A4, M6-M9 Flashcards

1
Q

What should be included on a requisition form for PPE acquisitions?

A
  • description
  • reason for acquisition
  • amount to be charged
  • probable cost
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2
Q

Who should approve of acquisitions?

A

Top management, and board of directors if over a specified high amount.

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3
Q

What is in the subsidiary ledger for PPE?

A

detailed information about each asset

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4
Q

What is involved in physical security controls for PPE?

A

Fixed assets should have identification plates or stickers.

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5
Q

The serial number on the fixed asset identification plates should be listed in the _____ _____.

A

control account

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6
Q

What are two other physical controls to safeguard assets from theft, destruction, or unauthorized disposition?

A
  • periodic physical inspection of plant and equipment
  • locks on rooms
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7
Q

What controls around internal documentation should be maintained for PPE?

A

written depreciation policies and records should be maintained

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8
Q

What controls should be in place around dispositions/retirement of assets?

A

(1) should be documented
(2) on a sequentially numbered work order
(3) containing evidence of proper authorization and reason for retirement

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9
Q

Searching for unrecorded retirements is a test of what assertion?

A

Existence/occurnce, because you are looking at whether those assets really still exist (belong on the books).

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10
Q

What is the most common procedure on the accumulated depreciation account?

A

recalculation

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11
Q

What three procedures should be performed for the completeness assertion for PPE (B/S)?

A
  • Obtain a fixed asset schedule and agree the total to the GL
  • Obtain schedule of additions and dispositions of fixed assets and agree amounts to the fixed asset schedules
  • Trace a sample of actual fixed assets to the fixed asset schedule and subsidiary ledger
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12
Q

What procedures should be performed for the cutoff assertion for PPE (B/S)?

A

N/A, not a relevant assertion for BS accounts.

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13
Q

What two procedures should be performed for the valuation assertion for PPE (B/S)?

A
  • Recalculate accumulated depreciation for reasonableness.
  • Evaluate fixed assets for impairment by examining the entity’s docment impairment analysis.
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14
Q

What two procedures should be performed for the existence assertion for PPE (B/S)?

A
  • Vouch additions to fixed assets by examining internal & external documents, and inspecting the actual assets
  • Unrecorded Retirements: Select older fixed assets from the records, and locate them.
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15
Q

What procedure should be performed for the rights assertion for PPE (B/S)?

A

Examine invoices, deeds, and title documents to confirm ownership of fixed assets.

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16
Q

What procedure should be performed for the valuation assertion for PPE Transactions (I/S)?

A
  • Recalculate depreciation expense amounts for reasonableness and conformity with GAAP.
  • Gains and losses and removal of AD should be tested for reasonableness.
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17
Q

What two procedures should be performed for the completeness assertion for PPE Transactions (I/S)?

A
  • Trace a sample of fixed asset purchase requisitions (source) to receiving reports (source) and the fixed asset subsidiary ledger (records).
  • Review the related repair and maintenance expense accounts to test for completeness of asset additions (accidental expensing).
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18
Q

What procedure should be performed for the cutoff assertion for PPE Transactions (I/S)?

A

Review fixed asset purchases and dispositions shortly before and after year end for recording in the proper period.

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19
Q

What two procedures should be performed for the existence assertion for PPE Transactions (I/S)?

A
  • Purchases: Vouch a sample of purchases (records) to the receiving report and vendor invoice (source).
  • Dispositions: Vouch a sample of dispositions (records) to the asset retirement form and other supporting documentation (source).
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20
Q

What procedure should be performed for the rights/obligations assertion for PPE Transactions (I/S)?

A

N/A, not a relevant assertion for I/S accounts.

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21
Q

What procedure should be performed for the understandability assertion for PPE Transactions (I/S)?

A

Review lease transactions for proper classification.

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22
Q

What responsibility does the human resources department have in the Payroll cycle?

A
  • hire new employees
  • maintain personell records (hire date, department, salary, position)
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23
Q

What component of ARC is the human resources department associated with?

A

authorization (to employ and pay)

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24
Q

Who should approve pay base data (hours, sick days, vacation) for an employee? Why?

