AAMC Bio Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the ratio of the results of a cross between two heterozygotes?

A

If we call the recessive gene r and its dominant allele R, then a cross between two heterozygote strains Rr will produce the genotypes RR:Rr:rr in a ration of 1:2:1.

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2
Q

What is the relationship between mRNA degradation and cell differentiation/protein production?

A

If oligonucleotides, such as mRNA, were not degraded rapidly by intracellular agents. The destruction of mRNA prevents continuous protein production, allowing the cell to change its protein expression over time. (basically allows for protein gradients that let tissue differentiation occur, think the protein gradients leading to things like anterior pituitary development) The coordination of cell differentiation during development is extremely sensitive to the timing of mRNA turnover.

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3
Q

Which structures control heart rate, muscle coordination, and appetite respectively?

A

Brain stem, cerebellum, and hypothalamus

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4
Q

What is an antisense gene? How does a sense strand differ from an antisense strand? How does its regulation relate to the regulation of sense genes?

A

Antisense is the non-coding DNA strand of a gene. A cell uses antisense DNA strand as a template for producing messenger RNA (mRNA) that directs the synthesis of a protein. Antisense can also refer to a method for silencing genes. The sense strand is the strand of DNA that has the same sequence as the mRNA, which takes the antisense strand as its template during transcription, and eventually undergoes (typically, not always) translation into a protein. Sense strand is in the 3’ to 5’ direction and it is not transcribed into mRNA. Antisense strand is directed in the 5’ to 3’ direction and it is transcribed into mRNA. antisense gene would need to be regulated in a manner similar to the manner in which the target gene is regulated so that the antisense RNA is produced at the same time that the sense mRNA is produced.

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5
Q

Describe the pain perception pathway? How does this pathway differ for reflexes?

A

The pain system involves a set of ascending pathways that convey nociceptive information from peripheral nociceptors via the neuronal tracts of the spinal cord to the higher levels of the CNS. When free nerve endings are excited, their membrane potential changes (transduction) and is converted into an action potential (transformation). Descending pain pathway is the suppression pathway

Afferent (i.e. ascending) A-delta and C fibres of the periphery transmit the pain stimulus via action potentials to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. The transmission of nociceptive information from the first to the second neuron takes place at the synapsis by means of excitatory neurotransmitters. The neurotransmitters bind post-synaptically to specific receptors and produce an action potential, which is transmitted to the brain.
Reflex pain is a complex condition that occurs when the body’s pain withdrawal reflex fails to disappear long after the triggering event. The neurological phenomenon, known as the withdrawal reflex, occurs when the body executes a chain of reactions to remove an affected body part from painful stimuli. The sensory neuron then synapses with interneurons (neurons found in the spinal cord that relay signals between (afferent) sensory neurons and (efferent) motor neurons) that connect to motor neurons

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6
Q

What are the differences between eukaryotic and prokeryotic cells?

A

Eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles, such as the nucleus, while prokaryotic cells do not. genetic material in prokaryotes is not membrane-bound.
The most fundamental difference is that eukaryotes do have “true” nuclei containing their DNA, whereas the genetic material in prokaryotes is not membrane-bound.
In eukaryotes, the mitochondria and chloroplasts perform various metabolic processes and are believed to have been derived from endosymbiotic bacteria. In prokaryotes similar processes occur across the cell membrane; endosymbionts are extremely rare.
The cell walls of prokaryotes are generally formed of a different molecule (peptidoglycan) to those of eukaryotes (many eukaryotes do not have a cell wall at all).
Prokaryotes are usually much smaller than eukaryotic cells.
Prokaryotes also differ from eukaryotes in that they contain only a single loop of stable chromosomal DNA stored in an area named the nucleoid, while eukaryote DNA is found on tightly bound and organised chromosomes. Although some eukaryotes have satellite DNA structures called plasmids, these are generally regarded as a prokaryote feature and many important genes in prokaryotes are stored on plasmids.
Genes
Prokaryotes also differ from eukaryotes in the structure, packing, density, and arrangement of their genes on the chromosome. Prokaryotes have incredibly compact genomes compared to eukaryotes, mostly because prokaryote genes lack introns and large non-coding regions between each gene.
Whereas nearly 95% of the human genome does not code for proteins or RNA or includes a gene promoter, nearly all of the prokaryote genome codes or controls something.
although similar, is distinct enough that several types of antibiotics are able to preferentially target prokaryotic ribosomes over eukaryotic ribosomes. Of human and bacterial cells, only bacterial cells have cell walls (C), and most bacterial chromosomes are circular whereas human chromosomes are linear

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7
Q

What are the key differences between mitosis and meiosis?

