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Airbus A320 > A320 Review Questions 2014 > Flashcards

A320 Review Questions 2014 Flashcards

1
Q

With the NOSE taxi and takeoff light ON, when will those lights automatically extinguish?

A

Landing gear retraction.

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2
Q

With the STROBE switch in AUTO when do the strobe lights operate?

A

When the landing gear strut is not compressed.

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3
Q

When will the LOGO lights illuminate?

A

NAV & LOGO switch ON and main gear compressed or slats extended.

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4
Q

If the LAND light selector is moved from RETRACT to OFF, what does the landing light do?

A

It extends, but is extinguished.

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5
Q

Is the ANN LT TEST switch utilized during preflight?

A

No, ANN LT TEST switch is a Maintenance function.

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6
Q

What flight deck lighting is maintained if normal electrical power is lost?

A

Standby compass, Captain’s instruments, and right dome light.

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7
Q

What would an amber temperature indication in either the Pack Outlet Temperature or Pack Compressor Outlet Temperature indicate?

A

Excessive Temperature.

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8
Q

How is the Hot Air Pressure Regulating Valve controlled?

A

HOT AIR PB on the overhead panel.

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9
Q

If bleed air is being supplied by the APU or if one pack fails, pack flow will go to what rate?

A

High

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10
Q

With the APU supplying bleed air, what will be the pack flow if the PACK FLOW switch is in LOW?

A

High

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11
Q

There are three temperature selectors for the various zones in the aircraft. The pack controllers will deliver air at the coolest demanded temperature to the mixing units. How are the individual zone temperatures maintained comfortable if the air being demanded is always the coldest?

A

By mixing hot bleed air, through trim air valves into the distribution network.

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12
Q

In flight, what happens if HP bleed air pressure is insufficient?

A

Engine speed is increased automatically.

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13
Q

What is indicated by a FAULT light in the HOT AIR pushbutton?

A

Duct overheat.

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14
Q

The pack flow control valve automatically closes for engine start when the mode selector is moved to IGN/START When does the valve automatically reopen?

A

After successful start or 30 seconds.

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15
Q

How many motors are installed on the crossbleed valve?

A

Two, one for the automatic mode and one for the manual mode.

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16
Q

Can external air be used to supplement low APU bleed pressure?

A

No

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17
Q

If the APU bleed valve is open and the X BLEED selector is in AUTO, what is the position of the X BLEED valve?

A

Open

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18
Q

When would the RAM AIR pb be used?

A

Ventilation and/or smoke removal.

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19
Q

What happens to the outflow valve when the RAM AIR pb is selected ON?

A

The outflow valve opens when cabin differential pressure is less than 1 psi.

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20
Q

If SYS 1 (or SYS 2) were displayed in amber, what would be indicated?

A

System fault.

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21
Q

What is indicated if the Cabin Vertical Speed is indicated in amber?

A

High Cabin rate of climb/descent

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22
Q

What occurs when the DITCHING pushbutton is selected ON?

A

All valves below the water line close, except the outflow valve if the CABIN PRESS MODE SEL is in
MAN.

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23
Q

With the LDG ELEV selector in Auto, what altitude is used for landing field pressurization reference?

A

FMGC database information.

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24
Q

With the LDG ELEV selector at 2, what would be the landing elevation?

A

2,000 feet

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25
Q

When does the pressurization system switch auto-controllers?

A

After each landing.

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26
Q

What does the FAULT light in the MODE SEL switch indicate?

A

Both automatic systems have faulted.

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27
Q

Is cargo heat provided to the forward cargo compartment?

A

No

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28
Q

What ECAM page is selected to verify aft cargo compartment temperature?

A

ECAM COND Page.

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29
Q

What would the FAULT light in the AFT ISO VALVE indicate?

A

A fault has been detected.

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30
Q

How many CAB FANS are installed?

A

2

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31
Q

If either the Blower or Extract pb is selected to OVRD, will the system run in the OPEN or CLOSED configuration?

A

Closed

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32
Q

How can you tell the APU is up to speed and the generator is available?

A

APU electrical power is available.

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33
Q

When would the corresponding APU N% Speed be displayed in amber or red?

A

When an overspeed occurs.

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34
Q

What is indicated when the APU EGT indication is displayed in amber or red?

A

An over-temperature condition.

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35
Q

The APU START pb is pressed and illuminates blue. What does this mean?

A

The APU starter is energized.

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36
Q

With external power supplying the buses and the APU operating, what action is required to select APU power?

A

Deselect external power by pushing the EXT PWR pb.

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37
Q

When would the APU fault light illuminate?

A

APU automatic shutdown

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38
Q

What are some possible reasons for an APU auto shutdown?

A

High oil temp, low oil pressure, overspeed, etc.

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39
Q

Is altitude a consideration when considering use of the APU as a source of bleed air and/or electrical power?

A

Yes

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40
Q

How does the crew confirm that the data contained in the FMGC database is valid?

A

Check the database validity period on the Aircraft Status page

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41
Q

When would a takeoff shift be entered into the PERF TO page?