A

The employee’s immediate supervisor, because they can attest to whether they actually did work those hours (because they supervise them).

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25
Q

What should be used for timekeeping for hourly employees?

A

time clocks

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26
Q

Who prepares the payroll checks (2 potential options)?

A
  • Service Organization
  • Payroll Department
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27
Q

Who signs the payroll checks?

A

the treasurer or CFO

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28
Q

If a check signature plate (a stamp) is used to sign the payroll checks, what two extra controls should be in place?

A
  • controls over access to blank checks and the check signature plates
  • CFO or Treasurer should supervise the process of using the plates
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29
Q

Access to blank checks and check signature plates relates to which component of ARC?

A

custody

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30
Q

The payroll department is associated with which component of ARC?

A

record-keeping

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31
Q

The treasurer/CFO is associated with which component of ARC?

A

custody

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32
Q

How should checks normally be distributed to employees?

A

direct deposit into employee bank accounts

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33
Q

Who should distribute checks if they are manually distributed?

A

Distributed by a person who has no other payroll function.

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34
Q

What three things does the payroll department do?

A
  • Compute salaries
  • Create the payroll register
  • Prepare unsigned checks
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35
Q

What tests of controls should the auditor perform for the payroll department (5)?

A
  • Observe segregation of duties.
  • Compare personell records with actual time cards and the people working in each department.
  • Observe payroll distribution.
  • Observe the use of time clocks.
  • Test general and application controls.
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36
Q

When the auditor observes payroll distribution, should it be at a scheduled time or unannounced basis?

A

unannounced basis.

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37
Q

What is the goal of observing payroll distribution?

A

ensure that all personnell being paid are actually employed by the company

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38
Q

If controls over payroll are deemed to be effective, what are the two main substantive procedures performed?

A

(1) analytical procedures (compare budget to actual)
(2) recalculation of payroll accruals

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39
Q

Observing distribution of paychecks is a (test of controls/substantive test).

A

test of controls

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40
Q

What procedure is more common, observing distribution of paychecks or performing analytical procedures to compare paid amounts to budgets?

A

Analytical procedures, because new technology means that physical distribution is less likely.

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41
Q

What procedure should be performed for the completeness assertion for Payroll Accrual (B/S)?

A

Search for unrecorded liabilities.

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42
Q

What procedure should be performed for the cutoff assertion for Payroll Accrual (B/S)?

A

N/A, not a relevant assertion for B/S accounts.

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43
Q

What procedure should be performed for the valuation assertion for Payroll Accrual (B/S)?

A

Recalculate any year-end payroll accrual and compare to reported amount.

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44
Q

What procedure should be performed for the existence assertion for Payroll Accrual (B/S)?

A

Vouch amounts from the payroll accrual (records) to supporting documentation (time cards and employee files).

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45
Q

What procedure should be performed for the rights/obligation assertion for Payroll Accrual (B/S)?

A

Examine supporting documentation (employee file) to verify that payroll accrual is an obligation of the entity.

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46
Q

What procedure should be performed for the completeness assertion for Payroll Transactions (I/S)?

A

Trace a sample of time cards (source) to the payroll register (records).

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47
Q

What procedure should be performed for the cutoff assertion for Payroll Transactions (I/S)?

A

Examine a sample of time cards from before and after year-end and compare with the payroll report to determine whether the transactions were recorded in the proper period.

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48
Q

What six procedures should be performed for the valuation assertion for Payroll Transactions (I/S)?

A

”- Compare total recorded payroll with total payroll checks issued.
- Test extensions and footing of payroll.
- Verify pay rates and payroll deductions with employee records.
- Recalculate gross and net pay on a test basis.
- Compare payroll costs with standards/budgets.
- Recompute the mathematical accuracy of a sample of paychecks.”

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49
Q

What procedure should be performed for the existence assertion for Payroll Transactions (I/S)?

A

Vouch time on payroll summaries by selecting a sample of payroll register entries (record) and comparing with time cards and approved time reports (source).

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50
Q

What procedure should be performed for the rights/obligations assertion for Payroll Transactions (I/S)?

A

N/A, not a relevant assertion for I/S accounts.

