A6 N Flashcards

1
Q

Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services (SSARS) require auditor to:

A

Used the information in a general ledger to prepare financial statements outside of an accounting software system.

SSARS apply when an accountant prepares, compiles, or reviews financial statements. Using information in the general ledger to prepare financial statements outside an accounting software system is considered a preparation engagement.

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2
Q

Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services (SSARS) TYPES of services:

A

> prepares
reviews
compiles

FS

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3
Q

SSARS requires compiled financial statements to be accompanied by a compilation report even if

A

the financial statements are not expected to be used by a third party.

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4
Q

When an accountant performs more than one level of service (for example, a compilation and a review, or a compilation and an audit) concerning the financial statements of a nonissuer, the accountant generally should issue the report that is appropriate for the

A

highest level of service rendered.

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5
Q

Accounting and Review Services Committee

A

is the authoritative body designated to promulgate standards concerning an accountant’s association with unaudited financial statements of a nonissuer (i.e., an entity that is not required to file financial statements with an agency regulating the issuance of the entity’s securities).

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6
Q

departures from SSARS.

A

An accountant should be able to justify departures from SSARS.

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7
Q

Reproducing client-prepared financial statements is NOT an example of Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services

A

Reproducing client-prepared financial statements is NOT an example of Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services

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8
Q

SSARS does not apply when an accountant prepares personal financial statements for inclusion in written personal financial plans.

A

Other situations where SSARS does not apply is when the accountant prepares financial statements:

> solely for submission to taxing authorities,
in conjunction with litigation services that involve pending or potential legal or regulatory proceedings, or
in conjunction with business valuation services.

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9
Q

GAGAS (Generally accepted government auditing standards) specifically include all of the following ethics principles except:

A

Fraud detection.

Ethics, as defined by GAGAS, address the topics of:
>serving the public interest
> integrity,
> objectivity,
>proper use of government information,
> resources and positions, and professional behavior.

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10
Q

auditor should be independent of mind and appearance in providing audits is included in the Generally Accepted Government Auditing Standard ethics principle of:

A

Objectivity.

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11
Q

honest effort in the performance of professional services in accordance with relevant technical and professional standards is included in the Generally Accepted Government Auditing Standard ethics principle of:

A

Professional behavior.

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12
Q

A government internal audit function is presumed to be free from organizational independence impairments for reporting internally when :

A

The head of the organization is removed from political pressures to conduct audits objectively, without fear of political reprisal.

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13
Q

GAGAS Self-interest threat =

A

threat that a financial or other interest will inappropriately influence an auditor’s judgment or behavior.

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14
Q

GAGAS Self-review threat =

A

threat that an auditor or audit organization that has provided nonaudit services will not appropriately evaluate the results of previous judgments made or services performed as part of the nonaudit services when forming a judgment significant to an audit.

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15
Q

A critical component of the determination of whether providing a nonaudit service would create a threat to independence is consideration of management’s ability to effectively oversee the nonaudit service to be performed.

A

A critical component of the determination of whether providing a nonaudit service would create a threat to independence is consideration of management’s ability to effectively oversee the nonaudit service to be performed.

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16
Q

GAGAS Management participation threat=

A

results from an auditor’s taking on the role of management or otherwise performing management functions on behalf of the entity undergoing an audit.

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17
Q

GAGAS Familiarity threat=

A

threat that aspects of a relationship with management or personnel of an audited entity, such as a close or long relationship, or that of an immediate or close family member, will lead an auditor to take a position that is not objective.

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18
Q

During Management participation threat

A

IT IS so significant that no safeguards could reduce the threat to an acceptable level.

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19
Q

Examples of independence impaired in an EBP

A

> Auditor’s spouse has obtained an immaterial direct financial interest in the employee benefit plan. Any direct financial interest in the employee benefit plan by the covered member or the covered member’s immediate family impairs independence.

> member of the auditor’s firm was an investment advisor to the employee benefit plan during the period of professional engagement.

> auditor obtained a material indirect financial interest in the employee benefit plan.