A

When departing from a runway intersection.

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42
Q

If NAV is engaged and the aircraft flies into a flight plan discontinuity, what will occur?

A

NAV will disengage and the aircraft will revert to HDG/TRK mode.

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43
Q

Box prompts on the MCDU indicate what?

A

Box prompts on the MCDU indicate data entry is required for minimum FMGS operation.

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44
Q

Dashes on the MCDU indicate what?

A

Dashes on the MCDU indicate data is being calculated by the FMGC.

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45
Q

If in flight we lost both FMGCs due to internal failure, could we still navigate and complete our flight?

A

Yes, by using the RMP. Lift the guard and depress the NAV switch and you can dial appropriate
frequencies.

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46
Q

What is the difference between OPT vs. REC MAX?

A

OPT is based on present GW, Temperature and Cost Index; best economy based on compromise
between fuel and time savings. REC MAX is based on GW and ISA deviation, provides 1.3g load
protection.

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47
Q

In flight with the autopilot engaged, will movement of the pitch trim wheel cause the autopilot to disengage?

A

Yes

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48
Q

What occurs when the altitude knob on the FCU is pulled?

A

When the altitude knob on the FCU is pulled OPEN CLIMB or DESCENT engages.

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49
Q

What is the function of the LOC pushbutton?

A

The autopilot and/or flight director is armed to capture the localizer.

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50
Q

Once the APPR is armed but not captured, provide an example of what methods may be used to disarm it?

A

As long as the aircraft is above 400 feet RA, we can disarm the APPR by: 
• Pressing the APPR pushbutton a second time
• Pressing the LOC pushbutton
• Arm NAV by pressing the HDG/TRK knob on the FCU
• Both A/P’s disengage
• Engage G/A mode.

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51
Q

If I were hand flying the precision approach without the aid of the FD or AP, would I still push the APPR pushbutton to arm the approach?

A

No

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52
Q

Name some examples when the autopilot will disengage?

A

Takeover switch is pressed; the sidestick is moved beyond the load threshold; the other AP is
engaged, except when LOC G/S modes are engaged; the thrust levers are set to TOGA on the
ground; at DA - 50’ with APP engaged on a RNAV; moving THS wheel.

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53
Q

When can the second autopilot be engaged?

A

After selecting APPR during an ILS approach.

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54
Q

Do any procedures require the use of the EXPED button?

A

No

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55
Q

What action would the pilot take to use SELECTED SPEED?

A

Pull the SPD MACH selector

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56
Q

If the pilot desired an immediate level off, what action should be taken?

A

Push the V/S selector knob

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57
Q

Is V/S “0” altitude hold?

A

No

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58
Q

Is altitude alerting automatically inhibited with the autopilot on?

A

Yes

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59
Q

Must the flight director be on for the windshear function of the FAC’s to operate normally?

A

No

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60
Q

What does the APPR pushbutton do?

A

This arms the FD and/or AP to capture the glideslope and localizer or non-precision approach
guidance

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61
Q

The CAPT & PURS switch should always be in which position?

A

CAPT

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62
Q

How would the flight deck crew command an evacuation?

A

Utilize the PA

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63
Q

With the RDCR GND CTL pb in AUTO, when do the CVR and Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR) energize?

A

For 5 minutes after electrical power application, when one engine is running and continuously in
flight

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64
Q

In order to test the CVR, the Parking Brake must be in what selected position?

A

On

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65
Q

When will the Digital Flight Data Recorder operate?

A

On the ground with one engine running and continuously in flight

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66
Q

How would you erase the data on the CVR?

A

On the ground, with the parking brake set, pressing the CVR ERASE switch for two seconds causes
erasure of the Cockpit Voice Recorder.

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67
Q

When the MECH pb is pushed what signals are received in the landing gear bay?

A

Blue light and horn. Horn will sound as long as button is held.

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68
Q

What can you expect if you push the EMER pb?

A

Three high-low chimes (6 bells), and commencement of the flight attendant emergency procedures.

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69
Q

The Audio Switching selector allows us to replace a failed ACP with the third occupants ACP. After
switching, is the third occupant’s ACP still operational?

A

The third occupant’s acoustic equipment is no longer usable and the crewmember with the failed
ACP will have to use the ACP located overhead.

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70
Q

How should the PA button be positioned on the #3 ACP?

A

Selected out in the three o’clock position.

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71
Q

How do we make a PA using the ACP?

A

Press and hold the PA pb

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72
Q

How is the ATT or MECH flashing lights extinguished after a call?

A

Press the RESET key.

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73
Q

How is a Flight Attendant call answered?

A

Press the ATT transmission key, press and release the CAB reception knob and adjust the volume.

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74
Q

Can any communications radio be controlled from any RMP?

A

Yes. All communications radios can be controlled from any one of the three radio management
panels (RMP’s).

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75
Q

Are there any procedures in the Pilot Handbook, which direct us to use the EMER GEN TEST switch?

A

No, this is a maintenance function.

