption).

Glossitis: smooth erythematous enlargement of the tongue associated with iron, B12 and folate deficiency (e.g. malabsorption secondary to inflammatory bowel disease).

Oral candidiasis: a fungal infection commonly associated with immunosuppression.

Aphthous ulceration: round or oval ulcers occurring on the mucous membranes inside the mouth. Aphthous ulcers are typically benign (e.g. due to stress or mechanical trauma), however, they can be associated with iron, B12 and folate deficiency as well as Crohn’s disease.

Hyperpigmented macules:

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17
Q

What is oral candidiasis characterised by

A

It is characterised by pseudomembranous white slough which can be easily wiped away to reveal underlying erythematous mucosa.

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18
Q

Why are hyperpigmented macules important

A

pathognomonic for Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, an autosomal dominant genetic disorder that results in the development of polyps in the gastrointestinal tract.

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19
Q

What should you do after examining the face in a gastro patient

A

Palpate for lymphadenopathy:

Palpate the supraclavicular fossa on each side, paying particular attention to Virchow’s node on the left for evidence of lymphadenopathy.

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20
Q

Which lymph nodes are important for the GI tract

Why

A

The left supraclavicular lymph node (known as Virchow’s node) - receives lymphatic drainage from the abdominal cavity and therefore enlargement of Virchow’s node can be one of the first clinical signs of metastatic intrabdominal malignancy (most commonly gastric cancer).

The right supraclavicular lymph node - receives lymphatic drainage from the thorax and therefore lymphadenopathy in this region can be associated with metastatic oesophageal cancer (as well as malignancy from other thoracic viscera).

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21
Q

What are the 3 signs to look out for on the chest in a gastro exam

What do each suggest

A

Spider naevi: commonly associated with liver cirrhosis, but can also be a normal finding in pregnancy or in women taking the combined oral contraceptive pill. If more than 5 are present it is more likely to be associated with pathology such as liver cirrhosis.

Gynaecomastia: enlargement of male breast tissue caused by increased levels of circulating oestrogen (e.g. liver cirrhosis). Other causes include medications such as digoxin and spironolactone.

Hair loss: also caused by increased levels of circulating oestrogen. General malnourishment can also result in hair loss.

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22
Q

What is spider naevi

A

skin lesions that have a central red papule with fine red lines extending radially caused by increased levels of circulating oestrogen.

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23
Q

How should a patient be positioned when examining the abdomen

A

Position the patient lying flat on the bed, with their arms by their sides and legs uncrossed for abdominal inspection and subsequent palpation.

Expose torso and pull down trousers

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24
Q

What things do you look for when inspecting the abdomen in a gastro exam

A

Scars: there are many different types of abdominal scars that can provide clues as to the patient’s past surgical history (see image below for examples).

Abdominal distension: can be caused by a wide range of pathology including the six f’s

Caput medusae: engorged paraumbilical veins associated with portal hypertension (e.g. liver cirrhosis).

Striae (stretch marks): caused by tearing during the rapid growth or overstretching of skin (e.g. ascites, intrabdominal malignancy, Cushing’s syndrome, obesity, pregnancy).

Hernias: ask the patient to cough and observe for any protrusions through the abdominal wall (e.g. umbilical hernia, incisional hernia).

Cullen’s sign: bruising of the tissue surrounding the umbilicus associated with haemorrhagic pancreatitis (a late sign).

Grey-Turner’s sign: bruising in the flanks associated with haemorrhagic pancreatitis (a late sign).

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25
Q

What can abdominal distension be caused by

A

6 f’s: fat, fluid, flatus, faeces, fetus or fulminant mass

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26
Q

2 late signs of haemorrhagic pancreatitis

A

Cullen’s sign: bruising of the tissue surrounding the umbilicus 7

Grey-Turner’s sign: bruising in the flanks

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27
Q

What 4 features of a stoma should you note

A

Location: this can provide clues as to the type of stoma (e.g. colostomies are typically located in the left iliac fossa, ileostomies and urostomies are typically located in the right iliac fossa).

Contents: can be stool (e.g. colostomy or ileostomy) or urine (e.g. urostomy).

Consistency of stool: note if it is liquid (ileostomy) or solid (colostomy).

Spout: colostomies are flush to the skin with no spout whereas ileostomies and urostomies have a spout.

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28
Q

What 3 things should you do before palpating a patient’s abdomen

A

The patient should already be positioned lying flat on the bed.

Ask the patient if they are aware of any areas of abdominal pain (if present, examine these areas last).