A

One of the key differences between mitosis and meiosis occurs during their respective anaphases. During anaphase of mitosis, sister chromatids are pulled apart at the centromeres, each becoming an independent chromosome in the two diploid daughter cells. During anaphase I of meiosis I, homologous pairs of chromosomes are separated into the two daughter cells. However, each chromosome still consists of two sister chromatids joined to each other at the centromere. It is not until anaphase II of meiosis II that the centromere is split and the sister chromatids separate. Mitosis and meiosis are both processes which describe the production of new cells. Mitosis produces 2 daughter cells which are genetically identical to the parent cell. Each daughter cell is diploid (contains the normal number of chromosomes). This is the result of DNA replication and 1 cell division. Mitosis is used in growth and asexual reproduction. Meiosis produces 4 daughter cells, each of which are unidentical to the parent cell and to one another. Each daughter cell is haploid (contains half the number of normal chromosomes). This is the result of DNA replication, followed by crossing over of homologous chromosomes and separation of chromosomes. There are two cell divisions: the parent cell divides once and then each cell produced by this first division divides once. Meiosis is used to produce gametes (sperm and egg cells), the cells of sexual reproduction. Two gametes fuse to form a zygote, a diploid cell with the full number of chromosomes.

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8
Q

What is plasma clearance?

A

Plasma clearance refers to the capacity of the kidney to remove a substance from the plasma

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9
Q

What is the glomerulus? How does it function within the kidney?

A

a cluster of nerve endings, spores, or small blood vessels, in particular a cluster of capillaries around the end of a kidney tubule, where waste products are filtered from the blood.
Glomerular filtration is the first step in making urine. It is the process that your kidneys use to filter excess fluid and waste products out of the blood into the urine collecting tubules of the kidney, so they may be eliminated from your body.

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10
Q

What does Tm have to do with flow through the kidneys? What is the relevance of this term and how is it affected by filtration rate?

A

Tm is a characteristic of the individual substances in the tubule system and a measure of how efficiently each substance can be reabsorbed. (e.g. the transport maximum of glucose). High Tm = high capacity to be reabsorbed in the kidney tubules. If you increase the glomerular filtration rate eventually the rate of flow would reach a point at which it exceeds the rate at which the tubule cells could reabsorb the substance. The fluid would be flowing too rapidly through the tubule for the cells to reabsorb all the substance. The rate of flow through the tubule at which the substance begins to be observed in the urine is Tm. At that point the rate of flow of fluid through the tubule begins to exceed the capacity of the kidney tubule cells to reabsorb the substance.

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11
Q

What affect does increased blood pressure have on the glomerular filtration rate?

A

Increasing blood pressure should increase flow of fluid through the kidney (think vasconstriction which occurs with increased bp) system and decrease, rather than increase, water reabsorption because at some point the flow rate through the tubule will exceed the kidney tubule cells capacity to reabsorb water.

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12
Q

What is albumin? What happens if you have extra albumin in the blood? What disorder is caused by a decrease in plasma albumin?

A

albumin, one of the major plasma proteins. Albumin is a protein made by your liver. Albumin helps keep fluid in your bloodstream so it doesn’t leak into other tissues. Plasma proteins are big and cannot cross membrane walls but water can (they raw in water to blood vessels/promote reabsorption/ they are promoters of an increase in osmotic pressure). An increase in plasma albumin will upset the osmotic balance because the blood will become hypertonic with respect to the tissue. Water will have to flow into the bloodstream to reestablish equilibrium. One of the causes of edema, increased fluid in body tissues, is a decrease in the plasma protein level. Water builds up in interstitial fluid because not enough albumin to promote reabsorption. This occurs, for instance, in starvation when the body is forced to use its albumin as an energy source. An increase in the plasma protein level would have the opposite effect: fluid would enter the bloodstream

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13
Q

What is aldosterone? Where is it released from and what does it do?

A

Aldosterone, which is produced by the adrenal cortex, causes Na+ reabsorption by kidney tubules. Such a mechanism decreases Na+ levels in the urine. Physiologically normal kidneys respond to aldosterone by increasing the reabsorption of both sodium and water. This leads to an increase in blood volume and therefore blood pressure.

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14
Q

What is a common characteristic of bacteria (prokaryotic) and eukaryotic cells?

A

the ability to produce ATP via ATP synthase is common to both bacterial and human cells. Both types of cells possess a membrane-embedded electron transport chain capable of generating a H+ gradient, which drives synthesis of ATP via ATP synthase. This ATP synthesis takes place on the plasma membrane of bacteria and on the inner mitochondrial membrane in human cells.

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15
Q

What is the parathyroid hormone? What does it secrete? What would happen to the body if it did not have it?

