AAMC Scored FL 2 Review Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q
A

I. Remember AMC is attached to the peptide on the carboxyl side.

The COO- group attacks the amine, and forms an amide linkage for attachment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the formula to calculate Kcat of an enzyme?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Compared to the concentration of the proteasome (2nM),by what factor was the substrate concetration(100uM) larger?

A

5x104

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Four organic compounds: 2-butanone, n-pentane, propanoic acid, and n-butanol, present as a mixture, are separated by column chromatography using silica gel with benzene as the eluent. What is the expected order of elution of these four organic compounds from first to last?

A: n-Pentane->2-butanone->n-butanol->propanoic acid

B: n-Pentane->n-butanol->2-butanone ->propanoic acid

C: Propanoic acid->n-butanol->2-butanone->n-pentane

D: Propanoic acid->2-butanone->n-butanol ->n-pentane

A

A: n-Pentane->2-butanone->n-butanol->propanoic acid.

The compounds have similar MWs, so will elute based on polarity. Silica gel is the stationary phase(polar), and benzene is the eluent(non-polar).

The most non-polar compounds will elute first. (np)Alkenes->ketones->alcohols->COOHs(p).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the net charge of sT-loop(KTFCGPEYLA) at pH 7.2?

A:-2

B: -1

C: 0

D: +1

A

C: 0

The N-terminus will be + charged and the COO- will have a negative charge. In addition, K will carry a + charge and E will have a negative. All the others are neutral.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What type of phosphate is involved in a phosporyl transfer within kinases?

A: alpha-phosphate

B: beta-phosphate

C: gamma-phosphate

D: Delta-phosphate

A

C: Gamma-phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Consider the equation below…

Would th_e concentration of [Cu(NH3)4]2+ increase_ if the equilibrium were disturbed by adding HCL?

A: Yes, b/c the equilibrium in Equation 1 would shift to the left.

B: No, b/c the quilibrium in Equation 1 would shift to the left.

C: Yes, b/c the equilibrium in Equation 1 would shift to the right.

D: No, b/c the equilibrium in Equation 1 would shift to the right.

A

B: No, b/c the equilibrium in Equation 1 would shift to the left.

HCL will protonate ammonia in a Bronstead acid-base rxn and reduce the amount of ammonia present. The disturbed equilibrium responds in a way to retore ammonia, which would decrease the concentration of complex ion formed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following atoms will be expected to have the smallest second ionization energy?

A: Na

B: C

C: O

D:Ca

A

D: Ca

Metals have lower ionization energies than non-metals as long as the ionization event involves a valence electron. Since Na is an alkali metal, it has only one valence electron and has a large second ionization energy. Ca is an alkaline earth metal and has two valence electrons. It will therefore have the smallest second ionization energy of the four atoms listed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the pH of a buffer solution that is .2 M in HCO3- and 2 M in H2CO3? (first pka of carbonic acid is 6.37)

A: 4.37

B: 5.37

C: 6.37

D: 7.37

A

B 5.37.

In order to calculate, need to use the HH equation: pH = pka + log (Base/acid). Plugging it in, pH = 6.37 + (log (.2/2) = 5.37.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

An inflatable cuff was used to temporarily stop blood flow in an upper arm artery. While releasing the pressure to deflate the cuff, a stethoscope was used to listen the blood flow in the forearm. The blood pressure reading was 130/85. Given this information, which of the following statemetns is LEAST likely to be true?

A: 85 mmHg was the diastolic pressure.

B: Blood flow was heard when the pressure of the cuff was greater than 130 mmHg.

C: 130 mmHg was the systolic pressure.

D: Blood flow was heard when the pressure of the cuff was 90 mmHg.

A

B Blood flow was heard when P > 130mm Hg.

The cuff was inflated to temporarily stop blood flow in the artery. The systolic pressure is determined from the first sound of blood flow that can be heard once the pressure exerted by the inflatable cuff falls below pressure in artery. The blood pressure reading was 130/86, which indicates that blood flow started again when pressure was 130 mmHg. Blood flow was not heard when the pressure of the cuff was greater than 130 mmHg.

A is wrong b/c lower #s represents diastolic pressure.

C is incorrect b/c higher # is systolic pressure.

D is not the correct response b/c blood flow would be heard when pressure of cuff is 90 mmHg, as this pressure is higher than diastolic pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which single bond present in nitroglycerin (C3H5N3O9) is most likely the shortest?