Kneel beside the patient to carry out palpation and observe their face throughout the examination for signs of discomfort.

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29
Q

What should you palpate on the abdomen

A

light palpation
deep palpation
Palpate the liver
Palpate the gallbladder
Palpate the spleen
Ballot the kidneys
Palpate the aorta
Palpate the bladder

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30
Q

What are you looking for when lightly palpating the abdomen (6)

What does each mean

A

Tenderness: note the abdominal region(s) involved and the severity of the pain.
Rebound tenderness: said to be present when the abdominal wall, having been compressed slowly, is released rapidly and results in sudden sharp abdominal pain. This is a non-specific, unreliable clinical sign that can, in some cases, be associated with peritonitis (e.g. appendicitis).
Voluntary guarding: contraction of the abdominal muscles in response to pain
Involuntary guarding/rigidity: involuntary tension in the abdominal muscles that occurs on palpation associated with peritonitis (e.g. appendicitis, diverticulitis).
Rovsing’s sign: palpation of the left iliac fossa causes pain to be experienced in the right iliac fossa. This sign was historically said to be indicative of appendicitis, but it is not reliable and at best indicates peritoneal inflammation of any cause affecting the left and/or right iliac fossa.
Masses: large or superficial masses (e.g. hernias) may be noted on light palpation.

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31
Q

If any masses are identified during deep palpation, assess the following characteristics… (5)

A

Location: note which of the nine abdominal regions the mass located within.
Size and shape: assess the approximate size and shape of the mass.
Consistency: assess the consistency of the mass (e.g. smooth, soft, hard, irregular).
Mobility: assess if the mass appears to be attached to superficial or underlying structures.
Pulsatility: note if the mass feels pulsatile, suggestive of vascular aetiology (e.g. abdominal aortic aneurysm).

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32
Q

How do you palpate the liver

A
  1. Begin palpation in the right iliac fossa, starting at the edge of the superior iliac spine, using the flat edge of your hand (the radial side of your right index finger).
  2. Ask the patient to take a deep breath and as they begin to do this palpate the abdomen. Feel for a step as the liver edge passes below your hand during inspiration (a palpable liver edge this low in the abdomen suggests gross hepatomegaly).
  3. Repeat this process of palpation moving 1-2 cm superiorly from the right iliac fossa each time towards the right costal margin.
  4. As you get close to the costal margin (typically 1-2 cm below it) the liver edge may become palpable in healthy individuals.
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33
Q

If you are able to identify the liver edge, you should assess which characteristics? (4)

What does each mean

A

Degree of extension below the costal margin: if greater than 2 cm this suggests hepatomegaly.

Consistency of the liver edge: a nodular consistency is suggestive of cirrhosis.

Tenderness: hepatic tenderness may suggest hepatitis or cholecystitis (as you may be palpating the gallbladder)

Pulsatility: pulsatile hepatomegaly is associated with tricuspid regurgitation.

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34
Q

Give some causes of hepatomegaly

A

Hepatitis (infective and non-infective)
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Hepatic metastases
Wilson’s disease
Haemochromatosis
Leukaemia
Myeloma
Glandular fever
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Tricuspid regurgitation
Haemolytic anaemia

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35
Q

Is the gall bladder usually palpable?

A

No

If the gallbladder is palpable it suggests enlargement secondary to biliary flow obstruction (e.g. pancreatic malignancy, gallstones) and/or infection (e.g. cholecystitis).

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36
Q

How do you palpate the gall bladder

A

Palpation of the gallbladder can be attempted at the right costal margin, in the mid-clavicular line (the tip of the 9th rib). If the gallbladder is enlarged, a well-defined round mass that moves with respiration may be noted.

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37
Q

How do you differentiate diagnoses when the gallbladder is enlarged?

A

Tenderness suggests a diagnosis of cholecystitis whereas a distended painless gallbladder may indicate underlying pancreatic cancer (particularly if also associated with jaundice).

38
Q

Which sign suggests the presence of cholecystitis

A

Murphy’s sign

39
Q

How do you perform Murphy’s sign

A
  1. Position your fingers at the right costal margin in the mid-clavicular line at the liver’s edge.
  2. Ask the patient to take a deep breath.

If the patient suddenly stops mid-breath due to pain, this suggests the presence of cholecystitis (known as “Murphy’s sign positive”).