A

Removal of the parathyroid gland would lead to hypocalcemia, a condition of low blood calcium, resulting from the lack of parathyroid hormone. This would cause increased neuromuscular excitability because of the change in membrane potential, which under normal physiological conditions, is partially kept in balance with extracellular calcium. Parathyroid hormone leads to increased levels of calcium in the body by promoting osteoclast differentiation and calcitriol formation. It is activated and inhibited by the calcium sensing receptors on the parathyroid hormone and calcitriol also inhibits

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16
Q

Which tissues arise from the mesoderm?

A

THE ECTODERM gives rise to the central nervous system (the brain and spinal cord); the peripheral nervous system; the sensory epithelia of the eye, ear, and nose; the epidermis and its appendages (the nails and hair); the mammary glands; the hypophysis; the subcutaneous glands; and the enamel of the teeth
Ectodermal development is called neurulation in regard to nervous tissue
THE MESODERM gives rise to connective tissue, cartilage, and bone; striated and smooth muscles; the heart walls, blood and lymph vessels and cells; the kidneys; the gonads (ovaries and testes) and genital ducts; the serous membranes lining the body cavities; the spleen; and the suprarenal (adrenal) cortices
THE ENDODERM gives rise to the epithelial lining of the gastrointestinal and respiratory tracts; the parenchyma of the tonsils, the liver, the thymus, the thyroid, the parathyroids, and the pancreas; the epithelial lining of the urinary bladder and urethra; and the epithelial lining of the tympanic cavity, tympanic antrum, and auditory tube

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17
Q

What is ectopic pregnancy?

A

In ectopic pregnancy, implantation occurs in a site other than the endometrial lining of the uterine cavity—in the fallopian tube, uterine cornua, cervix, ovary, or abdominal or pelvic cavity. Ectopic pregnancies cannot be carried to term and eventually rupture or involute. The main reason for the occurrence of ectopic pregnancies is the failure of the fertilized egg to be transported from the oviducts to the uterus. When the transport system fails, the embryo implants in the oviduct, rather than in the uterus.

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18
Q

What roles do lutenizing hormone, progesterone, and estrogen play in the ovulatory cycle?

A

GnRH stimulates the pituitary gland to produce follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), the hormone responsible for starting follicle (egg) development and causing the level of estrogen, the primary female hormone, to rise. Leutinizing hormone (LH), the other reproductive pituitary hormone, aids in egg maturation and provides the hormonal trigger to cause ovulation and the release of eggs from the ovary. Luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone, which are produced by the pituitary gland, promote ovulation and stimulate the ovaries to produce estrogen and progesterone. Estrogen and progesterone stimulate the uterus and breasts to prepare for possible fertilization. Estrogen and progesterone are not directly involved in triggering ovulation

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19
Q

What are the spin numbers on H NMR?

A
Dont kyl be kyne be kene
Alkyl 0-3
Alkyne 2-3
Alkene 4.6-6
Aromatic 6-8.5
Aldehyde 9-10
Carboxylic acid 10.2-12
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20
Q

What is the equation for magnification? What happens to magnification when you shift one of the terms by either increasing or decreasing the value?

A

Using equations, recall that 1 / o + 1 / i = 1 / f, where f is positive for a concave mirror and remains constant. If o decreases, the (1 / o) term must increase, which means the (1 / i) term must decrease to compensate. Since i is negative for virtual images, decreasing the (1 / i) term means becoming less negative, which means that the magnitude of i decreases, which corresponds to the image moving closer to the mirror. As far as magnification goes, if we solve the above equation for i, we get i = of / (o – f). Magnification = –i / o = f / (f – o). Since o < f, then decreasing o would increase the denominator (f – o), and thus decrease the magnification.

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21
Q

How is fluid homeostasis obtained?

A

fluid homeostasis, which is obtained by balancing hydrostatic and osmotic pressures. Whereas hydrostatic pressure forces fluid out of the capillary, osmotic pressure draws fluid back in. Osmotic pressure is determined by osmotic concentration gradients, that is, the difference in the solute-to-water concentrations in the blood and tissue fluid.

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22
Q

How would hydrostatic pressure and the body be affected by a blod clot on the venous side of the capillary bed?

A

To answer this, it is necessary to know that blood flows from arteries to capillaries and then to veins. If flow is blocked at the venous side, blood would accumulate in the capillaries. Thus, hydrostatic pressure would build up in the capillaries, causing a net increase in fluid flow into the interstitial spaces.

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23
Q

What actions occur during inspiration?

A

The diaphragm contracts and pulls downward, causing air to enter the lungs.Elevation of the rib cage increases the volume inside the chest cavity, reduction of pressure inside the pleural cavity causes air to move into the lungs, and contraction of the external intercostal rib muscles helps the chest expand. active phase of ventilation because it is the result of muscle contraction. During inspiration, the diaphragm contracts and the thoracic cavity increases in volume. This decreases the intraalveolar pressure so that air flows into the lungs.

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24
Q

What does it mean for a virus to be olbligate?

