A3 N Flashcards

1
Q

government establishes a fixed price what are the anticipated long-term effects on consumers and producers?

A

Consumers will buy more and producers will make less.

OJO: Como hay precio fijo + gente lo va a comprar y menos va a haber de produccion pq demanda es muy alta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Lagging indicators

A

follow economic ACTIVITY

I.E. Inventories-to-sales ratios, the prime rate charged by banks and the consumer debt-to-income ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Leading economic indicators

A

Tend to predict economic activity.

I.E. Orders for goods, building permits, and unfilled orders are all examples of leading indicators.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Coincident indicators

A

These indicators change at approximately the same time as the whole economy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are Analytical procedures?

A

Analytical procedures involve comparison of recorded amounts to independent expectations developed by the auditor.

During the planning stage, analytical procedures generally use financial data, such as unaudited information from internal quarterly reports.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Performing preliminary test of controls over selected transaction cycles.

A

is NOT a risk assessment procedure recommended by PCAOB standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Risks relevant to financial reporting can arise due to which of the following circumstances?

A

Rapid growth in the entity’s operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

BUSINESS CYCLE:
The trough of a business cycle is an economic low point with no positive indicators for the future.

This is characterized by?

A

The trough of a business cycle is an economic low point with no positive indicators for the future.

During a trough, firm profits are likely to be at their lowest level. Firms often try to reduce the size of their workforce and reduce other costs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

BUSINESS CYCLE:
Peak Phase

A

The peak of a business cycle marks the highest point of economic activity.

At that point, firms are likely to face capacity constraints and labor shortages, which will put upward pressure on the overall price level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

BUSINESS CYCLE:
Expansionary phase

A

Firm profits will generally be increasing, because the demand for goods and services is increasing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

BUSINESS CYCLE:
Contractionary phase

A

Decrease in economic activity, when the economy is contracting. This phase follows a peak, and firm profits will generally be decreasing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

BUSINESS CYCLE:
normal sequence of a business cycle is?

A

Expansion, peak, contraction, and trough.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Automated controls more suitable for:

A

> High-volume transactions that require additional calculations.
Circumstances that require a high degree of accuracy.
Situations with routine errors that can be predicted and corrected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MANUAL controls more suitable for:

A

Large, unusual, or nonrecurring transactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Preventative controls

A

are applied before the processing of transactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following constitutes a potential risk associated with the use of information technology in an entity’s system of internal control?

A

Unauthorized changes to systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Monitoring controls

A

help assess the quality of control operation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Physical controls

A

relate to safeguarding assets, such as using security devices to limit access to programs and restricted areas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Information-processing controls

A

apply to the processing of individual transactions and help to ensure that transactions occurred, are authorized, and are completely and accurately processed and reported.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

General controls

A

are policies and procedures that relate to many applications and support the effective functioning and proper operation of the information system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

WALKTHROUGH
always include OBSERVATION and ?

A

Inquiry, observation, inspection of relevant documentation, and reperformance of controls.

NEVER a SAMPLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Example of Limitations of IC

A

The limitations of internal control.

Human error, including faulty or biased judgment used in decision making, is an example of a limitation of internal control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Inherent limitation to a system of internal control is

A

The fact that controls can be circumvented by management override.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Test of Controls vs. Substantive testing

A

After performing risk assessment procedures, an auditor might decide not to perform tests of controls because it would be inefficient. In other words, the time required to perform tests of controls would be greater than the reduction in time spent on substantive testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

An overall response to address a high-assessed risk of material misstatement at the financial statement level of a nonissuer may include:

A

> Providing more supervision of the audit team.
Increase the emphasis on professional skepticism when gathering and evaluating audit evidence with the audit team.
Assigning more experienced staff or those with specialized skills to high-risk areas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

method of sampling does not impact the sample size

A

The sampling method may help the auditor select the items for the tests of details, but it will not modify the nature, extent, or timing of the tests of details.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following factors should prompt an auditor to seek a larger sample size for tests of details?