40
Q

How do you palpate the spleen

A
  1. Begin palpation in the right iliac fossa, starting at the edge of the superior iliac spine, using the flat edge of your hand (the radial side of your right index finger).
  2. Ask the patient to take a deep breath and as they begin to do this palpate the abdomen with your fingers aligned with the left costal margin. Feel for a step as the splenic edge passes below your hand during inspiration (the splenic notch may be noted).
  3. Repeat this process of palpation moving 1-2 cm superiorly from the right iliac fossa each time towards the left costal margin.
41
Q

Should you be able to feel the spleen

A

No

palpable spleen at the edge of the left costal margin would suggest splenomegaly (for the spleen to be palpable at this location it would need to be approximately three times its normal size).

42
Q

Give 5 causes of splenomegaly

A

Portal hypertension secondary to liver cirrhosis
Haemolytic anaemia
Congestive heart failure
Splenic metastases
Glandular fever

43
Q

How do you ballot the kidneys

A
  1. Place your left hand behind the patient’s back, below the ribs and underneath the right flank.
  2. Then place your right hand on the anterior abdominal wall just below the right costal margin in the right flank.
  3. Push your fingers together, pressing upwards with your left hand and downwards with your right hand.
  4. Ask the patient to take a deep breath and as they do this feel for the lower pole of the kidney moving down between your fingers. This bimanual method of kidney palpation is known as balloting.
  5. If a kidney is ballotable, describe its size and consistency.
  6. Repeat this process on the opposite side to ballot the left kidney.
44
Q

Why may kidneys be enlarged

A

Bilaterally enlarged, ballotable kidneys can occur in polycystic kidney disease or amyloidosis.
A unilaterally enlarged, ballotable kidney can be caused by a renal tumour.

45
Q

How do you palpate the aorta

What should you find

A
  1. Using both hands perform deep palpation just superior to the umbilicus in the midline.
  2. Note the movement of your fingers:

In healthy individuals, your hands should begin to move superiorly with each pulsation of the aorta.
If your hands move outwards, it suggests the presence of an expansile mass (e.g. abdominal aortic aneurysm).

46
Q

What is the process of palpating the bladder

A

Before performing bladder palpation, allow the patient the opportunity to go to the toilet. Warn the patient that palpation may be uncomfortable and bring about the sudden urge to pass urine.

A distended bladder can be palpated in the suprapubic area arising from behind the pubic symphysis (e.g. urinary obstruction/retention). In most healthy patients who are passing urine regularly, the bladder will not be palpable.

47
Q

What do you percuss in the abdo exam

A

liver
spleen
bladder
shifting dullness

48
Q

Describe liver percussion(3)

A
  1. Percuss upwards 1-2 cm at a time from the right iliac fossa (the same position used to begin palpation) towards the right costal margin until the percussion note changes from resonant to dull indicating the location of the lower liver border.
  2. Continue to percuss upwards 1-2 cm at a time until the percussion note changes from dull to resonant indicating the location of the upper liver border.
  3. Use the knowledge of the upper and lower border of the liver to determine its approximate size.
49
Q

Describe percussion of the spleen

A

Percuss upwards 1-2 cm at a time from the right iliac fossa (the same position used to begin palpation) towards the left costal margin until the percussion note changes from resonant to dull indicating the location of the spleen (in the absence of splenomegaly the spleen should not be identifiable using percussion).

50
Q

Describe percussion of the bladder

A

Percuss downwards in the midline from the umbilical region towards the pubic symphysis. A distended bladder will be dull to percussion allowing you to approximate the bladder’s upper border.

51
Q

How do you assess shifting dullness in the abdomen (4)

A
  1. Percuss from the umbilical region to the patient’s left flank. If dullness is noted, this may suggest the presence of ascitic fluid in the flank.
  2. Whilst keeping your fingers over the area at which the percussion note became dull, ask the patient to roll onto their right side (towards you for stability).
  3. Keep the patient on their right side for 30 seconds and then repeat percussion over the same area.
  4. If ascites is present, the area that was previously dull should now be resonant (i.e. the dullness has shifted).
52
Q

How do you auscultate for bowel sounds

A

Auscultate over at least two positions on the abdomen to assess bowel sounds:

Normal bowel sounds: typically described as gurgling (listen to an example in our video demonstration)
Tinkling bowel sounds: typically associated with bowel obstruction.
Absent bowel sounds: suggests ileus which is a disruption of the normal propulsive ability of the intestine due to a malfunction of peristalsis. Causes of ileus include electrolyte abnormalities and recent abdominal surgery. To be able to confidently state that a patient has ‘absent bowel sounds’ you need to auscultate for at least 3 minutes (this is unlikely to be the case in an OSCE given the time restraints).