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51
Q

What procedure should be performed for the understandability assertion for Payroll Transactions (I/S)?

A

Examine a sample of paychecks for classification into the proper expense accounts.

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52
Q

What are the two ways a company can obtain financing?

A
  • acquire debt
  • issue stock
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53
Q

Who should authorize new debt financing?

A

the board or managment

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54
Q

What controls should be in place regarding internal documentation of debt (3)?

A
  • documentation of all financing agreements
  • detailed records of long-term debt
  • periodic independent verification of amounts between the ledger, details of debt, and the note holders’ records
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55
Q

What three things should the board of directors authorize in relation to equity?

A
  • stock issuances
  • dividend declarations
  • treasury stock purchases
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56
Q

Where would evidence of board authorization of equity and debt transactions show up?

A

in the board minutes

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57
Q

What does a stock transfer agent do?

A
  • ensure that stock issuances comply with the articles of incorporation
  • prepares stock certificates
  • maintains records of shares authorized, issued, and outstanding
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58
Q

What two controls should the entity have in place if a stock transfer agent is NOT used?

A
  • periodic independent reconciliation of stock certificate book with number of shares outstanding
  • officer of entity should ensure that transactions comply with the AOI and maintain the stock certificate book
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59
Q

Who should the auditor send confirmation request to in regards to equity?

A

the stock transfer agent

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60
Q

Are board minutes a source or record?

A

record

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61
Q

What five procedures should be performed to test the completeness assertion for Debt Balance (BS)?

A

”- Review board minutes for evidence of new debt, obtain new debt agreements, and trace all new debt contracts to the FS.
- Obtain list of all debt and agree to the GL.
- Inquire of management regarding new debt and off-BS transactions.
- Trace debt on bank confirmations to debt agreements and FS.
- Notes and bonds should be confirmed directly with creditors.”

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62
Q

What procedure should be performed to test the cutoff assertion for Debt Balance (BS)?

A

N/A, not a relevant assertion for B/S accounts.

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62
Q

What two procedures should be performed to test the valuation assertion for Debt Balance (BS)?

A

”- Recompute any interest payable and amortization of premiums/discounts.
- Examine new debt agreements to determine whether they are recorded at the proper amount.”

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63
Q

What procedure should be performed to test the existence assertion for Debt Balance (BS)?

A

Confirm notes or bonds directly with creditors or a custodian (Fidelity).

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64
Q

What procedure should be performed to test the obligations assertion for Debt Balance (BS)?

A

Examine note and bond agreements to verify that they are obligations of the entity.

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65
Q

What two procedures should be performed to test the completeness assertion for Debt Transactions (IS)?

A

”- Examine new debt agreements and the board minutes for evidence of new agreements.
- Review interest expense for payments to debt holders not included in the debt listing.”

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66
Q

What procedure should be performed to test the cutoff assertion for Debt Transactions (IS)?

A

Review debt activity shortly before and after year-end to ensure transactions were reported in the proper period.

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67
Q

What two procedures should be performed to test the valuation assertion for Debt Transactions (IS)?

A

”- Test a sample of debt receipts and payments for reasonableness.
- Compare interest expense to the debt balance.”

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68
Q

What procedure should be performed to test the existence assertion for Debt Transactions (IS)?

A

Verify existence of new debt by reviewing board minutes and then inspecting the agreements.

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69
Q

What procedure should be performed to test the obligations assertion for Debt Transactions (IS)?

A

N/A, not a relevant assertion for I/S accounts.

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70
Q

What procedure should be performed to test the understandability assertion for Debt Transactions (IS)?

A

Examine due dates of notes and bonds to determine whether debt should be short-term or long-term.

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71
Q

If there is no stock transfer agent, how should an auditor test the completeness assertion for equity balance and transactions?

A

Trace the stock certificate book to records.

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71
Q

What is unique about substantive procedures for equity balance and equity transactions?

A

They are combined procedures, not separated.

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72
Q

What procedure should be performed to test the cutoff assertion for Equity Balance and Transactions?

A

N/A

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73
Q

If an auditor discovers that the original insurance policy on plant equipment is not available for inspection, this most likely indicates that …

A

There is a lien on the PPE, because the lien-holder would have the original policy.