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76
Q

An amber SMOKE annunciation in the GEN 1 LINE pb indicates what?

A

Smoke in the avionics ventilation system

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77
Q

If the GEN 1 LINE pb is selected to OFF, what becomes the power source to AC bus #1?

A

Generator #2, through the bus tie

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78
Q

After selecting the GEN 1 LINE pb to OFF, is there any equipment still powered from generator #1?

A

Yes, one fuel pump in each tank

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79
Q

What will cause the RAT to extend automatically?

A

Loss of AC bus 1 & 2 and airspeed above 100 knots.

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80
Q

In flight with the airplane powered normally (both generators), we push the RAT MAN ON switch. What will power the AC and DC ESS buses?

A

Emergency generator

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81
Q

What is the difference between this RAT MAN ON switch and the switch labeled similarly on the hydraulic panel?

A

Emergency generator operation through the electrical RAT MAN ON

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82
Q

What does the FAULT light in the RAT & EMER GEN indicate?

A

FAULT light is illuminated if the emergency generator is not supplying power when AC BUS 1 & 2 are not powered.

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83
Q

What does a fault light in a BAT pb indicate?

A

Charging current is outside limits.

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84
Q

What does the indication ____% in the GEN 1 icon indicate?

A

Generator 1 current load is ____%.

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85
Q

Upon entering the flight deck prior to the first flight of the day, what should the battery voltage be?

A

Greater than or equal to 25.5 volts.

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86
Q

What is the primary purpose of the batteries?

A

Emergency electrical and APU starting.

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87
Q

During preflight, what options are available if the battery voltage for either battery is below 25.5 volts?

A

Either replace the battery or using external power, complete a 20-minute charge and recheck for sufficient voltage.

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88
Q

During the Safety & Power on checklist, why is the battery check accomplished with the batteries in the OFF position?

A

To determine the exact battery voltage. In the AUTO position, the aircraft is essentially in an
emergency electrical configuration less than 50 knots, which means that the essential DC bus and the static inverter would be powered.

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89
Q

If the BATT switches are in AUTO position overnight without any other power, will the batteries discharge completely?

A

No

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90
Q

Under what conditions are the batteries connected to the DC BATTERY BUS?

A

Each battery’s BATTERY CHARGE LIMITER automatically connects the batteries to the DC BATT BUS when needed to supply electrical power for APU start; when Emergency electrical configuration less than 100 knots; or batteries require charging (voltage below 26.5V).

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91
Q

When is the main galley bus automatically shed?

A

Single generator operation.

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92
Q

If the main galley bus sheds automatically on a single generator or power source, how is it powered on the ground.

A

All galley buses are supplied with APU or External power

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93
Q

What does the FAULT light in the IDG pushbutton indicate?

A

High oil temperature or low oil pressure.

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94
Q

What precautions exist when disconnecting an IDG?

A

Do not hold the disconnect pb for more than 3 seconds. The engine is must be running or
windmilling.

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95
Q

If the pilot inadvertently pushes the IDG disconnect, can it be reconnected?

A

Not in flight

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96
Q

The normal priority for supplying electrical power to the AC busses is:

A

Engine generators, external power, APU.

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97
Q

What does the FAULT light indicate in the GEN 1?

A

A fault has been detected.

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98
Q

What is the normal source of power for AC ESS BUS?

A

AC BUS 1.

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99
Q

Could AC 2 be used to power the AC ESS BUS?

A

Yes, through the AC ESS FEED pb (when selected).

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100
Q

What does the FAULT light indicate in the AC ESS FEED pb?

A

A fault has been detected, follow the ECAM procedure

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101
Q

What does the green AVAIL light indicate in the EXT PWR pb?

A

External power is connected and within normal parameters.

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102
Q

If the green AVAIL light is present in the EXT PWR pb and a green AVAIL light on the APU, what is the source of electrical power (with engines shut down)?

A

APU, the EXT PWR must be selected ON.

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103
Q

If both engines were started at the gate using external electrical power, would the EXT PWR ON light still be illuminated?

A

Yes, however the engine driven generators are supplying power to the aircraft.

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104
Q

If EXT power is in use during APU start, does the green AVAIL light in the APU START pb indicate it is now the source of ship’s electrical power?

A

No. EXT has priority over the APU. The green APU AVAIL light indicates that the APU generator is
available.

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105
Q

In the Emergency Electric configuration, when will the DC BAT bus be automatically connected to the
batteries?

A

Loss of AC Buses 1 & 2, Below 100 knots.

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106
Q

If landing in Emergency Electric configuration and speed decreases below 50 knots, the AC ESS bus is shed. What would be indication to the crew?

A

Loss of display units

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107
Q

What is the significance of the green circuit breakers?

A

ECAM monitored

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108
Q

Why do the Wing Tip Brake circuit breakers have red caps installed on them?

A

To prevent in-flight resetting.

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109
Q

The FASTEN SEAT BELT, NO SMOKING, and EXIT signs come on automatically when the cabin altitude exceeds ______ feet, regardless of the respective switch position.

