A3, M5-M6 Flashcards

1
Q

What is audit evidence (defined)?

A

all the information auditor uses to arrive at conclusions for the audit opinion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two broad categories of audit evidence?

A

(1) Accounting Records
(2) Corrorborating/Contradictory Evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is included in accounting records?

A

journal entries and supporting records (ledgers, checks, invoices, worksheets)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Do accounting records along provide sufficient support for an audit opinion?

A

No, that is where corroborating or contradictory evidence comes in.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does corroborating evidence do?

A

provide additional support and give validity to accounting data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does contradictory evidence do?

A

provide support that an amount is incorrect, leading to additional audit procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are examples of corroborating/contradictory evidence?

A
  • board minutes,
  • confirmations,
  • analyst reports,
  • info from observation, inquiry, and inspection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Does the auditor need to rely on persuasive or conclusive evidence to support the audit opinion?

A

persuasive, not conclusive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What affects persuasiveness of evidence?

A

NET of procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If a procedure costs too much to do, is that a valid basis for omitting a procedure for which there is no appropriate alternative?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does “sufficient” mean in terms of audit evidence?

A

quantity of audit evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The auditor’s decision regarding the sufficiency of audit evidence is influenced by what two things?

A
  • risk of material misstatement
  • quality of audit evidence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does “appropriate” mean in terms of audit evidence?

A

reliability and relevance of evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What acronym tells you the considerations related to reliability of audit evidence?

A

AEIO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the A in AEIO stand for?

A

Auditor’s Direct Personal Knowledge and Observation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does the E in AEIO stand for?

A

External Evidence (from sources outside the entity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the I in AEIO stand for?

A

Internal Evidence (produced by the client)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does the O in AEIO stand for?

A

Oral Evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is more persusive, external evidence sent directly to the auditor or sent through the client?

A

evidence sent directly to the auditor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T/F: Evidence obtained from a management’s specialist is considered an external source of evidence.

A

False, because of the relationship between management and the specialist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What improves the reliability of internally generated information provided by the client?

A

strong, effective internal controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Is oral evidence sufficient on its own?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Is determining whether evidence is accurate, complete, and sufficiently detailed related to reliability or relevance?

A

reliability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the considerations for relevance?

A
  • related to the financial statement assertion
  • timing consistent with the audit period
  • designed for understatements/overstatements (related to first point)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The results of audit procedures may lead the auditor to what three things?

A
  1. Reassess the RMM
  2. Identify control deficiencies
  3. Identify misstatements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Can substantive procedures identify a control deficiency?

A

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When evaluating the results of audit procedures and the information obtained to be used as evidence, the auditor must be aware of what?

A

unconcious and concious auditor biases that may impact professional judgement/skepticism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the availability bias?

A

tendency to place more weight on events that are more recent, readily available, or top of mind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is confirmation bias?

A

tendency to place more weight on information that corroborates, rather than contradicts, initial conclusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is overconfidence bias?

A

tendency to overestimate one’s ability to make accurate judgements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is anchoring bias?

A

tendency to use initial information as an anchor against which subsequent information is assessed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is an example where an auditor might fall for anchoring bias?

A

The auditor anchors onto management’s explanation of something.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is automation bias?

A

tendency to favor information generated from automated systems, even when contradicts human reasoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is a lead sheet?

A

a table of contents from things you did in an audit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Who should a bank confirmation come from?

A

the bank DIRECTLY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When the auditor talks to legal counsel through the inquiry letter, is this from in-house or external legal counsel?

A

external

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

T/F: The auditor’s risk assessment affects the relevance of audit evidence.

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Are confirmations or analytical procedures more reliable? Why?

A

Confirmations, because this is external evidence. Analytical procedures are based on client internal data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Is Inquiry + Corroborating Documents from External Sources enough for sufficient appropriate audit evidence or no?

A

Yes, this is enough.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

T/F: If there are issues with the audit evidence or workpaper preparation, it does not count as sufficient, appropriate audit evidence.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Municipal property tax bills prepared in the client’s name are considered (internal/external) evidence.

A

external

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is involved in observation?

A

when an auditor looks at a process or procedure performed by others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Does an auditor need to be physically present for observation?

A

No, they can use remote observation tools as well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is reperformance?

A

Auditor independently performs procedures or controls that were originally performed as part of an entity’s internal control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How is segregation of duties usually tested?