A: C-H

B: C-O

C: C-C

D: O-N

A

A: C-H.

Hydrogen has amuch smaller atomic radius than any of the other elements listed, so we would assume its bond length is shorter s well. Also, we are given the bond energies. The higher the bond energy(energy to break the bond, the more stable it is), signifying it is shorter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the average power consumed by a 64-year-old woman during the ascent of the 15-cm-high steps, if her mass is 54kg? The time involved was 27s.

A: 10 W

B: 20 W

C: 40 W

D: 90 W

A

D: 90 W.

Power consumed is equivalent to P = PE/time =mgh/t. From table 1, there are 30 steps and t= 27 s. Then P = (54kg x 10 m/s^2 X 30 steps x .15m/step)/(27 steps) = 90 W.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How much work did an 83yr-old female do while stretching the rubber band to the limit of her strength? She stretched it 20cm and the spring constant is 200 N/m

A: 4 J

B: 5 J

C: 6 J

D: 7 J

A

A: 4 J.

W = .5 * kx^2, where x=.20 m. W = .5 * 200 * .2m^2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What kind of image is formed by the lenses of the glasses worn by a 68-yr-old male who sees an object 2m away? The lens have a negative focal length.

A: Real and enlarged

B: Real and reduced

C: Virtual and enlarged

D: Virtual and reduced

A

D: Virtual and Reduced.

The lens have a negative focal length, meaning they are diverging lens. Diverging lens form virtual and reduced images of objects situated at distances larger than focal length.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Inhibition of phosphofructokinase-1 by ATP is an example of:

  • I: allosteric regulation*
  • II: feedback inhibition*
  • III: competive inhibition*

A: I only

B: III only

C: I and II only

D: II and III only

A

C: I and II only.

ATP, the end product of glycolysis, deregulates through feedback inhibition the activity of PFK-1 by binding to an allosteric site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Dendrotoxin from the mamba snake blocks voltage-gated K+ channels in somatic motor neurons that regulate skeletal muscle contraction. In what way would initial exposure to dendrotoxin affect the ability of a somatic motor neuron to propagate an electric signal in response to a stimulus?

A: It would inhibit the inititation of an action potential

B: It would shorten the refractory period

C: It would prolong the action potential.

D: It would prevent depolarization

A

C: It would prolong the action potential.

If K+ channels are blocked, the membrane would fail to repolarize, extending the length of action potential and thus stimulating excessive muscle contractions.

17
Q

Where does folding of secretory proteins occur?

A: In the Golgi Apparatus

B: In the ER

C: In the cytoplasm

D: In the nucleolus

A

B: In the ER.

The endoplasmic reticulum foldings proteins that are going to be secreted.

18
Q

When a protein is ubiquinated, what is its destiny?

A: Engulfed by a lyosome where it is hydrolyzed by proteases

B: stored in vesicles until the signaling pathway is activated

C: Bound by a proteasome to initiate degradation into shorter peptides

D: transloacated into the Golgi Apparatus for secretion through exocytosis

A

C: Bound by a proteasome to initiate degradation into shorter peptides.

Old proteins that are no longer needed, but not severely compromised, will be covalently modifed with ubiquinone (ubiquination) and sent to the proteasome for degradation. The products of this degradation will be used to build more peptides in the future.

19
Q

What is the best experimental method to analyze the effects of tdh2 gene deletion on the rate of histone acetylation? Comparing histone acetylation in wild-type and <>tdh2cells by:

A: Western Blot

B: Southern Blot

C: Northern Blot

D: RT-PCR

A

A: Western Blot.

Western blot reveals posttranslation modification of proteins. Southern is sued to test for DNA sequences. Northern Blotting is used to test for RNA.

20
Q

Vasopressin regulates the insertion of aquaporins into the apical membranes of the epithelial cells of which renal structure? What is Vasopressin’s other name too?

A: Collecting duct

B: Proximal tubule

C: Bowman’s capsule

D: Ascending loop of Henle

A

A: Collecting duct.

Vasopressin or ADH inserts more aquaporin channels in the collecting duct to cause more uptake of water to increase blood volume, in effect, making the urine more concentrated.

21
Q

What are the primary myelin-forming cells in the periphernal nervous system?

A: Microglia

B: Astrocytes

C: Schwann cells

D: Ogliodendrocytes

A

C: Schwann cells.