A

An obligate parasite or holoparasite is a parasitic organism that cannot complete its life-cycle without exploiting a suitable host. If an obligate parasite cannot obtain a host it will fail to reproduce. They need the host cells metabolic machinery to reproduce so if you attempt to grow them on sterilized noncellular growth media it would not work because they do not have access to the host cell. Virus structure cannot be visualized with a light microscope and a bacteriophage is a virus in bacteria.

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25
Q

What is hybridization and how can it occur?

A

Hybridization is the process of combining two complementary single-stranded DNA or RNA molecules and allowing them to form a single double-stranded molecule through base pairing. In a reversal of this process, a double-stranded DNA (or RNA, or DNA/RNA) molecule can be heated to break the base pairing and separate the two strands. (lab technique) Hybridization requires base pairing between complementary nucleic acid sequences

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26
Q

What is the tidal volume? How can the value for tidal volume be used to ascertain the air that enters the alveoli on each inspiration?

A

The tidal volume is the amount of air that moves into the lungs during each inspiration. Some of this air does not reach the alveoli so it is not available for gas exchange with the circulatory system. The volume of such gas in the air passageways, (trachea, bronchi and bronchioles) is called the respiratory dead space. Subtracting the dead space of 150 mL from the tidal volume of 800 mL gives 650 mL, the quantity of air that enters the alveoli on each inspiration. Over ten breaths then, 6,500 mL will flow into the alveoli for gas exchange

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27
Q

What is the Watson and Crick model of DNA structure and what implication does it have about nitrogenous bases?

A

In the Watson and Crick model of DNA structure, the nitrogenous bases form hydrogen bonds with each other in a 1:1 ratio: guanine pairs with cytosine, and adenine pairs with thymine. This implies that the amount of guanine and cytosine would be the same, and the amount of adenine and thymine would be the same.

28
Q

What mechanism probably would be responsible for the increased urine output induced by hypertension?

A

Increased urine out put induced by hypertension: increase in ANP (ANP is an aldosterone/ ADH antagonist it is trying to lower the bp) which promotes diuresis or water excretion. (on a hormonal level, opposite of ADH water retention). The glomerular filtration rate is proportional to the glomerular capillary blood pressure minus the sum of the plasma osmotic pressure and the Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure. An increase to the systemic blood pressure would initially increase the glomerular capillary blood pressure, which would increase the glomerular filtration rate. Without a corresponding increase in the rate of tubular reabsorption of water, this would lead to an increase in urine output.

29
Q

What process would be most disrupted by an inflammation of the colon?

A

the primary process that takes place in the colon is absorption of water, then the absorption of water is the most likely process to be disrupted.

30
Q

Normally the immune system avoids attacking the tissues of its own body because:

A

The immune system is designed to attack foreign material in the body. It avoids attacking tissues of its own body because it suppresses cells that are specific to its own body’s antigens (surface molecules that would otherwise initiate an immune response).
Self antigens should degrade, if they don’t thats bad

31
Q

Describe the different body cavities.

A

The peritoneal cavity is a true space between the parietal peritoneum (the peritoneum that surrounds the abdominal wall) and visceral peritoneum (the peritoneum that surrounds the internal organs). Organs within it include the stomach, small and large intestine, liver, gall bladder, pancreas and spleen. The perineum is the area between the anus and the scrotum or vulva. The pleural cavity also known as the pleural space, is the thin fluid-filled space between the two pulmonary pleurae (known as visceral and parietal) of each lung. A pleura is a serous membrane which folds back onto itself to form a two-layered membranous pleural sac.

32
Q

What is the pathway of spermatogenesis? Sperm develpment.

A

Spermatogonium –(mitosis)–> primary spermatocyte –(meiosis 1) –> seconday spermatocyte –(meoisis 2)–> spermatid –(spermiogenesis)–> spermatozoa (sperm)

33
Q

If the genetic and autoimmune theories of inflammatory bowel disease are true, then the gastrointestinal antigen being targeted by the immune system is probably on:

A

Assuming the genetic and autoimmune theories of inflammatory bowel disease are true, then the gastrointestinal antigen being targeted must be located on the surface of proteins encoded by the genes for the disease. Antigens are carried on the surface of cells, not on the chromosomes, DNA segments, or RNA.

34
Q

The fact that there appears to be a genetic component to inflammatory bowel disease, but that it does not show clear Mendelian inheritance ratios suggests:

A

It cannot simply be recessive or the disease would follow Mendelian genetic patterns. Instead the gene for the disease could have incomplete penetrance.
the gene for the disease could have limited expressivity.
the disease could be polygenic.

35
Q

What is adaptive radiation? Under what conditions does it occur?