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20
Q

NO independence impairment under EBP EXAMPLE

A

Independence would not be impaired when a member of the auditor’s firm was a voting trustee of the plan in a prior year but has since disassociated from the plan and did not participate in auditing the financial statements of the plan.

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21
Q

partner rotate off the audit engagement

ISSUER vs NON-ISSUER

A

SOX/PCAOB/SEC- 5YRS

AICPA Code of Professional Conduct = does not require audit partner rotation.

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22
Q

PCAOB must conduct an inspection

A

100 or fewer audit reports. =once every 3 years

100 or MORE audit reports. = Annual

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23
Q

The Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB) consists of:

A

The PCAOB consists of exactly 2 CPAs and 3 non-CPAs.

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24
Q

Which organizations was established by the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 to control the auditing profession?

A

Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB).

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25
Q

To participate in the preparation of audit reports for a company registered with the SEC, a CPA firm must first register with… ?`

A

Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB)

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26
Q

sanctions imposed by the PCAOB

A

I. Financial penalties.

II. Suspension or revocation of PCAOB registration.

III. Required continuing professional education (CPE) courses.

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27
Q

the retention period for audit working

A

5 years - non issuers

7 years for issuers

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28
Q

example of an action that does not impair the auditor’s independence.

A

An auditor of an issuer is permitted to provide factual accounts in testimony explaining positions taken during the performance of any services provided to the client.

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29
Q

PROHIBITED services an auditor can provide under PCAOB:

A

> bookkeeping,
appraisal,
valuation, or actuarial services, or management functions

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30
Q

PCOB Rules for working at a client:

A

an audit team member may not accept employment as a chief executive, chief financial or chief accounting officer, or controller of an audit client that files reports with the Securities and Exchange Commission for 1 year.

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31
Q

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act addresses the problems related to inadequate board oversight by requiring public companies to have an:

A

Audit committee.

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32
Q

The Sarbanes-Oxley dictated that Accounting Firm (external auditors) report directly to

A

Audit Committee

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33
Q

According to COSO, which of the following organizational structures best promotes internal control?

A

Corporate internal audit staff with direct reporting to the corporate director of internal audit, who in turn reports to the audit committee.

34
Q

Audit committee members are to be members of the issuer’s Board of Directors but also must be otherwise independent. Independence criteria are as follows:

A

> Audit committee members may not accept compensation from the issuer for consulting or advisory services.

> Audit committee members may not be an affiliated person of the issuer (affiliation means a person has the ability to influence financial decisions).

35
Q

Who is required to make special certification (SIGN the report/representations) statements regarding the establishment of internal control systems on Form 10-K?

A

Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, the principal executive and financial officers (typically the CEO and CFO) of a public company must sign representations in the annual and quarterly financial reports produced by the company.

36
Q

Audit committee members

A

must be members of the company’s board of directors.
They must be independent, which means that they cannot accept compensation for consulting or advisory services and may not be an affiliated person of the company.

37
Q

Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (The Act), the audit committee should establish a complaint procedure that is

A

Confidential and that allows for anonymous reports of audit or accounting irregularities.

38
Q

Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 on improper influence on the conduct of audits

A

occurs when an officer or director of an issuer fraudulently influences, coerces, manipulates, or misleads the independent auditor of the financial statements for the purpose of rendering the financial statements materially misleading.

39
Q

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 requires that : In the financial reports, the issuer must disclose the existence of financial expert(s) on the committee or the reasons why the committee does not have a financial expert.

A

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 requires that : In the financial reports, the issuer must disclose the existence of financial expert(s) on the committee or the reasons why the committee does not have a financial expert.

40
Q

the following is necessary to be an audit committee financial expert, according to the criteria specified in the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002?

A

Experience with internal accounting controls.

41
Q

codes of conduct

A

> Should be in writing and available to employees who want to read it (not required to be displayed in public areas)

> needs to be comprehensive, rather than just addressing one or two potential issues.

> should establish that certain behaviors are acceptable/unacceptable and should also provide guidance to employees as to how to handle situations where they encounter unacceptable behavior.

> Employees should periodically review and acknowledge the code of conduct.

42
Q

A financial expert qualifies through

A

education, past experience as a public accountant, or past experience as a principal financial officer, controller, or principal accounting officer for an issuer.