A

11,300 feet

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110
Q

When will the emergency lighting system illuminate automatically?

A

Normal aircraft electrical power system fails.

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111
Q

What is included in the aircraft emergency lighting?

A

Overhead emergency lights, EXIT signs, and floor proximity emergency escape path marking
system.

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112
Q

How many fire bottles are provided for the cargo compartments?

A

One bottle is provided for both compartments

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113
Q

How many channels must detect smoke to receive and Cargo Smoke warning?

A

Both

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114
Q

When is the fire detection and extinguishing system tested?

A

First flight of the day during the Flightdeck Preparation Flow

115
Q

If the FIRE pb were released out, would that action affect the electrical system?

A

Yes, deactivates the generator.

116
Q

If the FIRE pb were released out, would that action affect the fuel system?

A

Yes, closes certain fuel valves

117
Q

When is the engine extinguishing agent switch armed?

A

The engine fire switch is released out.

118
Q

Where are the engine fire sensing elements installed?

A

Engine fire detectors are installed in the pylon nacelle, core, and fan.

119
Q

If a failure in both engine fire loops occurs within 5 seconds of each other, what will occur?

A

An engine FIRE warning will occur.

120
Q

How would the crew know if any component of the fire detection system fails?

A

ECAM message(s).

121
Q

If an APU start is initiated on battery power only, is fire protection available?

A

Yes. Should the fire happen during APU start, the APU will auto shutdown and the extinguisher will discharge.

122
Q

How many fire bottles are available for fighting an engine fire?

A

Two for each engine

123
Q

How many fire bottles are available for fighting an APU fire?

A

One

124
Q

If an APU fire occurs on the ground, what must be done to shut down the APU and extinguish the fire?

A

Nothing. On the ground, the APU will automatically shut down and the APU fire extinguisher will
discharge after the fire warning appears. The external horn sounds, and a red light illuminates in the external control panel.

125
Q

A DISCH light on either the ENGINE or APU fire agent switch indicates?

A

A DISCH light on either the ENGINE or APU fire agent switch indicates the extinguisher bottle has lost pressure.

126
Q

If there is an APU fire in flight will the APU automatically shutdown?

A

No. The APU must be shut down manually and the agent manually discharged.

127
Q

With battery power only, what would an APU fire test look like?

A

APU Fire pb and SQUIB will be illuminated

128
Q

If the aircraft is powered, what indications would be seen during the APU fire test?

A

APU fire push button illuminated red.
SQUIBB/ DISCHARGE lights illuminated.
Both red MASTER WARNING lights illuminated 
ECAM would display the APU fire warning
APU page would be on the system display page.

129
Q

How would low hydraulic pressure be indicated on the F/CTL page?

A

G, B, or Y would be displayed in amber at the corresponding positions on this page.

130
Q

What indicators would the First Officer reference during the Flight Control Check?

A

Flight Control Position Indications for Aileron, Elevator, Spoilers and Rudder.

131
Q

On what other ECAM page would spoiler deployment be indicated?

A

ECAM WHEEL Page

132
Q

How many ELAC computers are installed, and what are their functions?

A

Two ELAC computers (elevator/aileron computers) provide normal elevator, stabilizer, and aileron
control.

133
Q

What would the FAULT light in the ELAC 1 pushbutton indicate?

A

The fault light illuminates when a failure has been detected or during power up. (8 seconds).

134
Q

How many SEC computers are installed and what are their functions?

A

Three spoiler elevator computers provide spoiler control and standby elevator and stabilizer control.

135
Q

What control surface do the FAC’s control?

A

The rudder

136
Q

Is there any rudder pedal feedback for yaw dampening or and turn coordination functions?

A

No

137
Q

What flight control computer provides reactive windshear detection?

A

The FAC

138
Q

If one FAC is lost, are any FAC functions lost?

A

No, the second FAC will handle the demand.

139
Q

Can the rudders be moved with both FACs inoperative?

A

Yes, mechanically.

140
Q

Do the sidesticks move with autopilot inputs or with inputs from the opposite sidestick?

A

No

141
Q

What would result if both sidesticks were moved at the same time during flight with the autopilot OFF?

A

Both inputs are summed algebraically, the DUAL INPUT warning will sound and the green side-stick priority lights will flash

142
Q

Are hydraulics required to fly the aircraft in mechanical backup?

A

Yes

143
Q

The red arrow portion of the SIDE STICK PRIORITY light will illuminate in front of the pilot losing or gaining priority?

A

Illuminates in front of the pilot losing priority.

144
Q

What indications are present when inputs are being made simultaneously to the side-sticks?

A

The green Capt & F/O portions of the side-stick priority lights flash and the aural Dual Input warning sounds when the pilots move both sidesticks simultaneously and neither takes priority.

145
Q

Config 1 is selected for takeoff. What flaps/slats combination is indicated?

A

Flaps 1 + F.

146
Q

Config 1 is selected on approach. What flaps/slats combination is indicated?