A

Adaptive radiation involves the divergence of one species into multiple species over time, which can occur when subgroups of the original species are separated or isolated in different environments so that these subgroups evolve independently of one another. the diversification of a group of organisms into forms filling different ecological niches.
The driving force behind it is the adaptation of organisms to new ecological contexts. Begins with one species!

36
Q

Illustrate how you could calculate the cumulative probability of three sons obtaining a hemophilia gene that is X linked from a mother who has it on one chromosome and a father who also has it on one.

A

The woman inherited one X chromosome from her father and one from her mother. The father only had one X chromosome to contribute and that X chromosome contained the hemophilia gene. The mother will pass on one X chromosome to her sons, either the X chromosome containing the normal (wild type) gene, or the X chromosome containing the hemophilia gene. The probability of a son receiving the hemophilia gene and being a hemophiliac is 1/2, because there is a 50-50 chance that this son received an X chromosome carrying the defective gene from his carrier mother. The cumulative probability of all three sons inheriting the hemophilia gene would be the product of the individual probabilities, or 1/2 × 1/2 × 1/2. Thus, answer choice A, 1/8, is the answer.

37
Q

What roles do estrogen and progesterone play in the menstrual cycle, how do these roles change as women enter menopause?

A

Estrogen and progesterone are actively secreted by the ovaries of pre-menopausal women and act to maintain the uterine cycle. Menopause occurs when levels of these hormones get too low. With advancing age the ovary becomes less responsive to pituitary gonadotropins and cyclical changes in the endometrium of the uterus disappear. The menstrual cycle can be re-established by administration of estrogen and progesterone in a regimen that approximates the rise and fall of hormone levels in pre-menopausal women. So periodic menstruation can resume if levels of these hormones are readministered at the right periods. This would also stop some of the hallmarks of menopause such as breast tissue atrophy, vaginal tissue drying.

38
Q

What is calcitonin? What does it do for the body?

A

Calcium levels in the blood need to be kept constant. Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin regulate blood levels of calcium. The passage gave the information that calcitonin analogs inhibit osteoporosis. If calcitonin inhibits osteoporosis, it must function to take calcium out of the blood and into the bone while preventing the loss of calcium from bone into the blood. High levels of blood calcium available for deposit into bone should stimulate this process rather than inhibit it. Calcitonin is stimulated by high calcium and it leads to bone building, osteoblast formation, opposite of PTH which leads to osteoclast differentiation and the release of calcitriol (active vitamin D) It wants to increase calcium levels in the body while calcitonin is decreasing plasma calcium levels

39
Q

Endocrine versus exocrine ducts.

A

Exocrine glands secrete their products through ducts; endocrine glands release their products into the bloodstream.

40
Q

What is phagocytosis and what cellular components might it use to complete its job?

A

Phagocytosis requires that the cell change shape dramatically as it surrounds and engulfs large extracellular particles. Microtubules are one of the cytoskeletal elements that help determine cell shape. This function relies on the ability of the microtubules to disassemble and reorganize. The drug colchicine inhibits microtubule reorganization and would therefore inhibit phagocytosis of uric acid crystals by leukocytes. Also uses actin filaments or microfilaments

41
Q

What is the difference between purines and pyrimidines?

A

These labels are used for the different DNA nucleotides. Adeine and guanine are purines while tyrosine and cytosine are pyrimidines they are cytosine and uracil. Purines are larger than pyrimidines because they have a two-ring structure while pyrimidines only have a single ring. v

42
Q

How would disrupting microtubule formation affect mitosis?

A

Microtubules are responsible for movement! Microtubules play a role in the migration of chromosomes to opposite ends of a mitosing cell during the anaphase. specialized network of microtubules during mitosis. These tubules, collectively known as the spindle, extend from structures called centrosomes — with one centrosome located at each of the opposite ends, or poles, of a cell. As mitosis progresses, the microtubules attach to the chromosomes, which have already duplicated their DNA and aligned across the center of the cell. The spindle tubules then shorten and move toward the poles of the cell. As they move, they pull the one copy of each chromosome with them to opposite poles of the cell. This process ensures that each daughter cell will contain one exact copy of the parent cell DNA. Disruption of the mitotic spindle by drugs prevents the proper segregation of chromosomes into the daughter cells and usually results in unequal numbers being distributed to the two daughter cells. Many of the resulting plant cells would have more than two sets of chromosomes

43
Q

Which of the following correctly pairs a cellular process with the location in which that process occurs in a prokaryotic cell?

1) Transcription, cytoplasm
2) ATP synthesis, mitochondria
3) Degradation of macromolecules, lysosomes
4) Modification of carbohydrates on transmembrane proteins, Golgi complex

A

Prokaryotic cells do not contain nuclei, membrane-bound organelles in which nuclear genes are transcribed in eukaryotic cells. Consequently, transcription occurs in the cytoplasm of bacterial cells. 1 is correct

44
Q

Cancer cells most likely have an abnormality in their:

A

The question asks the examinee to identify which structure is most likely abnormal in cancer cells. DNA (A) in cancer cells typically contains an abnormality (mutation).