53
Q

What do you auscultate in the abdo exam

A

Listen for bowel sounds
Listen for bruits

54
Q

How do you listen for bruits in the abdo exam

A

Auscultate over the aorta and renal arteries to identify vascular bruits suggestive of turbulent blood flow:

Aortic bruits: auscultate 1-2 cm superior to the umbilicus, a bruit here may be associated with an abdominal aortic aneurysm.

Renal bruits: auscultate 1-2 cm superior to the umbilicus and slightly lateral to the midline on each side. A bruit in this location may be associated with renal artery stenosis.

55
Q

What can a) aortic and b) renal bruits indicate

A

a) abdominal aortic aneurysm

b) renal artery stenosis

56
Q

What do you assess in the abdo exam after auscultation

A

Legs - Assess the patient’s lower legs for evidence of pitting oedema which may suggest hypoalbuminaemia (e.g. liver cirrhosis, protein-losing enteropathy).

57
Q

What are possible GI causes of pitting oedema

A

hypoalbuminaemia (e.g. liver cirrhosis, protein-losing enteropathy).

58
Q

What are further assessments and investigations you can suggest after the abdo exam (3)

A

Check hernial orifices (e.g. if there are signs of bowel obstruction). See our hernia examination guide for more details.

Perform a digital rectal examination (PR) (e.g. if there is suspicion of gastrointestinal bleeding).

Perform an examination of the external genitalia (e.g. to rule out testicular torsion as a cause of referred abdominal pain or an indirect inguinal hernia).

59
Q

Give an acronym to remember the key issues that can follow liver cirrhosis

A

SHAVE
Splenomegaly
Hepatorenal syndrome
Ascites with or without SBP
Varices
Encephalopathy

60
Q

What are key causes of massive hepatomegaly

A

Cancer (primary or secondary)
Right heart failure
Alcoholic liver disease with fatty infiltration
Myeloproliferative diseases (i.e. Chronic myeloid leukaemia, Rubra Vera, Essential Thrombocythaemia)

CRAM

61
Q

Causes of moderate hepatomegaly

A

Fatty liver – from diabetes, obesity
Amyloidosis
Iron – haemochromatosis (excess iron)
Lymphoma
Leukaemia – chronic

FAILL
+CRAM from massive hepatomegaly

62
Q

Causes of mild hepatomegaly

A

Biliary duct obstruction
Infective: Hepatitis; HIV; EBV;CMV
Autoimmune

+FAILL+CRAM

63
Q

Causes of splenomegaly

A

C – Cancer
H – Haematological malignancies – anaemia, leukaemia, lymphoma,
I – Infection (CMV, HEP, HIV, TB, parasitic (malaria)). EBV is the most common community acquired
Inflammation – sarcoid, amyloid
C – Congestion; portal hypertension
A – Autoimmune(RA, SLE)
G – Glycogen storage disorders
O – Other – amyloidosis, sarcoidosis

“CHICAGO”

64
Q

Why may you have splenomegaly without hepatomegaly

A

liver cirrhosis

65
Q

How can you test for kidney problems in a simple examination

What does this often reveal

A

test for Costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness.

The CVA is formed by the 12th rib and the spine

acute pyelonephritis; stones; UTI; Kidney abscess

A lack of CVA tenderness in patients with low back pain supports a diagnosis other than kidney pathology.

66
Q

What are causes of pre-hepatic jaundice

A

malaria, a blood infection caused by a parasite

sickle cell anemia

spherocytosis, a genetic condition of the red blood cell membrane that causes them to be sphere-shaped rather than disc-shaped

thalassemia

67
Q

What are symptoms associated with pre-hepatic jaundice

A

abdominal pain
fever, including chills or cold sweats
abnormal weight loss
feeling itchy
dark urine or pale stool

68
Q

Risk factors for pre-hepatic jaundice

A

drug use
having a family member with a blood disorder
traveling to malaria-endemic regions

69
Q

What are the most common causes of hepatic jaundice are:

A

liver cirrhosis, which means that liver tissues are scarred by long-term exposure to infections or toxic substances, such as high levels of alcohol

viral hepatitis

primary biliary cirrhosis, which happens when bile ducts are damaged and can’t process bile, causing it to build up in your liver and damage liver tissue

alcoholic hepatitis

leptospirosis, is a bacterial infection that can be spread by infected animals or infected animal urine or feces

liver cancer

70
Q

Risk factors for hepatic jaundice

A

drug use
drinking a lot of alcohol over a long period of time
use of medications that can cause liver damage, such as Paracetamol or certain heart medications
previous infections that affected your liver