43
Q

Section 404 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 requires each annual report of an issuer to include…?

A

Management’s assessment of the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting.

& REPORT MUST Attest to and report on the internal control assessment made by the management of the issuer.

44
Q

Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, an issuer must disclose whether or not it has adopted a code of ethics for …?

A

The issuer’s senior financial officers (e.g., CEO, CFO, controller, etc.), but not for other employees of the issuer.

45
Q

SOX 2002:
If an issuer discloses that it has an audit committee financial expert, it also must disclose the expert’s name.

A

SOX 2002:
If an issuer discloses that it has an audit committee financial expert, it also must disclose the expert’s name.

46
Q

Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, the penalty for intentionally destroying documents to impede, obstruct, or influence an investigation will be

A

a fine, imprisonment for not more than 20 years, or both.

47
Q

Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, a chief executive officer or chief financial officer who misrepresents the company’s finances may be penalized by being:

A

Fined and imprisoned.

48
Q

A CPA in charge of the external audit of a nonissuer received an unexpected inheritance that includes 100 shares of the audit client’s common stock. Which of the following actions should the CPA take to avoid violating independence rules?

A

Sell or donate the stock within 30 days after receipt of ownership rights.

49
Q

An auditor’s independence is not impaired if the auditor has a cash balance in a brokerage account that is fully covered by the Securities Investor Protection Corporation.

A

An auditor’s independence is not impaired if the auditor has a cash balance in a brokerage account that is fully covered by the Securities Investor Protection Corporation.

50
Q

the independence of the registered public accounting firm would not be considered impaired if the former partner has no remaining capital balance in the registered public accounting firm.

A

the independence of the registered public accounting firm would not be considered impaired if the former partner has no remaining capital balance in the registered public accounting firm.

51
Q

All audit partners must rotate off the audit engagement after five years ??? TRUE OF FALSE ?

A

FALSE…Under the SEC’s rules, the lead and concurring partner must rotate off the engagement after 5 years and other audit partners must rotate after 7 years.

52
Q

Non-audit services to perform financial information systems design and implementation is a service that will impairing independence

A

Financial information systems design and implementation to an attestation client would impair independence. B/C auditor will be designing them and then testing them so that is not RIGHT

53
Q

The provision of services involving contingent fee arrangements impairs the auditor’s independence .. EXAMPLE=

A

Preparation of Perigee’s routine annual tax return, where Jackson’s fee will be calculated as a percentage of the tax refund obtained.

El pago al auditor depende de cuanto TAX Refund the company will gent = contingent fee

54
Q

Personal tax services provided to employees do not impair the auditor’s independence; however, personal tax services provided to corporate officers or their families would impair independence.

A

Personal tax services provided to employees do not impair the auditor’s independence; however, personal tax services provided to corporate officers or their families would impair independence.

55
Q

Permitted tax services include

A

> tax compliance
tax planning
and tax advice.

The PCAOB prohibits tax services related to confidential or aggressive tax transactions and tax services to corporate officers of audit clients or immediate family members of corporate officers.

56
Q

An issuer’s auditor is prohibited from providing tax services to

A

Corporate officers manage the day-to-day operations of the corporation and include positions such as the CEO, CFO, and COO.

57
Q

The following types of loans do not impair independence

A
  1. Automobile loans
  2. Loans of the surrender value under terms of an insurance policy
  3. Borrowings fully collateralized by cash deposits at the same financial institution
  4. Credit cards and cash advances on checking accounts with an aggregate unpaid balance of $10,000 or less
58
Q

Violation of ethical standards - client records

A

Failure to return records to a client after the client makes a demand is considered to be an act discreditable to the profession, and as such violates the profession’s ethical standards.

59
Q

prohibited acts by CPA

A

Accepting a commission for recommending a product to an audit client.

60
Q

Which statements best explains why the CPA profession has found it essential to promulgate ethical standards and to establish means for ensuring their observance?

A

A distinguishing mark of a profession is its acceptance of responsibility to the public.

61
Q

AICPA code of professional conduct applies to:

A

Compilations and reviews of the financial statements of nonissuers.