A

through observation of SoD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Reperformance is usually a (substantive test/test of controls).

A

test of controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is inquiry?

A

requesting information from knowledgeable internal and external parties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is important to remember about inquiry as an audit procedure?

A

generally considered insufficient on its own

48
Q

What is walk-through?

A

(1) questioning an entity’s personnel about
(2) their understanding of what is required by prescribed procedures and controls
(3) at which important processing procedure soccur

49
Q

What is a more simple way to describe a walkthrough?

A

going the process of transaction inception to inclusion on the financials

50
Q

What is a subsequent events review?

A

when the auditor performs procedures after the BS date to the date of the auditor’s report

51
Q

What is examination/inspection?

A

inspect or examine records, documents, or tangible assets

52
Q

What is reconciliation?

A

compare financial amounts from two independent sources for agreement

53
Q

What assertions is reconciliation most valuable for testing?

A

existence and valuation

54
Q

What is footing?

A

adding down a column to verify mathematical accuracy

55
Q

What is cross-footing?

A

adding across a row to verify mathematical accuracy

56
Q

What is recalcualtion common for?

A

depreciation expense and accumulated depreciation

57
Q

What is cutoff review?

A

looking at transactions right before and after year end to determine they are recorded in the correct period

58
Q

What is an example of related accounts that would be audited simultaneously?

A

long-term liabilities and interest expense

59
Q

Comparisons within the current year’s financials for internal consistency is what type of audit procedure?

A

analytical procedures

60
Q

Scanning financials is what type of audit procedure?

A

Analytical, because using judgement for search for large, significant, or unusual items in the accounting records.

61
Q

What is vouching?

A

directional testing, from the financials to the source documents

62
Q

Is vouching used more for overstatements or understatements?

A

overstatements

63
Q

Vouching is concerned most with what financial statement assertion?

64
Q

What is tracing?

A

directional testing, from the source documents to the financials

65
Q

Is tracing used more for overstatements or understatements?

A

understatements

66
Q

Tracing is concerned most with what financial statement assertion?

A

completeness

67
Q

What is confirmation?

A

specific type of inquiry that involves obtaining representations from independent external parties about account balances/transactions/events

68
Q

In what three phases of the audit can analytical procedures be used? In which of these phases are analytical procedures REQUIRED?

A
  • can be used in planning, substantive procedures, and final review
  • required in planning and final review only
69
Q

How are analytical procedures used in final review?

A
  • to assist in final review of the overall reasonableness of account balances, AND
  • to determine whether sufficient appropriate audit evidence has been obtained
70
Q

What is important to check when analytical procedures are used in substantive tests?

A

the reliability of the data

71
Q

What three things should be checked to determine reliability of data?

A
  • source and comparability
  • nature and relevance
  • controls over preparation of information
72
Q

Generally, how are analytical procedures used in substantive testing?

A

used to come up with an expectation for a balance, to compare the recorded baalnce with

73
Q

For what types of potential misstatements are analytical procedures best for (2)?

A
  1. not apparent from examination of detailed evidence, OR
  2. detail is unavailable
74
Q

In order to provide an appropriate level of assurance, analytical procedures should be based on ________ relationships.

A

predictable

75
Q

More predictable relationships are:
- provided by data generated in (dynamic/stable) environments
- involve (IS/BS) accounts
- involve transactions that are (more/less) subject to management discretion

A
  • stable
  • IS accounts
  • less discretion
76
Q

Are wide or precise expectations more effective in detecting misstatements?

A

more precise

77
Q

What are four analytical methods, from the least assurance provided to the most?

A
  1. Trend Analysis
  2. Ratio Analysis
  3. Nonstatistical Predictive Modeling
  4. Regression Analysis
78
Q

Which of the four analytical methods mentioned above need to be used with other audit procedures?

A

Trend Analysis
Ratio Analysis

79
Q

When is trend analysis most appropriate?

A

amount/relationship is fairly predictable and operations are stable

80
Q

When is ratio analysis most appropriate?

A

analyzing data at a disaggregated level

81
Q

When is non statistical predictive modeling most appropriate?

A

create expectation based on simple variables

82
Q

When is regression analysis most approrpriate?

A

creating expectation based on several independent variables

83
Q

What is a key advantage of regression analysis over the other methods?

A

direct and quantitative measures of the precision of the expectation

84
Q

What types of things need to be documented when analytical procedures are used as a principal substantive test of an assertion?