71
Q

Most common causes of post-hepatic jaundice

A

gallstones, hard calcium deposits in the gallbladder that can block bile ducts

pancreatic cancer, the development and spread of cancer cells in the pancreas

bile duct cancer

pancreatitis

biliary atresia, a genetic condition in which you have narrow or missing bile ducts

72
Q

Risk factors for post-hepatic jaundice

A

being overweight
eating a high-fat, low-fiber diet
having diabetes mellitus
having a family history of gallstones
being female
aging
smoking tobacco products
drinking a lot of alcohol
having a previous pancreas inflammation or infection
being exposed to industrial chemicals

73
Q

Diagnostic tests for post-hepatic jaundice

A

a urinalysis

blood tests, such as a full blood count and antibody tests for cancer, or liver function tests to rule out hepatic jaundice

imaging tests, such as an MRI or ultrasound, to examine your liver, gallbladder, and bile ducts for obstructions like gallstones or tumors

an endoscopy to look at your liver, gallbladder, or bile ducts and take a tissue sample if necessary for analysis for cancer or other conditions

74
Q

Diagnostic tests for pre-hepatic jaundice

A

a urinalysis

blood tests to measure bilirubin and other substances in the blood

imaging tests, such as an MRI or ultrasound, to examine your liver, gallbladder, and bile ducts to rule out other forms of jaundice

a HIDA scan to help find blockages or other issues in the liver, gallbladder, bile ducts, and small intestine

75
Q

Diagnostic tests for hepatic jaundice

A

a urinalysis to measure levels of substances in your urine related to your liver function
blood tests, such as a complete blood count (CBC) and antibody tests, or liver function tests to measure bilirubin in the blood and levels of substances that indicate that your liver may not be processing bilirubin properly
imaging tests, such as an MRI or ultrasound, to examine your liver for damage or for the presence of cancerous cells
an endoscopy, which involves inserting a thin, lighted tube into a small incision to look at your liver and take a tissue sample (biopsy) if necessary for analysis for cancer or other conditions

76
Q

Which blood tests assess liver function

A

serum AST, ALT, and ALP

gamma-glutamyltransferase, serum albumin, protein, and bilirubin

77
Q

How do AST, ALT and ALP levels help narrowing down jaundice type (5)

A

if the liver transaminase levels increase but ALP levels are low, then the insult is hepatic in origin.

AST/ALT ratio is more than 2 to 1 in alcoholic liver disease.

AST and ALT values are in 1000s; then the hepatocellular disease is likely due to toxins like acetaminophen or ischemia or viral.

If ALP levels are five times elevated than normal and liver transaminases are normal or less than two times normal, then the most likely cause is biliary obstruction. The high serum ALP levels due to a biliary injury can be differentiated from bone disorders by ordering a GGT serum profile, increased levels confirm hepatic origin.

If AST, ALT and ALP levels are normal- then the jaundice is not due to liver or bile duct injury. The cause must probably be pre-hepatic: inherited disorders of liver conjugation or blood disorders or defect in hepatic excretion

77
Q

How do AST, ALT and ALP levels help narrowing down jaundice type (5)

A

if the liver transaminase levels increase but ALP levels are low, then the insult is hepatic in origin.

AST/ALT ratio is more than 2 to 1 in alcoholic liver disease.

AST and ALT values are in 1000s; then the hepatocellular disease is likely due to toxins like acetaminophen or ischemia or viral.

If ALP levels are five times elevated than normal and liver transaminases are normal or less than two times normal, then the most likely cause is biliary obstruction. The high serum ALP levels due to a biliary injury can be differentiated from bone disorders by ordering a GGT serum profile, increased levels confirm hepatic origin.

If AST, ALT and ALP levels are normal- then the jaundice is not due to liver or bile duct injury. The cause must probably be pre-hepatic: inherited disorders of liver conjugation or blood disorders or defect in hepatic excretion

78
Q

How is pruritis managed

A

managed based on the severity.

For mild pruritis, warm baths or oatmeal baths can be relieving. Antihistamines can also help with pruritis.

Patients with moderate to severe pruritis respond to bile acid sequestrants such as cholestyramine or colestipol.

79
Q

Why can high levels of bilirubin be bad? Who is this bad for particularly?