A

Flaps 1, which is slats only.

147
Q

If the flaps are not retracted after takeoff, what happens automatically?

A

The trailing edge flaps retract at 210 knots.

148
Q

Does the rudder trim rotary switch have any effect with the autopilot engaged?

A

No

149
Q

What does the RESET button on the rudder trim do?

A

Resets rudder trim to zero if the autopilot is off

150
Q

What happens to extended speed brakes when FLAPS FULL is selected on the A320?

A

Speed brakes retract

151
Q

During landing, when does partial spoiler extension occur?

A

Reverse selected on at least one engine and one main landing gear strut compressed.

152
Q

During landing, when does full ground spoiler extension occur?

A

Touchdown of both main gear and both thrust levers at idle or at least one engine in reverse thrust

153
Q

Are there any procedures that call for the pilot to use the VOR switch installed on the EFIS CONTROL panel?

A

Yes, VOR approaches, or DME information

154
Q

Is the radar display available in all modes of the ND selector?

A

No, radar is not available in PLAN

155
Q

When the LS/ILS pb is selected, where will the localizer and glideslope scales be displayed?

A

Onside PFD

156
Q

If the Standby Attitude indication power source fails, how will this be indicated?

A

A flag will appear if the power supply or instrument fails

157
Q

What does STS indicate when displayed on the EWD?

A

The STS message indicates that the STATUS page holds messages.

158
Q

If the upper ECAM display fails, what happens automatically?

A

E/WD display replaces the SD display on the lower ECAM.

159
Q

What if the LOWER ECAM DU failed? Could we display the lower ECAM information?

A

We could press and hold the related systems page pushbutton on the ECAM control panel and the page will be displayed on the UPPER ECAM. We could select the rotary switch labeled ECAM/ ND XFR on the switching panel to Capt. or F/O.

160
Q

Briefly describe the purpose of the EIS SWITCHING Panel?

A

Permits cockpit display screens to access secondary sources

161
Q

Can the lower ECAM display be transferred to another display unit?

A

Yes

162
Q

DMC 1 (2) has failed. Can the information on the affected displays be restored?

A

Yes. Rotate the switch labeled EIS DMC to replace the failed DMC with DMC #3

163
Q

What happens when the TO CONFIG pb is depressed?

A

An application of takeoff power is simulated. A warning occurs if the aircraft is not in takeoff configuration.

164
Q

If during the flight we received continuous spurious warning messages that we knew to be incorrect, is there any way to cancel this caution?

A

By depressing the EMER CANC pushbutton, we can cancel the Level 1 and Level 2 caution message only (along with the master caution). However that specific caution is now inhibited for the remainder of the flight.

165
Q

We have pressed the EMER CANC pushbutton, how can we put the system back to normal?

A

By depressing the RCL pushbutton for more than 3 seconds, the Level 1 and Level2 caution messages that have been suppressed are recalled. Messages that we have cleared will be recalled.

166
Q

How could we check the status page for inoperative systems or maintenance messages?

A

Press the STS pushbutton and the status page is displayed on the lower ECAM. If there is no status
message present, NORMAL is displayed for 5 seconds.

167
Q

Why is it very important to maintain a ‘lights out’ condition on the ECP during flight?

A

Because the automatic phase of flight function and display of the relative system on the lower ECAM during an abnormal will be inhibited by the page we have displayed.

168
Q

We have three DMCs which acquire and process all information and signals received from the sensors and computers to generate the images to be displayed on all the DU’s. Where is the information normally displayed by DMC #1? DMC #2?

A

Normally DMC#1 supplies data to PFD 1, ND 1, and UPPER ECAM. DMC#2 supplies data for PFD 2, ND 2, and LOWER ECAM.

169
Q

How is a DMC failure displayed?

A

A diagonal line on the display units driven by the failed DMC.

170
Q

If a display unit failed, would the screen have a diagonal line displayed?

A

No, the screen would be blank.

171
Q

How many VOR and DME receivers are on board the aircraft?

A

Two VOR and two DME receivers installed.

172
Q

If all systems were working normally, and a crewmember wanted to remotely tune a VOR through the RMP, would that have any effect on the FMGC NAV functions?

A

Yes, if either pilot lifts the guard and presses NAV, auto tuning and FMGC radio position updating is superseded and the RAD NAV page is blanked. NAV on RMP3 will have no effect.

173
Q

When would we use the RMP to tune an ILS?

A

We could use RMP tuning when both MCDU’s or FMGCS are inoperative, or during an emergency
electrical configuration.

174
Q

Can two different ILS frequencies be tuned at the same time?

A

No, whether auto tuned, manually tuned, or RMP (remotely) tuned, we can only input one ILS
frequency.

175
Q

If the LOC or G/S fails, what would be indicated on the PFD?

A

In place of the LOC or GS diamond, we would see LOC or GS in red on the PFD of the failed receiver. In ROSE ILS, we would see a red LOC or GS flag

176
Q

What is the Fuel Feed Sequencing for the ____ (A319/A320/A321)?