A
  • auditor’s expectation
  • how the expectation was developed
  • results of comparison
  • additional procedures performed
  • results of additional procedures performed
85
Q

Who usually performs the final review procedures?

A

a manager or partner with comprehensive understanding of the client’s business and industry

86
Q

What are the three key purposes of applying analytical procedures during the overall review stage of an audit?

A
  • evaluate overall financial statement preparation
  • assess conclusions reached, and
  • assist in forming opinion
87
Q

What is tricky on the audit exam in relation to tracing and vouching?

A

The terms are often used interchangeably, so make sure to look at the direction of the testing!

88
Q

Does an oral response to a confirmation meet the definition of an external confirmation?

89
Q

If the confirmation is given by management, does it meet the definition of external confirmation?

90
Q

What is a positive confirmation?

A

Auditor asks to provide the requested information OR to confirm whether the party agrees or disagrees with the amount.

90
Q

What is a negative confirmation?

A

only respond if the confirming party disagrees with the information in the request

91
Q

Can the client mail the confirmation?

A

No, the auditor must mail it.

92
Q

Can the auditor put the confirmations into the client’s mailbox to be sent out?

A

No, the auditor must go to an external mail service.

93
Q

What should the auditor do if there is refusal from management to allow confirmation procedures?

A
  • evaluate validity and reasonableness of refusal
  • evaluate effect of refusal on RMM and fraud risk
  • perform alternative procedures
94
Q

What should the auditor do if management’s refusal is unreasonable OR unable to obtain sufficient appropriate evidence?

A
  • communicate with board, AND
  • determine impact on opinion
95
Q

What should the auditor do if they receive a confirmation electronically (including fax)?

A

directly contact the confirming party to validate their identity and the accuracy of the information received

96
Q

What should the auditor do if they do not get responses to positive confirmation requests?

A
  • Send additional requests.
  • If still no response after 2nd and 3rd request, perform alternative procedures.
97
Q

What is an exception?

A

response that indicates a difference between the entity’s records and the confirming party’s records

98
Q

What should the auditor do in the case of an exception?

A

investigate further

99
Q

When does the exception not represent a material misstatement?

A

comes from timing/measurement differences or clerical error

100
Q

Which of the assertions we learned are not recognized by the PCAOB?

101
Q

Which assertions are most relevant for account balances and disclosures (BS accounts)?

A

All except for Cutoff

102
Q

Which assertions are most relevant for transactions, events, and disclosures (IS accounts)?

A

All except for Rights and Obligations

103
Q

What is the key difference between inspection and observation?

A

Inspection is for tangible things (like documents).
Observation is for people/processes.

104
Q

What is more appropriate if there have been limited transactions in an account (test of details or substantive analytical procedures)?

A

test of details

105
Q

The auditor should develop reasonable expectations for analytical procedures (before/after) talking to management.

106
Q

If the entity has diversified operations, there is a (more/less) likely risk that high-level analytical procedures will not catch misstatements.

107
Q

What should the auditor do if there are highly diversified operations?

A

disaggregated the population and performed multiple analytical procedures

108
Q

When an analytical procedure is performed during the overall review stage, what are the specific documentation requirements?

A

There are none.

109
Q

Observing the consistent use of cash registers and tapes by employees provides evidence about which assertion related to cash?

A

completeness (ensure no theft)

110
Q

Boilerplate information provided in a
inquiry letter or confirmation would include what two statements?

A
  • Information is furnished as a matter of courtesy without a duty to do so and without responsibility, liability, or warranty, expressed or implied.
  • The reply is given solely for the purpose of the audit without any responsibility on the part of the respondent, its employees, or its agents, and it does not relieve the auditor from any other inquiry or the performance of any other duty.
111
Q

T/F: Boilerplate disclaimers are OK and allow the auditor to still rely on the information.

112
Q

T/F: If people do not respond to confirmations, the auditor can ask the client to intervene.

112
Q

If you are checking the accuracy of something, you are not just inspecting but actually _____ it.

A

recalculating

113
Q

What is the key difference between recalculation and reperformance?

A

Recalculation involves doing the math again.
Reperformance is re-doing a process the client already does.

114
Q

What procedure is this? “The auditor scanned the repairs and maintenance account for unusually large amounts.”

A

Analytical Procedures

115
Q

What procedure is this? “Agreed sales invoices to credit files to determine whether the customer had a credit file and had been approved for credit.”

A

Reperformance, because the client should have already done this.