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73
Q

What three procedures should be performed to test the valuation assertion for Equity Balance and Transactions?

A

”- Recompute value assigned to stock transactions.
- Review direct entries to R/E.
- Analyze R/E account from inception (or last audit).”

74
Q

What two procedures should be performed to test the existence assertion for Equity Balance and Transactions?

A

”- Vouch transactions during the period to board minutes.
- Stock transfer agent confirmation & inspection of stock certificate book.”

75
Q

What procedure should be performed to test the rights/obligation assertion for Equity Balance and Transactions?

76
Q

What two procedures should be performed to test the understandability assertion for Equity Balance and Transactions?

A

”- Determine whether there are any restrictions on RE from loans, agreements, or state laws.
- Inquire of any appropriations of RE.”

77
Q

When control risk is low, you perform (extensive/limited) substantive testing?

78
Q

Where should unclaimed payroll checks be returned to?

A

an independent party for follow-up

79
Q

Where should unclaimed payroll checks NOT be returned to?

A

Payroll department, because now a recordkeeping function would also have custody.

80
Q

What is the best control to check whether employees were actually present and/or working during the recorded time?

A

Employee’s supervisor approves time cards.

81
Q

What happens in a reasonableness test?

A

data in two or more fields are checked for consistency

82
Q

What happens in a range test?

A

identifies amounts that fall outside a predetermined range

83
Q

An auditor’s program to examine long-term debt should include steps that require

A

examining bond trust indentures

84
Q

Observe the segregation of duties concerning personnel responsibilities and payroll disbursement relates to which assertion?

A

occurence/existence

85
Q

Inspecting evidence related to prenumbering of payroll checks relates to which assertion?

A

completeness

86
Q

What is the best way to prevent direct labor from being charged to manufacturing overhead?

A

use time tickets to record actual labor worked on production orders

87
Q

Segregation of duties is best evaluated throuhg what procedure?

A

auditor’s observation

87
Q

Payments on long-term debt should be agreed to what three (potential) documents?

A

cancelled checks, lendor’s monthly statement, loan agreement

88
Q

What might a large amount of sales returns after year end indicate?

A

Company shipped more goods prior to year-end than customers authorized.

89
Q

How does the movement of construction in progress (CR) to buildings (DR) affect gross PPE balance?

A

It does not, because CIP is part of gross PPE.

90
Q

Which materiality is used in substantive testing related to particular accounts, performance materiality or overall materiality?

A

performance materiality

91
Q

When determining whether PPE is materially misstated, should you look at the gross or net balance?

A

net balance

92
Q

When Derek was reviewing the last quarter’s revenues, he noticed a significant upswing in sales toward the end of December. The upswing did not appear to exist in the prior year. - What assertion does this relate to?

93
Q

T/F: When determining whether uncorrected misstatements are material, individually or in the aggregate, an auditor of a nonissuer or issuer would consider the cost of correcting the misstatements.

A

False, they would not consider the cost of correcting.

94
Q

If the main premise of auditor’s test is to determine that the payroll amounts are accurately recorded in the footnotes, what assertion does this relate to?

A

valuation, allocation, and accuracy

95
Q

At the end of the audit, the auditor accumulates the misstatements identified, except those that are considered ____ ____.

A

clearly trivial

96
Q

What does clearly trivial mean?

A

(1) Items are inconsequential,
(2) individually AND in the aggregate,
(3) when judged by any criteria of
(4) size, nature, or circumstance

97
Q

What does the auditor present to management at the end of the audit?

A

a summary of all the possible misstatements (excluding those that are clearly trivial)

98
Q

Is the clearly trivial quantitative or qualitative?

A

Quantitative, the amount is set by the auditors.

99
Q

What does management do with the Summary of Possible Misstatements?

A

Choose which ones they want to correct (accept), and put the remaining uncorrected misstatements in the Summary of Unadjusted Misstatements.

100
Q

What does quantitative evaluation of the uncorrected misstatements look like?

A

If aggregate misstatements accumulated exceed overall materiality, it could result in a modified opinion.

101
Q

What does qualitative evaluation of the uncorrected misstatements look like?