45
Q

What are the different phases of interphase?

A

G_1 During G_1 , also called the first gap phase, the cell grows physically larger, copies organelles, and makes the molecular building blocks it will need in later steps.
S phase. In S phase, the cell synthesizes a complete copy of the DNA in its nucleus. It also duplicates a microtubule-organizing structure called the centrosome. The centrosomes help separate DNA during M phase.
G_2 During the second gap phase, or G_2 the cell grows more, makes proteins and organelles, and begins to reorganize its contents in preparation for mitosis. G_2 phase ends when mitosis begins.
The G_1 , S, and G_2, together are known as interphase.
The G0 phase (referred to the G zero phase) or resting phase is a period in the cell cycle in which cells exist in a quiescent state. G0 phase is viewed as either an extended G1 phase, where the cell is neither dividing nor preparing to divide, or a distinct quiescent stage that occurs outside of the cell cycle. Rapidly dividing cells like cancer cells do not necessarily have a G0

46
Q

Pulmonary arterial blood differs from the aortic blood because it has:

A

Blood in the pulmonary artery is lower in oxygen, higher in CO2 and has a lower pH than arterial blood in the aorta. This is because the blood in the pulmonary artery, unlike blood in other arteries, is essentially the same as venous blood. It has passed through the tissues of the body where it has given up oxygen and taken on CO2. It has been pumped through the right side of the heart from the veins and headed for the lung where it will become oxygenated and will dispose of its CO2 load. Venous blood is lower in pH than arterial blood due primarily to the CO2 it carries.

47
Q

Contraction of the diaphragm results in a:

A

The diaphragm is a muscular partition between the abdominal and thoracic cavities. It is dome-shaped at rest curving up toward the lungs and heart. It flattens when it contracts during inspiration. Because it is anchored around its edges to the ribs and spine, when the diaphragm contracts the volume of the thoracic cavity increases. This decreases the pressure (IPP) in the pleural cavity between the thoracic wall and the lung. Fresh air flows in to equalize the pressure inflating the lung.

48
Q

What is cholesterol a precursor for? What is known about its structure?

A

Cholesterol is a steroid which means it is known for its fused 4 ring structure. Cholesterol is a precursor for androgens including testosterone, aldosterone, and cortisol Think CAH (congenital adrenal hyperplasia), this would get rid of aldosterone and cortisol and exacerbate androgen expression

49
Q

What is one characteristic common to arteries, veins, and capillaries is the:

1) presence of a layer of endothelial cells.
2) presence of numerous valves that prevent the backflow of blood.
3) ability to actively dilate or constrict in regulating blood flow.
4) ability to supply surrounding tissues with nutrients by filtration and diffusion.

A

The question asks the examinee to identify one characteristic common to arteries, capillaries, and veins. A is correct because all three types of vessels possess an inner layer of endothelial cells. B is incorrect because only veins have valves. C is incorrect because only certain types of arteries dilate or constrict to regulate blood flow. D is incorrect because the exchange of nutrients with the surrounding tissues occurs only in capillaries. Thus, A is the best answer.

50
Q

The pancreas produces what substance for the digestive system?

A

The pancreas produces several proteolytic enzymes, which are released into the small intestine where they are converted to their active forms of trypsin, chymotrypsin, and carboxypeptidase.

51
Q

Describe the different cellular muscle types:

A

Slow-twitch, Type I

These muscle fibers have high concentrations of mitochondria and myoglobin, and although they are smaller than the fast-twitch fibers, are surrounded by more capillaries (1,2). This combination supports their capacity for aerobic metabolism and fatigue resistance, particularly important for prolonged submaximal exercise activities. Type I fibers produce less force, are slower to produce maximal tension (lower myosin ATPase activity) compared to type II fibers, but they are able to maintain longer-term contractions, key for stabilization and postural control (1,2).

Fast-twitch, Type II

Our fast-twitch, type II muscle fibers are further divided into type IIx and type IIa. Typically, these have lower concentrations of mitochondria, myoglobin, and capillaries compared to our slow-twitch fibers and are quicker to fatigue (1,2). These larger-sized fibers are also able to produce a greater and quicker force, an important consideration for power activities (1,2).