62
Q

Due Care =

A

Providing services with competence and diligence

Competence is demonstrated by observing the profession’s technical and ethical standards and continually improving competence and the quality of service.
Diligence is demonstrated by acting with professional responsibility to the best of the member’s ability.

63
Q

Under the ethical standards of the profession, which of the following investments in a client is not considered to be a direct financial interest?

A

An investment held through a nonclient regulated mutual fund.

64
Q

Compilation

A

Independence is not required for compilation engagements or for preparation of a tax return.

65
Q

According to the Code, a close relative is defined as

A

parent, sibling, or nondependent child.

66
Q

A CPA who is going to join as BOD of a bank can not accept if any of the following are present:

A

> One of Bingham’s clients has several business loans outstanding with the bank.

> Several of Bingham’s clients are in negotiations with this and other banks for operating loans.

> One of Bingham’s clients, who is struggling financially, is in the loan application process at the bank.

67
Q

After completing disassociation from client (he used ot be ocntroller at client now audit manager at firm)the senior manager can audit that as an auditor if:

A

audit of a period that begins after his or her employment and disassociation with the client.

68
Q

Under the ethical standards of the profession, Advisor to a client’s board of trustees would generally not impair an auditor’s independence because:

A

An advisor of an audit client’s board of directors is not an employee, nor is the advisor able to make management decisions for the audit client. The advisor does not make decisions, the advisor simply gives advice that the client is free to accept or reject.

69
Q

independence impaired examples

A

bookkeeping activities that include authorizing, executing or consummating a transaction on behalf of a client or preparing source documents or originating data (e.g., purchase orders).

70
Q

The AICPA Code of Professional Conduct’s general standards include all the following:

A

> Due professional care.
Sufficient relevant data.
Planning and supervision.

71
Q

Independence is impaired if ….

A

if more than one year’s fees due from a client remain unpaid.

i.e. Issued an unqualified opinion on the Year 2 financial statements when fees for the Year 1 audit were unpaid.

72
Q

According to the profession’s ethical standards, a departure from U.S. GAAP.

A

may be justified if the CPA can demonstrate that due to unusual circumstances,
> such as new legislation or
>the evolution of a new form of business transaction, the financial statements would otherwise be misleading.

73
Q

Contingent fees to auditor only allowed if:

A

If fixed by courts, other public authorities, or in tax matters if based on the results of judicial proceedings.

i.e. (Seeking a private letter ruling.)

74
Q

circumstances under which a CPA firm may or may not disclose the names of its clients without the clients’ express permission?

A

Name can be disclosed if: this information unless disclosure would suggest that the client may be experiencing financial difficulties.

Basicamente si el CPA no lo comunica estaria cubriendolo

75
Q

Which of the following best describes the effect of a contingent fee arrangement on the auditor’s independence?

A

The contingent fee arrangement impairs independence.

si la prgunta es solita entonces esa es la mejor opcion … pero si nos dice cuales estan permitidas entonces tienen que ser FIXED BY COURTS, TAX AUTHORITIES,Seeking Private Ruling etc

76
Q

According to the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct, which of the following activities results in an act discreditable to the profession?

A

A CPA solicits recent Uniform CPA Examination questions without written authorization from the AICPA.

77
Q

Compiled financial statements that omit substantially all the disclosures required by GAAP are not comparable to financial statements that do include required GAAP disclosures.

A

CAN’T BE REPORTED on comparative format

78
Q

Compilation

A

Is not an assurance engagement & report does not provide any opinion or conclusion on the financial statements

79
Q

Attestation Services

A

> Review of financial statements
Agreed-upon procedures (AUP)
Examination of prospective financial information

For all Accountant is accountant is required to issue a report that indicates their findings

80
Q

Compilation

A

The accountant is NOT required to make inquiries nor perform procedures to corroborate the information provided by the client.

81
Q

Review engagement (attestation service)

A

obtaining corroborating external evidence would generally not be required.

Normally Accountant DO perform the following:
A. Inquiring of the accounting department’s management.
B. Reading the available minutes of the latest stockholders’ meeting.
C. Applying financial ratios to the interim financial information.

82
Q
A