A

Immaterial misstatements may be deemed material.

102
Q

When could immaterial (quantitatively) misstatements be considered qualitatively material?

A
  • affect trends in profitability
  • mask a change in a trend
  • change a loss into income (or vice versa)
  • affect compliance with loan covenants, contracts, or regulatory requirements
  • increase management compensation, indicate management bias, involve fraud or illegal acts
  • misclassification between certain account balances
  • will have a material effect in the future
103
Q

What should the auditor do if management claims that a misstatement is too costly to correct year after year?

A

Find out whether this is really true or management is trying to hide something.

104
Q

What are examples of management bias in terms of misstatements (2)?

A
  • selective correction of misstatements (only picking ones that make them look better)
  • identifying additional entries that offset the misstatements indicated by the auditor
105
Q

T/F: The auditor’s documentation includes both material and immaterial misstatements.

106
Q

What should the auditor consider about the effect of identified misstatements on the assessment of control risk (3)?

A
  • frequency with which misstatements occurred
  • effect on other audit areas
  • FS implications
108
Q

What would be the JE to remove a sale on account?

A

DR Sales
CR A/R

109
Q

When are FOB shipping point items considered to be the buyer’s inventory?

A

when the items are in the carrier’s truck

109
Q

If inventory is on a pallet (loading dock) waiting to be loaded into a truck (FOB shipping point), is the inventory belonging to the buyer?

A

No, the items must be in the truck.

110
Q

When are FOB destination items included in the buyer’s inventory?

A

when they are delivered on the doorstep

111
Q

In a perpetual inventory system, what JEs are made on the date of a sale?

A

DR Cash or AR
CR Sales
DR COGS
CR Inventory

112
Q

In a periodic inventory system, what JEs are made on the date of a sale?

A

DR Cash or AR
CR Sales
No COGS/Inventory entry.

113
Q

What is the formula for COGS?

A

Beginning Inventory + Purchases - Ending Inventory

114
Q

Who is a consignee? Who is a consignor?

A

Consignee: Holds the inventory for someone else.
Consignor: Asks someone to hold their inventory.

115
Q

Who carries the inventory on their books, the consignee or the consignor?

A

the consignor

116
Q

T/F: When evaluating misstatements, the auditor should consider the impact of both prior year uncorrected misstatements on the current year and current year misstatements on the prior year.

117
Q

What JE should be recorded if a major company files for bankruptcy?

A

DR Bad Debt Expense
CR Allowance for Doubtful Accounts

117
Q

When goods are returned, what JE should be made?

A

DR Inventory
CR COGS
DR Sales
CR A/R

118
Q

What are the three purposes of the management representation letter?

A
  1. confirm representations explicitly or implicitly given to the auditor
  2. indicate and document the continuing appropriateness of such representations
  3. reduce the possibility of misunderstanding
119
Q

What is the date of the management representation letter?

A

the same as the date of the audit report

120
Q

Who is the management representation letter addressed to?

A

the auditor

121
Q

The management representation letter is the (first/last) piece of audit evidence obtained.

122
Q

Who signs the management representation letter?

A

the CFO and CEO (members of management with overall responsibility for financial and operating matters)

123
Q

What are the two labeled sections of the management representation letter?

A

Financial Statements
Information Provided

123
Q

Which financial statements and periods are referenced in the management representation letter?

A

ALL financial statements and period reflected in the auditor’s report

124
Q

What if the current CEO or CFO was not present for all periods? Should they still address all periods or only the ones they were present for?

A

They still have to address all periods.

124
Q

Materiality considerations do not apply to items that are …

A

not directly related to the financial statement amounts

125
Q

What types of items are not directly related to financial statement amounts and should be disclosed to the auditor regardless of materiality?

A
  • all board minutes
  • all financial recrds
125
Q

What additional management representations should be included for an audit of ERISA plan financial statements?

A
  • Management provided the auditor with the most current plan instrument, including all plan amendments.
  • Acknowledge responsibility for administering plan and determining conformity with plan provisions.
126
Q

When an ERISA Section 103(a)(3)(C) audit is conducted, what additional representations should management provide (5)?