Type IIx: These fibers produce the most force, but are incredibly inefficient based on their high myosin ATPase activity, low oxidative capacity, and heavy reliance on anaerobic metabolism (1,2).
Type IIa: These fibers are also known as intermediate fibers, a mix if you will, of type I and type IIx, with comparable tension. Able to use both aerobic and anaerobic energy systems, these fibers have a higher oxidative capacity and fatigue more slowly than type IIx (1,2).
three main types of skeletal muscle fibers. Slow oxidative (SO) fibers contract relatively slowly and use aerobic respiration (oxygen and glucose) to produce ATP. Fast oxidative (FO) fibers have fast contractions and primarily use aerobic respiration, but because they may switch to anaerobic respiration (glycolysis), can fatigue more quickly than SO fibers. Lastly, fast glycolytic (FG) fibers have fast contractions and primarily use anaerobic glycolysis. The FG fibers fatigue more quickly than the others. Most skeletal muscles in a human contain(s) all three types, although in varying proportions.

52
Q

Which steps of muscle contraction require ATP:
Which steps involved in the contraction of a skeletal muscle require binding and/or hydrolysis of ATP?
1. Dissociation of myosin head from actin filament
2. Attachment of myosin head to actin filament
3. Conformational change that moves actin and myosin filaments relative to one another
4.Binding of troponin to actin filament
5. Release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
6. Reuptake of calcium into the sarcoplasm

A

Dissociation of the myosin head from the actin filament requires the binding of ATP (I). Attachment of the myosin head to the actin filament requires calcium and a troponin/tropomyosin shift (II). The conformational changes that move actin and myosin relative to one another require that ATP be hydrolyzed, for these changes occur upon release of the products of hydrolysis (ADP and Pi) by the myosin head (III). Binding of troponin to actin does not require the hydrolysis of ATP (IV). Release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum also does not require ATP hydrolysis. This release occurs when calcium ions move via voltage-gated ion channels down their concentration gradient (V). The reuptake of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum occurs via an ATP-hydrolyzing pump that moves calcium against its concentration gradient (VI). Thus, C is the correct response.

53
Q

How does a competitive inhibitor affect Km and Vmax? Non competitive? Uncompetitive? Mixed?

A

A competitive inhibitor does not change the Vmax because high substrate concentrations displace the inhibitor. However, at low substrate concentrations, a competitor inhibitor competes well for the binding site so the KM increases. A competitive inhibitor binds to the same site as the substrate. It thereby increases KM while leaving Vmax unchanged. In non-competitive inhibition, the inhibitor binds to an allosteric site and prevents the enzyme-substrate complex from performing a chemical reaction. This does not affect the Km (affinity) of the enzyme (for the substrate). but it does decrease the vmax. Uncompetitive inhibitor binds to enzyme-substrate complex to stop enzyme from reacting with substrate to form product, as such, it works well at higher substrate and enzyme concentrations that substrates are bonded to enzymes; the binding results in decreasing concentration of substrate binding to enzyme, Km, and Vmax, and increasing binding affinity of enzyme to substrate. Mixed also effects Km and Vmax

54
Q

I f aprokeryotic transcript is known to have a short half life within the cytosol, by which mechanism do you think it is transported to the cytoplasmic membrane once it is synthesized?

1) Diffusion across the cytoplasm
2) Transport via attachment to the mitotic spindle
3) Active transport along cytoskeletal filaments
4) Transport from the endoplasmic reticulum in vesicles

A

1) This is incorrect. This process would not be preferable because it would take too long.
2) This is incorrect. E. coli cells and, more generally, prokaryotes do not undergo mitosis.
3) This would allow for more rapid transport than diffusion.
4) This is incorrect. E. coli cells do not have endoplasmic reticulum or vesicles.

55
Q

Where are platelets and erythrocytes derived from? What do platelets do and how does this connect to the liver?

A

Platelets and erythrocytes are derived from progenitors in the bone marrow. The liver synthesizes blood clotting factors that act cooperatively with platelets to facilitate blood clotting. Platelets form a plug at the site where a blood vessel has been damaged. Blood clotting factors that have been synthesized in the liver in an inactive form then participate in a cascade that leads to a blood clot.

56
Q

What are kinases? Transferases? Decarboxylases? Dehydrogenases?

A

Kinases are enzymes that modify protein targets by the transfer of phosphate groups. Transferases are enzymes that catalyze the transfer of functional groups between molecules. the removal of a carbon from the carbon chain. These reactions are often catalyzed by decarboxylases. Dehydrogenases are enzymes that catalyze oxidation reactions.

57
Q

What is the equation for Gibbs free energy and what makes a reaction spontaneous?

A

The Gibbs free energy equation is ΔG=ΔH–TΔS. In order for a reaction to occur spontaneously, the final value for ΔG must be negative. The only combination of ΔH and ΔS that will always result in a negative ΔG is a negative ΔH and a positive ΔS because of the presence of the –Tterm.

58
Q

What is peptidoglycan?

A

Peptidoglycan is found in the cell walls of some bacteria, but not in the cell membranes of eukaryotes.