A

A319/A320: Fuel is used from the center tank first, then the wing tanks. A321: Fuel flows from the center tank to the wing tanks which feed the engines. The tanks empty in the following sequence: Aft ACT, Forward ACT, Center tank, Wing tanks.

177
Q

(A320) The transfer valves automatically open when the wing inner tank fuel quantity drops to ____ pounds?

A

1,650 Pounds

178
Q

The transfer valves have opened. When will they close?

A

Automatically at the next refueling operation

179
Q

With the mode SEL switch in AUTO, when will the center tank pumps, operate (A319/A320 only)?

A

The center tank pumps operate for 2 minutes after each engine is started; will not restart until slats
are retracted in flight; and continue to operate until five minutes after the center tank is empty.

180
Q

Is refueling possible if the aircraft batteries are the only source of power.

A

Yes

181
Q

Can fuel be gravity fed to the engines?

A

Yes, In flight

182
Q

How many fuel pump(s) are in each fuel tank (A319/A320 only)?

A

Two

183
Q

Which hydraulic systems have engine driven pumps?

A

The green and yellow hydraulic systems

184
Q

Name some of the major users of the GREEN system.

A

Landing gear, nose wheel steering.

185
Q

The yellow system has an engine driven pump, what other means do we have to pressurize the yellow system?

A

Electric pump, PTU, and a hand pump for the cargo doors

186
Q

How many pumps does the yellow hydraulic system have, not counting the PTU?

A

The yellow hydraulic system has 3 pumps not counting the PTU (Engine, Electric, Hand).

187
Q

What does the yellow system hand pump supply pressure for?

A

Opening the cargo doors.

188
Q

When does the PTU operate?

A

When pressure between the green and yellow system drops to a predetermined level.

189
Q

Can fluid be transferred between hydraulic systems?

A

No

190
Q

Will the PTU operate during Cargo Door operation?

A

No

191
Q

When is the PTU tested?

A

During second engine start

192
Q

Is it possible to pressurize the green hydraulic system on the ground via the PTU?

A

Yes

193
Q

What are the hydraulic priority valves, and what is their function?

A

Priority valves cut off heavy load using units if system pressure drops below a predetermined value

194
Q

With the airplane on the ground and the blue electric pump switch in AUTO, when will the blue pump be energized?

A

With one engine running

195
Q

To emergency extend the gear the crew has to turn the gear crank 3 turns clockwise. What does this action accomplish?

A

This shuts off hydraulic pressure to the gear, opens the doors, and unlocks the gear.

196
Q

After emergency extension do the gear doors remain open?

A

Yes

197
Q

Do we have nose wheel steering after emergency gear extension?

A

No

198
Q

What would happen if the rain repellent pb were pushed on the ground with the engines shut down?

A

Nothing

199
Q

Is it permitted to select WING anti-ice on the ground?

A

No

200
Q

On the ground, will the wing anti-ice valves open?

A

On the ground the wing anti-ice valves will open during a test sequence, (30 seconds), provided
pneumatic supply is available.

201
Q

After takeoff, when should WING anti-ice be selected ON, if needed?

A

At thrust reduction altitude, after selection of LVR CLB.

202
Q

On approach, when should WING anti-ice be selected OFF?

A

At the FAF inbound, unless in severe icing.

203
Q

What part of each wing is anti-iced with pneumatic bleed air?

A

The three outboard slats on each wing are anti-iced with pneumatic bleed air.

204
Q

What part of the engine is anti iced?

A

The nacelle

205
Q

What happens when either engine anti-ice valve is open with regard to engine RPM?

A

Minimum idle rpm is increased (if necessary)

206
Q

When does probe heat come on automatically?

A

When at least one engine is running.

207
Q

Window heat operates at what power level in flight?

A

Normal

208
Q

Where does the crew look to verify that the parking brake is on?

A

Confirm on the ECAM Memo

209
Q

What is the purpose of the brake check accomplished immediately after the aircraft start moving.

A

Checks brake efficiency, confirms green pressure has taken over and that yellow pressure is zero on
the triple indicator.

210
Q

If AUTO BRK is displayed in green, what is indicated?

A

Auto Brake is armed

211
Q

What does the UNLK light in the LDG GEAR indicate?

A

UNLK in red indicates gear is not locked in selected position, or in transition.

212
Q

What does “HOT” in the BRK FAN light indicate?

A

Illuminates when brakes are too hot, accompanied by ECAM.

213
Q

Will the lights on the LDG GEAR panel illuminate if LGCIU #1 is not powered?

A

No, LGCIU 1 must be supplied with power for the LDG GEAR panel to illuminate.

214
Q

Does the alternate brake system have same capabilities as normal brakes?

A

The alternate brake system has the same capabilities, as normal brakes except auto brakes are inoperative

215
Q

Is nose wheel steering available with green hydraulic pressure inoperative?

A

On basic aircraft no. On enhanced aircraft yes because NWS is operated by the yellow hydraulic
system.