A
  • does not affect responsibility for the financial statements
  • responsible for determining whether the audit is permissible
  • investment information is prepared and certified by a qualified institution
  • certification meets the DoL requirements
  • certified investment information is appropriately measured, presented, and disclosed
127
Q

What 7 additional representations should be included in the management representation letter for an integrated audit?

A
  • responsibility for designing, implementing, and maintaining effective internal control over financial reporting
  • evaluation of the effectiveness of entity’s IC over financial reporting
  • management did not rely on auditor’s procedures for their evaluation
  • all significant deficiencies and material weaknesses have been disclosed to the auditor
  • whether deficiencies identified in previous engagements remain unresolved
  • description of any material fraud or any fraud involving senior management/key employees
  • statement of whether there were any significant changes to ICFR after the date of the report
128
Q

What happens if management does not want to furnish the management representation letter?

A

Since this is a requirement in the audit, the auditor must (1) issue a disclaimer of opinion or (2) withdraw from the engagement.

129
Q

T/F: The rep letter states that mangement is responsible for detecting fraud.

A

False. It says that they are responsible for the design, implementation, and maintenance of internal controls to prevent and detect fraud.

129
Q

Does the management rep letter say that significant assumptions used by management in making accounting estimates are reasonable?

130
Q

The auditor should consider the implications of an act of noncompliance with laws and regulations in relation to other aspects of the audit, particularly the …

A

reliability of management’s representations

131
Q

T/F: The management representation letter will generally state that management has no plans or intentions that may materially affect the carrying value or classification of assets and liabilities.

131
Q

T/F: The management rep letter states that sufficient appropriate audit evidence was gathered.

132
Q

The representation letter typically includes information in what four categories?

A
  1. Financial Statements
  2. Subsequent Events
  3. Completeness
  4. Recognition, Measurement, and Disclosure
133
Q

T/F: Management typically makes a representation about the competency and objectivity of the internal auditors.

134
Q

The management representation letter should disclose knowledge of actual fraud or suspected fraud impacting the firm involving what three groups?

A
  1. management fraud
  2. employees with roles in IC
  3. (material only) any other individual
135
Q

The auditor effective two-way communication with those charged with governance regarding what two things (that the auditor must say)?

A
  1. planned scope and timing of the audit
  2. timely observations from the audit that are relevant to the oversight of financial reporting
136
Q

The auditor effective two-way communication with those charged with governance regarding what thing (that governance must say)?

A

information held by those charged with governance that is relevant to the audit

137
Q

In which two parts of the audit process would an auditor uncover internal control deficiencies?

A

(1) Planning: Understand internal control.
(2) Perform: Test of controls.

138
Q

What is attached to the management representation letter?

A

a list of the uncorrected misstatements

139
Q

T/F: Management has to tell the auditor about their assessment of fraud risk.

140
Q

What two things can indicate a deficiency in design?

A
  1. necessary control is missing, OR
  2. existing control does not achieve the desired objective
141
Q

What two things can indicate a deficiency in operation?

A
  1. properly designed control does not operate as designed, OR
  2. is performed by an inappropriate person
142
Q

What are the three types of deficiencies in IC, from least worst to worst?

A
  1. Control Deficiency
  2. Significant Deficiency
  3. Material Weakness
143
Q

What is the definition of a control deficiency?

A

(1) design or operation of a control
(2) does NOT allow management or employees
(3) in the normal course of performing their assigned functions
(4) to prevent or detect and correct misstatements
(5) on a timely basis

144
Q

What is a significant deficiency (defined)?

A

(1) a deficiency or combination of deficiencies in ICFR
(2) that is less severe than a material weakness
(3) yet important enough to merit attention
(4) by those charged with governance

145
Q

What is a material weakness (defined)?

A

(1) a deficiency or combination of deficiencies in ICFR
(2) such that there is a reasonable possibility
(3) that a material misstatement of the entity’s FS
(4) will not be prevented or detected and corrected on a timely basis

145
Q

What four situations are indicators of material weaknesses in ICFR?