A

High assessed level of control risk and high assessed level of inherent risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

CONTROLS:
In order to set Control RisK at LOW

A

tests of controls would need to be performed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

CONTOLS:

It is OK NOT to TOC if

A

If it would take less time or be more efficient to perform substantive tests than it would to perform tests of controls, and if there is no other reason to test controls (i.e., if there is not a high degree of electronic processing).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Substantive audit procedures ONLY required for….

A

financial statement audit

NOT required for audit of internal control over financial reporting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Una de las claves para hacer INTERIM Testig es :

A

que las cuentas puedan ser reasonably predictable (IS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

RECESSION

A

A recession occurs when economic activity or output, as measured by GDP, declines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

CONTROLS:
Substance over form

A

relate to controls that appear on the surface to exist but in reality are not operating effectively.

I.E.=Management may establish appropriate procedures but not enforce compliance with them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Inherent Limitations Include:

A

> management override
human error
and deliberate circumvention of controls by collusion of two or more people.

35
Q

In an audit of financial statements, an auditor’s primary consideration regarding internal control is whether the control:

A

Affects management’s financial statement assertions.

36
Q

What is the primary objective of data security controls?

A

is to ensure that storage media are only accessed, changed, or deleted after appropriate authorization. The objective is to protect information.

37
Q

In assessing control risk, an auditor ordinarily selects from a variety of techniques, including:

A

Reperformance : used to evaluate the effectiveness of the operation of that control.

NOT :Confirmation, verification, and analytical procedures b/c they are substantive procedures.

38
Q

Audit evidence concerning segregation of duties ordinarily is best obtained by:

A

Observing the employees as they apply control procedures.

39
Q

Projections indicate that the economy is entering a slowdown. What is the expected outcome in the near future?

A

A drop in interest rates

40
Q

firewall

A

To prevent unauthorized access to a network, requiring all users to have a password helps to minimize vulnerability.

41
Q

Example of noncompliance with laws and regulations

A

The discovery of unexplained payments made to government employees

42
Q

When auditor discovers lawsuits filed against a client…

A

auditor will ask the client to assess the degree of probability of an unfavorable outcome for the client.

43
Q

IF LAWSUIT is both PROBABLE & REASONABLY EXTIMABLE…. client needs to:

A

record the liability for the contingencies

44
Q

Which of the following conditions most likely suggests that an auditor may have substantial doubt about an entity’s ability to continue as a going concern?

A

Cash flows from operations are negative.

working capital shortages

45
Q

Supporting evidence obtained from outside sources provides…

A

greater assurance of reliability and its more persuasive

46
Q

Supporting Evidence

PERSUASIVE vs conclusive

A

The auditor would generally rely on persuasive evidence rather than conclusive evidence.

47
Q

Strong, effective controls improve the reliability of data.

A

Strong, effective controls improve the reliability of data.

48
Q

The reliability of evidence gathered by an auditor of a nonissuer is most influenced by:

A

The source and nature of the evidence and the circumstances under which it is obtained.

49
Q

Audit Evidence sufficiency->

A

measure of the sufficiency of audit evidence lies in the auditor’s judgment.

50
Q

Which of the following ultimately determines the sufficiency and appropriateness of audit evidence to support the auditor’s conclusions?

A

Professional judgment.

51
Q

PCAOB standards state that the relevance of audit evidences depends on all but which of the following?

A

The auditor’s risk assessment.

52
Q

The objective of tests of details of transactions performed as substantive tests is to:

A

Detect material misstatements in the financial statements.

53
Q

transactions subject to management discretion (travel and entertainment) are less predictable.

A

transactions subject to management discretion (travel and entertainment) are less predictable.

54
Q

Inspection of documentation =

A

Inspection involves examining records or documents. The terms of inspection and examination are often used interchangeably in audit.

55
Q

Even if there are fewer transactions during the year… auditor should perform

A

Test of details

56
Q

analytical procedures

A

Analytical procedures are not required to be used as a substantive test and are more likely to be used for accounts that are predictable.

57
Q

If the objective of a test of details is to detect overstatements of sales, the auditor should trace transactions from the:

A

Accounting records to the source documents.

58
Q

Accounting records example =

A

i.e. Sales Journal

59
Q

Source Documents example=

A

e.g., customer order, sales order, shipping documents, etc.).