216
Q

When using the alternate brake system on accumulator pressure only, how many brake applications can the pilot expect.

A

When using the alternate brake system on accumulator pressure only, the accumulator supplies at least seven full brake applications.

217
Q

What is the maximum degree of nose wheel steering available when using the hand wheel?

A

Maximum degree of nose wheel steering available using the hand wheel is +/- 75°

218
Q

When using the rudder pedals for nose wheel steering, the steering angle starts to reduce what speed and progressively reduces to zero degrees at ____kts?

A

When using the rudder pedals for nose wheel steering, the steering angle starts to reduce at 40 kts and progressively reduces to zero degrees at 130 kts.

219
Q

The green DECEL light on the autobrake switch illuminates when the actual airplane deceleration corresponds to what percent of the selected rate.

A

The green DECEL light on the autobrake switch illuminates when the actual airplane deceleration corresponds to 80% of the selected rate.

220
Q

When is the antiskid system automatically deactivated?

A

Below 20 knts

221
Q

When is brake pressure applied to the brakes during landing using the LO setting? MED?

A

LO, 4 seconds after ground spoiler extension; MED 2 seconds after ground spoiler extension.

222
Q

Are there any operations described in the Airbus Pilot Handbook that requires the use of MAX autobrakes during landing?

A

No

223
Q

Is the anti-skid system operational with yellow alternates brakes?

A

The anti-skid system may or may not be available with alternate brakes

224
Q

What does the RED ARROW indicate on landing gear panel?

A

Landing gear is not locked down when the aircraft is in the landing configuration.

225
Q

The brake pressure indication on Triple Pressure Indicator reads which system pressure?

A

The brake pressure indication on Triple Pressure Indicator reads yellow system pressure

226
Q

Which hydraulic system does the parking brake use?

A

Yellow

227
Q

When the parking brake is ON, is the anti-skid active?

A

No

228
Q

How many ADIRU’s does the US Airways Airbus 319/320/321 have?

A

Three

229
Q

When the Mode Selectors are positioned to NAV during a full alignment, what indications should be noted on the panel?

A

The ON BAT light illuminates momentarily followed by three align lights on each respective IR.

230
Q

What does the ON BATT light indicate?

A

One or more IR’s is being supplied only by the aircraft battery. It illuminates momentarily at the
beginning of a full alignment.

231
Q

If the ADIRS switches are already in NAV, how do you accomplish a rapid alignment?

A

Select the MODE Selectors OFF then back ON within five seconds and select ALIGN IRS on INIT
page.

232
Q

What would occur if the pilot were to take longer than five seconds to cycle any of the MODE Selectors from OFF back to NAV?

A

The affected IRS will initiate a full alignment.

233
Q

Can the present position be entered through the ADIRU panel or must we use the MCDU?

A

Present position may be entered in the ADIRU through the numeric keyboard.

234
Q

Does the center OFF, 1, 2, 3 switch turn the GNADIRS unit OFF?

A

No, only the upper display

235
Q

What would cause an ADIRS ALIGN light to flash?

A

IR alignment fault, or no present position entry after 10 minutes, or difference between position at
shut down and entered position exceeds 1° of latitude or longitude.

236
Q

The entered position causes the ALIGN lights to flash. If the coordinates are correct, how is the problem corrected?

A

Check the city pairs and re-enter if necessary.

237
Q

What would a steady FAULT light in the #1 IR indicate?

A

The respective IR is lost

238
Q

Would a fault in the #1 IR cause the #1 ADR to fail?

A

No, they are independent systems

239
Q

What would a flashing IR FAULT light indicate?

A

Attitude and Heading may be recovered in ATT mode

240
Q

Are we allowed to pushback during the alignment process?

A

No. Movement will cause the system to fault.

241
Q

After selecting the IR MODE selectors to NAV, when should you select ALIGN IRS on the INIT A page?

A

Immediately after selecting NAV to avoid excessive ADIRS drift.

242
Q

If you were to rotate the #1 IR mode rotary selector to OFF, would that affect the #1 ADR?

A

Yes, although they are independent systems, they share an ON/OFF switch.

243
Q

If IR #1 were to fault in flight, what information would be lost on the #1 PFD? How is it displayed?

A

Attitude and heading information is lost. Red ATT and HDG flags replace attitude and heading
information on the PFD

244
Q

If IR #1 were to fault in flight, the DDRMI will show a compass card flag. Why?

A

The DDRMI will show a compass card flag because IR #1 drives the DDRMI compass card until it is switched.

245
Q

What IR information may be recovered if an IR fault light is flashing?

A

Attitude and heading may possibly be recovered by turning the rotary IR selector to ATT

246
Q

Are the IR track, wind, and heading information displayed on the IR overhead panel relative to true or magnetic?

A

True

247
Q

If the SYS pb is selected OFF, what is inhibited?

A

All basic EGPWS alerts (modes 1-5) are inhibited.

248
Q

When is the purpose of the FLAP MODE pb?

A

To inhibit nuisance warnings when an ECAM calls for landing with a reduced flap setting.