A
  1. any level of fraud perpetrated by senior management
  2. restatement of previously issued financials to correct a material misstatement
  3. identification by the auditor of a material misstatement that would not have been detected by IC
  4. ineffective oversight by the audit committee
146
Q

If you have a potential misstatment arising from control deficiencies, what two criteria do you evaluate it on?

A
  • likelihood
  • magnitude
147
Q

A control deficiency is associated with what materiality level?

A

less than inconsequential

148
Q

A significant deficiency is associated with what materiality level?

A

more that inconsequential but less than material

149
Q

A material weakness is associated with what materiality level?

150
Q

In a FS audit only (nonissuer), how, who, and when should significant deficiencies be reported by the auditor?

A

How: Writing
Who: Management and the Board
When: Within 60 Days after the Report Release Date

151
Q

In a FS audit only (nonissuer), how, who, and when should control deficiencies be reported by the auditor?

A

How: Orally or in Writing
Who: Management Only
When: Within 60 Days after the Report Release Date

153
Q

T/F: A significant weakness or material weakness that is corrected during the audit does not need to be communicated.

A

False, it should still be communicated.

154
Q

T/F: Previously communicated significant deficiencies and material weaknesses that have not been corrected do not need to be communicated again.

A

False, they should be communicated again in wrtiting by referring to the previously issued written communication and date of that communication.

155
Q

When are significant deficiencies and material weaknesses usually communicated (before or after audit completion)?

A

after audit completion

156
Q

T/F: Previously communicated control deficiencies that have not been corrected do not need to be communicated again.

A

True, control deficiencies do not need to be communicated again.H

157
Q

Who is the addressee of the communication of control deficiencies?

A

Management and/or the Board of Directors

158
Q

What elements are included in a communication of control deficiencies (nonissuer, FS audit)?

A
  • date of FS reporting on
  • GAAS
  • goal is to express opinion on FS, not ICFR
  • We do NOT express an opinion on internal controls.
  • did identify some significant deficiencies and material weaknesses, but not necessarily ALL
  • define deficiency and material weakness
  • list material weaknesses
  • define significant deficiency
  • list significant deficiency
  • restriction paragraph
159
Q

What parties is the communication of control deficiencies restricted to?

A

management, those charged with governance, others within the organization, any governmental authority the auditor must report to

160
Q

Can the auditor communicate that they found no material weaknesses?

A

Yes, but this is optional.

161
Q

Can the auditor communicate that they found no significant deficiencies?

162
Q

In an ERISA audit, can the auditor issue a written communication that says no reportable findings were identified during the audit?

163
Q

T/F: The auditor should communicate issues with management, even if they were resolved.

164
Q

Does the SEC require that an entity has an audit committee?

A

No, it is recommended but not required.

165
Q

Does the NYSE require that an entity has an audit committee?

166
Q

Large accounting firms strongly support the function of an ____ ____ .

A

audit committee

167
Q

Is the definition of material weakness included in the report even when there are no material weaknesses to report?

168
Q

T/F: The auditor is required to communicate to the board the justification for any of the judgments made in conducting the audit.

A

False, this is not a requirement.

169
Q

The auditor is not required to communicate to those charged with governance the _____ of _____ placed on the management representation letter.

A

degree of reliance

170
Q

Insufficient control consciousness is a deficiency in (design/operation).

A

Design, because it represents a systemic issue within management’s attitude towards internal controls, impacting the overall design and effectiveness of the control environment.

171
Q

Management override of controls is a deficiency in (design/operation).

A

Operation, because the control is in place but it was overriden.

172
Q

Misrepresentation by client personnel to the auditor is a deficiency in (design/operation).

A

Operation, because the control is in place but it is just being misrepresented.

173
Q

Undue bias or lack of objectivity is a deficiency in (design/operation).

A

Operation, because the control is in place but not being applied properly.

174
Q

The identification of immaterial fraud by a member of senior management results in which of the three types of deficiencies?

A

material weakness

175
Q

The payroll clerk created fictitious employees in order to collect unauthorized payroll checks. - Is this a deficiency in design or operation?

A

Design, because the payroll clerk should not be able to create fictitious employees. So, there is no control in place.

176
Q

Would communication with governance include the following statement: “Our audit of the financial statements does not relieve you or management of your responsibilities.”