59
Q

Increasing the volume of air that reaches the alveoli and takes part in gas exchange will cause blood pH to:

A

Increasing the volume of air that reaches the alveoli and takes part in gas exchange will enhance O2 uptake and CO2 removal, thereby increasing blood pH. Shifts the equilibrium of the equation to the left

60
Q

How can you tell the difference between the purines and the pyrimidines.

A

Purines are pure as gold a pure structure is intact which is why they have both rings (adenine and guanine) Guanine has more Ns when comparing between purines, can H bond three times while adenine can only H bond twice.
Pyrimidines are like pyrimids they are sharp they CUT (cytosine uracil and thymine) Cytosine has 4 Ns thymine has 2 Ns and uracil also has 2
Comparing Pyrimidines cytosine has more Ns
Comparing between thymine and uracil you see that uracil has an extra methyl group

61
Q

What is the difference between a prion, a viroid, and a bacteriophage?

A

All subviral particles (smaller than viruses) nonliving infectious agents like virsuses (acellular only have a capsid protecting DNA or RNA)
prion is an abnormally folded protein that induces a normally folded version of the protein to also adopt the abnormal structure, which is often deleterious. Have no genetic material they are only made of proteins, a prion protein tends to be in a beta sheet conformation, normal proteins are normally in alpha helix conformation when prions interact it turns them to beta sheet conformation making protein deposits. (especially bad in prain because deposits will be cleaned up leaving a hole in the brain
Viroids are smaller than viruses because they are a single strand of circular RNA, e.g. in humans hepatitis B. Contains catalytic RNA can make or make break covalent bonds because it can do that it can self cleave to make more viroids. (virions are WHOLE viruses protein coat and RNA)

62
Q

Describe the rules related to Michaelis Menten plots.

A

Due to the divergent features of enzymes a general standardization of enzyme assays is not possible, rather special rules can be given as follows:

pH: Preferentially the pH of the pH optimum of the respective enzyme is chosen, as far as possible at or near the physiological pH (~7.5).

  1. Buffers and ionic strength: To stabilize the pH, buffers are used, and their pKa value should correspond to the pH optimum of the enzyme assay. Buffer concentrations of about 0.1 M are suitable for most enzyme assays, some (halo- and thermophilic) enzymes require a considerably higher ionic strength.
  2. Temperature: One of three favoured temperatures should be chosen: • 25 °C, the most frequently used one, easy to maintain, but giving relatively low enzyme activities.
  • 30 °C, a compromise between 25 °C and the physiological temperature, especially for temperature sensitive enzymes.
  • 37 °C, the physiological temperature, relatively high enzyme activity, but more difficult to maintain.

Different temperatures are needed for special cases (e.g. thermophilic enzymes).

  1. Concentrations of substrates, and cofactors: should be saturating, as far as possible 100Km, but at least 10Km.
  2. Concentration of the enzyme: as low as possible, but enough to observe the progressing reaction.
  3. Concentrations of additives: (stabilizers, antioxidants, thiol reagents, protease inhibitors, complexing reagents) as required for efficiency. Generally all assay components must be compatible with one another, increase of ionic strength and influence on the pH of the assay must be taken into account.
  4. Conditions of the particular enzyme assay must accurately be specified in the protocol.
63
Q

What molecules are involved in allosterically regulating hemoglobin/ the bohr effect?

A

CO2, and H+, and 2,3 BPG.
T state = tense state = reduced affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. R stare = relaxed state = increased affinity for oxygen. R state can bind oxygen more easily. T state is tense and doesn’t bind oxygen so easily.
2,3 BPG decreases affinity for oxygen by stabilizing the T state of hemoglobin.
Increase in pH (aka decreased H+) and decrease in pco2 increases affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen so that hemoglobin can pick up blood in the lungs. H+ ions and co2 bind to hemoglobin and stabilize the T state which decreases affinity for oxygen. this is Bohr effect.
The enzymes related to 2,3 BPG are glyceraldehyde phosphate dehydrogenase which makes 1,3 BPG and BPG mutase which turns 1,3 into 2,3

64
Q

What does surfactant do?

A

Pulmonary surfactant is a mixture of lipids and proteins which is secreted into the alveolar space by epithelial type II cells. The main function of surfactant is to lower the surface tension at the air/liquid interface within the alveoli of the lung. This is needed to lower the work of breathing and to prevent alveolar collapse at end-expiration.

65
Q

Homotropic vs heterotropic regulation

A

The modulators for allosteric enzymes may be either inhibitory or stimulatory. An activator is often the substrate itself, and regulatory enzymes for which substrate and modulator are identical are called homotropic. When the modulator is a molecule other than the substrate the enzyme is heterotropic. Some enzymes have two or more modulators.

66
Q

What is the Barr body?

A

a small, densely staining structure in the cell nuclei of female mammals, consisting of a condensed, inactive X chromosome. It is regarded as diagnostic of genetic femaleness. Is still replicated but replicates later on