A

Due to the physiologic mechanisms that protect against elevated bilirubin, the toxic effects are limited to neonates due to the poorly developed blood-brain barrier.

High levels of bilirubin are neurotoxic and can lead to permanent neurologic injury (kernicterus) (Bilirubin-induced neurologic dysfunction)

80
Q

How can you tell the difference between a kidney and spleen on examination

A

The spleen moves with respiratory patterns and may be palpable only at the end of inspiration

Kidney may not move on inspiration (unclear)

81
Q

You see a lump on the patient’s abdomen/groin. What signs would suggest it is a hernia? (7)

A

Single lump in the inguinal region
Positive cough impulse (unless incarcerated)
Soft on palpation
Reducible (unless incarcerated)
Unable to get above the lump during palpation
Painless (unless incarcerated)
Bowel sounds on auscultation (may be absent if incarcerated)

82
Q

How to remember the features of a hernia

A

“SLIP-UP”

S: Single lump in the inguinal region
L: Positive cough impulse (unless incarcerated)
I: Soft on palpation
P: Painless (unless incarcerated)
U: Unable to get above the lump during palpation
P: Reducible (unless incarcerated)

+ bowel sounds

83
Q

You see a lump on the patient’s abdomen/groin. What signs would suggest it is NOT a hernia? (7)

A

Multiple lumps (e.g. lymphadenopathy)
Hard or nodular consistency (e.g. malignancy)
Able to get above the lump during palpation (e.g. scrotal mass)
Transillumination (hydrocoele)
Bruit on auscultation (e.g. arteriovenous malformation)

84
Q

How to remember the features of a lump that is not a hernia

A

“MANHAT”

M: Multiple lumps (e.g. lymphadenopathy)
A: Able to get above the lump during palpation (e.g. scrotal mass)
N: Nodular or hard consistency (e.g. malignancy)
H: Transillumination (hydrocoele)
A: Arteriovenous malformation (bruit on auscultation)
T: Tumor (alternative to malignancy)

85
Q

How do you tell an inguinal from a femoral hernia

A

Inguinal hernias are typically located above and medial to the pubic tubercle.

Femoral hernias are typically located below and lateral to the pubic tubercle

86
Q

How do you assess the reducibility of a hernia

A

To assess the reducibility of a hernia:

  1. Ask the patient to lay supine and observe for evidence of spontaneous reduction.
  2. If the hernia is still present, try to manually reduce it using your fingers.

The hernia may re-appear if the patient stands up, coughs or the application of pressure is removed.

A hernia which is tender and irreducible may be strangulated and requires urgent surgical review.

87
Q

How can you tell a direct from an indirect inguinal hernia

A

If you suspect a hernia is inguinal in origin (i.e. it is located above and medial to the pubic tubercle) you should then try to determine if it is direct or indirect.

To differentiate between direct and indirect inguinal hernias:

  1. Locate the deep inguinal ring (midway between the anterior superior iliac spine and pubic tubercle).
  2. Manually reduce the patient’s hernia by compressing it towards the deep inguinal ring starting at the inferior aspect of the hernia.
  3. Once the hernia is reduced, apply pressure over the deep inguinal ring and ask the patient to cough.

Interpretation
If a hernia reappears it is more likely to be a direct inguinal hernia whereas if it does not, it is more likely to be an indirect inguinal hernia.

In the latter case, release the pressure from the deep inguinal ring and observe for the hernia reappearing (further supporting the diagnosis of an indirect inguinal hernia).

It should be noted that this clinical test is unreliable and further imaging (e.g. ultrasound scan) would be required before any management decisions were made.

88
Q

How can you tell a scrotal swelling is a hernia?

A

When palpating an inguinal hernia in the scrotum you will not be able to get above the mass.

89
Q

What further investigations should you suggest after a hernia exam

A

Testicular examination (if male and not already performed)
Abdominal examination
Inguinal lymph node assessment (if not already performed)
Further imaging (e.g. ultrasound/CT)

90
Q

What blood tests are involved in a confusion screen?

A

FBC (e.g. infection, anaemia, malignancy)
U&Es (e.g. hyponatraemia, hypernatraemia)
LFTs (e.g. liver failure with secondary encephalopathy)
Coagulation/INR (e.g. intracranial bleeding)
TFTs (e.g. hypothyroidism)
Calcium (e.g. hypercalcaemia)
B12 + folate/haematinics (e.g. B12/folate deficiency)
Glucose (e.g. hypoglycaemia/hyperglycaemia)
Blood cultures (e.g. sepsis)
Urinalysis