60
Q

Analytical procedures performed in the final review stage of an audit generally would include

A

Considering the adequacy of the evidence gathered in response to unexpected balances identified in planning.

61
Q

completeness assertion

A

auditor’s test starts with source documents (customer order, sales order, shipping documents, etc.) and then traces transaction information to the client’s journal entries.

ojo: audit procedures used to test the completeness assertion are observation, tracing, and performing analytical review procedures.

62
Q

valuation assertion

A

usually not associated with directional test of details

63
Q

existence assertion.

A

client’s journal entries to their source documents

KEY Word = VOUCHING

64
Q

cutoff assertion

A

usually NOT associated with directional test of details.

65
Q

With respect to accounting estimates, an auditor:

A

Should verify that all material estimates required by generally accepted accounting principles have been developed.

66
Q

accounting estimates

A

he auditor should focus on assumptions that are subjective (not objective), sensitive (not insensitive) to variation, and deviate from historical patterns, as these types of assumptions are more likely to result in unreasonable estimates.

67
Q

Which of the following parties should request inquiry of a client’s lawyer?

A

Client management.

Note that management would request the attorney to respond directly to the auditor.

68
Q

In which of the following locations should a copy of the accounting system data backup of year-end information be stored?

A

Secure off-site location.

69
Q

DATA ANALYTICS:
Scatter plots

A

demonstrate the relationship among variables.
Scatter plots allow for regression lines to be added to show the direction and strength of correlation.

i.e. utility expenses correspond with daily temperatures

70
Q

DATA ANALYTICS:
Bar charts

A

demonstrate comparative information

71
Q

DATA ANALYTICS:
Line charts

A

demonstrate TREND information

72
Q

DATA ANALYTICS:
Pie charts

A

demonstrate proportional information

73
Q

DATA ANALYTICS:
Bullet chart

A

demonstrate variance analysis.

74
Q

DATA ANALYTICS:
step of the audit data analytic process

A

> Plan the audit data analytic
Review and analyze the relevance and reliability of the sourced data.
Perform the audit data analytic
valuate and address the outcomes of the audit data analytic.

75
Q

DATA ANALYTICS:
Types of DATA ANALYTICS:

A

> Diagnostic analytic :explain why ( PQ) something happened.

> Prescriptive analytic: prescribe or recommend actions to be taken based on advanced analytics to reach a desired goal.

> Predictive analytic: provide expected or predicted outcomes based on historical data. (i.e. estimate regression analysis)

> Descriptive analytic: describe what happened within the data.

76
Q

DATA ANALYTICS:
FOREIGN Key

A

found in RELATIONAL database table

77
Q

DATA ANALYTICS:
Type of Data:

A

Unstructured data = not organized. I.E. Social media posts has a variety of data formats and types, including text, numbers, images, audio, and video.

Structured data = organized and easily searchable. i.e. Data mart & Spreadsheet

78
Q

DATA ANALYTICS:
visualizations to present audit data analytics

A

Are utilized for both analyzing data and communicating findings.

79
Q

Aspect of sampling risk:
Incorrect rejection.

A

Erroneously concluding that an account balance is materially misstated is an example of incorrect rejection.

De primera mano pensar que esta MAL (hacerla menos y rechazarla) cuando en vdd estaba bien.

80
Q

Aspect of sampling risk:
Incorrect acceptance.

A

If the auditor had concluded that the account was fairly presented when, in fact, it was not, it would be an example of incorrect acceptance.

CUANDO aceptamos de un principo que ESTA BIEN y no esta

81
Q

statistical sampling

A

Provide an objective basis for quantitatively evaluating sample risk.

By using statistical sampling, the auditor can quantify sampling risk to assist in limiting it to a level considered acceptable.

82
Q

Deviation=

A

Error

83
Q

Collusion of two or more people is an example of

A

represents a limitation of IC

84
Q

During an audit, an auditor discovers lawsuits filed against a client. Which of the following would be the next action taken by the auditor?

A

Have the client assess the degree of probability of an unfavorable outcome for the company.