249
Q

What is the purpose of the LDG FLAP 3 pb?

A

It is used when making a landing in CONFIG 3

250
Q

If a TERR fault light illuminated, would that affect the basic EGPWS modes?

A

No

251
Q

Where is ILS #1 and #2 displayed?

A

ILS #1 is displayed on the CAPTAIN’S PFD and F/O ND. ILS #2 is displayed one the F/O PFD and the CAPTAIN’S ND

252
Q

Radio Height displayed on the PFD below what altitude?

A

Radio Height is displayed on the PFD below 2500’

253
Q

What information from the ADR is displayed on the PFD?

A

Airspeed and altitude

254
Q

When is side stick position and max sidestick deflection, displayed on PFD?

A

Sidestick position and max sidestick deflection are displayed on the ground on the PFD after the first
engine start.

255
Q

If a RADIO ALTIMETER #1 fails, is radio altitude information lost on either PFD?

A

No. There are two radio altimeters. Should one fail, the remaining Radio Altimeter height is displayed
on both PFD’S.

256
Q

What information do the FAC’s provide that is indicated on the PFD?

A

On the PFD, all characteristic speeds are FAC generated: VLS, Vmax, Vfe, ALPHA MAX, ALPHA
PROT, F, and S, speeds, speed trend, etc.

257
Q

With the TERR ON ND pushbutton off, what happens if a terrain caution is generated?

A

Terrain data is automatically displayed on the ND and the ON light illuminates

258
Q

How can the pilot differentiate terrain, from radar sweeps?

A

TERR sweeps from center outward

259
Q

Does the EGPWS use radar signals to “ground map” terrain?

A

No, it utilizes a worldwide terrain database

260
Q

The passenger oxygen mask doors open automatically if the cabin altitude exceeds what altitude?

A

14,000 ft.

261
Q

How is cockpit crew oxygen supplied?

A

A single high pressure bottle

262
Q

What is the purpose of the CREW SUPPLY pushbutton?

A

Controls the supply value in the avionics bay.

263
Q

What indications do we have on ECAM when the CREW SUPPLY pushbutton is off?

A

“OXY” in front of oxygen pressure on DOOR PAGE turns amber.

264
Q

Passenger oxygen is supplied by what?

A

Chemical generator system.

265
Q

The passenger oxygen system will provide a supply of oxygen for approximately how long?

A

13 minutes

266
Q

Above 35,000 ft. the cockpit crew oxygen masks provide what type of oxygen, 100% or a mix?

A

Provides 100% oxygen, regardless of the position of the N / 100% selector

267
Q

How can the passenger oxygen system can be activated?

A

Automatically at 14,000 feet cabin altitude, or by manually by pressing the MASK MAN ON
pushbutton.

268
Q

What does the MASK MAN ON pb do?

A

Energizes the system, opening the doors

269
Q

When will the flow of oxygen begin for the passengers?

A

When the mask is pulled toward the seat

270
Q

When might a manual start be considered?

A

If an automatic start aborts due to low starter inlet air pressure

271
Q

If the #1 ENG MAN START pushbutton is depressed, will the engine begin to motor?

A

No, the ENG MODE selector must be set to either CRANK or IGN/START

272
Q

During a manual start of the #1 engine, does the ENG MAN START pushbutton have to be depressed to close the start valve?

A

No, the start valve closes automatically when N2 greater than or equal to 50%.

273
Q

What are the five positions of the thrust levers?

A

TOGA, FLEX/MCT, CL, IDLE, MAX REV.

274
Q

How is the Autothrust usually armed on the ground?

A

By setting the thrust levers at the FLX or TOGA detent when the engines are running.

275
Q

How is Autothrust usually activated?

A

By selecting the Thrust Levers to the CL detent.

276
Q

How is activation of Autothrust confirmed?

A

A/THR is displayed in white in column five of the FMA.

277
Q

What is Thrust Lock?

A

The Thrust Lock function prevents thrust variations when the A/THR fails/disconnects.

278
Q

What is Alpha Floor?

A

A protection that commands TOGA thrust regardless of thrust lever position.

279
Q

What is TOGA Lock?

A

After the aircraft leaves Alpha Floor conditions, TOGA thrust is frozen and thrust lever movement has no effect until Autothrust is disconnected.

280
Q

What happens if the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons are pushed and held (15sec.)?

A

The autothrust system is disconnected for the remainder of the flight, including Alpha Floor
protection.

281
Q

What does the FAULT indication on the ENG panel mean?

A

Automatic start abort, or a fuel valve disagreement.

282
Q

With the ENGINE MODE switch in NORM, when will ignition be provided?

A

Flame out and EIU failure (CFM). Flame out, EIU failure, slats extended and engine anti-ice on. (IAE)

283
Q

What does the FADEC control?

A

The Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) controls start sequencing, fuel metering, and
engine limits.

284
Q

What happens if one FADEC fails?

A

The FADEC is dual channel so the other channel will provide full authority for all engine functions

Airbus A320 (3 decks)

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