Think S is close to P. CNS myelin is generally made by ogliodendrocytes.

22
Q

The precursor of EGP is translated from a transcript that has one nontemplated nucleotide added to the open reading frame. This change does not create or eliminate a stop codon. Compared with the protein sGP, which is produced from the unedited transcript, EGP most likely has the same primary:

-A: amino terminal sequence as sGP, but a different primary COO- terminal sequence.

B: COO- terminal sequence as sGP, but a different primary amino-terminal sequence.

C: sequence as sGP except that EGP has one additional amino acid.

D: sequence as sGP except that EGP has one less amino acid

A

A: Amino terminal sequence as sGP, but a different primary COO- terminal sequence.

Proteins are translated COO- -> NH2 terminal.

23
Q

What tissues are derived from the ectoderm?

What tissues are derived from the mesoderm?

What tissues are derived from the endoderm?

A

Ectoderm: Epidermis, skin, teeth enamel, lens, epithelium of mouth and nose, PNS and CNS

Mesoderm: Muscle (smooth, striated, cardiac), bones, cartilage, circulatory system, kidneys

Endoderm: the stomach, the colon, the liver, the pancreas, the urinary bladder, the epithelial parts of trachea, the lungs, the pharynx, the thyroid, the parathyroid, and the intestines.

24
Q

Where in the human male reproductive system do the gametes become motile and capable of fertilization?

A: Testes

B: Urethra

C: Epididymis

D: Prostate gland

A

C: Epididymis.

Sperm is peroduced in the semniferous tubulues of the testes, and completes its maturation and motility in the epididymis.

25
Q

A patient who is experiencing severe marital problems reports having no memory of any life events surrounding the marriage and the spouse. The patient’s memory for other life events is intact. This patient is most likely to be diagnosed with

A: conversion disorder

B: schizophrenia

C: retrograde amnesia

D: dissociative disorder

A

D: dissociative disorder.

Dissociative disorders often include selectively forgetting certain elements/memories, having a complete or partial dissociation with reality.

26
Q

Which psychological concept best explains observed response times during the IAT? The IAT is an implicit weight association test given to physicians.

A: Interference

B: Dissonance

C: Modeling

D: Schemas

A

D: Schemas.

Schematic processing is relevant to explaining response tomes during IAT b/c the speed with which memory schemas (organized clusters of knowledge) are activated and processed is presumed to indicate the participant’s implicit attitude.

27
Q

A dopamine agonist is found to have dose-dependent effects. Based on this finding, which correlation is most likely to be supported?

A: a positive correlation between dose of the dopamine agonist and the duration of visual hallucinations that occur when the dopamine agonist is administered.

B: A negative correlation between the dose of the dopamine agonist and the duration of the visual hallucinations that occur when the dopamine agonist is administered.

C: A positive correlation between the dose of the dopamine agonist and the intensity of euphoria experienced when the dopamine agonist is administered.

D: A negative correlation between the dose of the dopamine agonist and the intensity of euphoria experienced when the dopamine agonist is administered

A

C: A positive correlation between the dose of the dopamine agonist and the intensity of euphoria experienced when the dopamine agonist is administered.

A dopamine agonist enhances the functioning of dopamine in the nervous system. B/c the agonist has dose-dependent effects, we would expect a positive correlation between the dose and intensity of euphoria described.

28
Q

The left cerebral hemisphere in humans is most often linked with which cognitive function?

A: Visuospatial skills

B: Music perception

C: Vocabulary Skills

D: Emotion Processing

A

C: Vocabulary Skills.

Vocab skills tend to be lateralized to the left hemisphere, while the other processes mentioned are lateralized to the right hemisphere.

29
Q

Research has shown that when individuals study material right before going to sleep, they perform better on a recall measure upon awakening when compared to individuals who study and then watch a movie before going to sleep. Which memory construct provides the most likely explanation for these results?

A: Misinformation

B: Primacy

C: Spreading activation

D: Interference.

A

D: Interference.

When people study new material, any new information introduced between the initial learning (encoding) and retrievaling, will interfere with memory consolidation.

30
Q

Individuals who have the ability to delay gratification in pursuit of long-term rewards are most likely to be categorized as having which type of intelligience?

A: Analytical

B: Creative

C: Interpersonal

D: Emotional

A

D: Emotional.

Having emotional intelligience is associated with being self-aware of emotions/desires and being able to delay gratifaction in pursuit of long-term goals.