Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ATP A320 Type > A320 Master Question Bank Study Guide > Flashcards

A320 Master Question Bank Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

The engine generators and APU generator are rated at ____ KVA maximum continuous load

A

90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The normal priority for supplying electrical power to the AC buses is

A

engine generators, external power, APU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The BATTERY BUS is normally powered by

A

DC bus 1 through a DC tie contactor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

With total AC power loss, and airspeed above 50 KTS, an inverter is connected to the hOT BATTERY BUS and supplies AC power to the:

A

AC ESS bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

An AC ESS Feed switch located on the overhead panel shifts the power source for the AC ESS bus from:

A

AC Bus 1 to AC bus 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When the aircraft airspeed is above 100 KTS, which AC bus can be powered by the emergency generator?

A

AC ESS bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The FASTEN SEAT BELT, NO SMOKING, and EXIT signs come on automatically when the cabin
altitude exceeds_______ feet, regardless of the respective switch position.

A

11,300’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Do not press the IDG DISCONNECT switch for longer than approximately______ seconds to prevent
damage to the disconnect mechanism.

A

3s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The BAT pushbutton FAULT indication will illuminate when:

A

the charging current is outside its limits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The IDG pushbutton FAULT indication will illuminate to indicate:

A

a. an IDG oil overheat.
b. IDG low oil pressure.
c. IDG low oil level.
d. either A or B (CORRECT!)
e. either A or C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If one generator exceeds 100% of its rated output:

A

the galley pushbutton FAULT light will illuminate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

On the A320, when operating with a single engine-driven generator on the ground or a single
generator in flight:

A

the main galley buses and in-seat power supplies are shed automatically.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The RAT & EMER GEN indicator on the EMER ELEC PWR panel illuminates a red FAULT
indication when:

A

AC BUSES 1 & 2 are not powered and the emergency generator is not supplying electrical power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If avionics smoke is detected when the GEN 1 LINE pushbutton on the EMER ELEC PWR panel is
selected OFF:

A

GEN 1 is completely isolated from the aircraft except for supplying one fuel pump in each wing tank.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Engine fire detection sensors are installed in all of the following areas EXCEPT:

A

a. the fuel/oil heat exchanger (CORRECT!)
b. the pylon nacelle.
c. the engine core.
d. the fan section.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Each engine fire detection system consists of:

A

two loops with three heat sensing elements each.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If both engine fire loops fail within ______ seconds of each other, a _____ will occur.

A

5 / FIRE warning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If any component of the fire detection system fails:

A

the ECAM will issue appropriate messages(s).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If there is an APU fire in flight, the APU:

A

must be shut down manually and the fire bottle will discharged manually.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Fire protection for the forward and aft cargo compartments includes:

A

one extinguisher bottle which can be discharged to either compartment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The engine fire extinguisher squib is armed when:

A

the ENG FIRE pushbutton is pushed and released.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CARGO SMOKE indicator will illuminate SMOKE in red when:

A

both of the two channels of the detection system detect smoke.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When the APU FIRE pushbutton is pushed and released, the:

A

APU bleed and crossbleed valves are closed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A DISCH light on either the ENGINE or APU AGENT pushbutton indicates:

A

the extinguisher bottle has lost pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The GEN 1 LINE smoke light on the EMER ELEC PWR panel indicates:

A

smoke in the avionics ventilation duct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) controls all of the following functions EXCEPT:

A

warning for exceeding an EGT limit warning after engine start.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

FADEC computes the thrust rating limit based on:

A

the measured thrust lever angle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Normally, FADEC is powered by:

A

a dedicated alternator independent of the aircraft electrical system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

During an automatic start, FADEC will automatically abort the start in case of:

A

hot start, no ignition, stalled start.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

FADEC has three idle modes including:

A

modulated idle, approach idle & reverse idle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Automatic and manual starts are identical in all respects except pilot action is required to manually open
the start valve by selecting the ENG MAN START pushbutton ON.

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The ignition system:

A

consists of two independent circuits designated A & B which are alternated by FADEC at each
engine autostart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Thrust reverse deployment requires all the following EXCEPT:

A

at least one SEC detects deployment of the ground spoilers after touchdown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The thrust levers have:

A

5 detents – TOGA, FLX/MCT, CLimb, IDLE, MAX REVerse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Continuous ignition is provided automatically when the Engine Mode selector is in the NORM
position in all of the following EXCEPT:

A

Leading edge slats are retracted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

During automatic engine start, selecting an Engine Master switch ON causes:

A

the LP fuel valve to open and the HP valve opens at a preset N2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which statement about the APU is true?

A

The APU has a dedicated fuel pump that supplies fuel from the left fuel manifold in the event that
tank boost pumps are not operating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The Electronic Instrument System presents data on _____ identical display units.

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The three Display Management Computers (DMCs):

A

acquire and process inputs from sensors and computers to generate the display images.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The A320 has _____ Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs).

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

EGPWS aural and visual warnings are never inhibited.

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Flight Management Guidance Computers (FMGCs) have which two functions?

A

Flight guidance and flight management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Three possible modes of FMGC operation are:

A

independent, single, and dual.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Each FMGC uses which inputs for position determination?

A

A hybrid IRS/GPS solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The two basic modes of flight guidance are:

A

Managed and selected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The MANAGED mode of flight guidance is used for:

A

long-term lateral, vertical, and speed profiles as determined by the FMGS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Both autopilots may be engaged and active in any phase of flight.

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

All navaids are normally autotuned by a(n):

A

FMGC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

VOR data can be displayed on:

A

a. both NDs.
b. the DDRMI.
c. Both A & B (CORRECT!)
d. Neither A nor B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

All of the following are used for FMGS radio position computation EXCEPT:

A

VOR/VOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Altitude alerting is automatically inhibited in flight when:

A

a. slats are extended with the landing gear selected down.
b. slats are retracted with the landing gear down.
c. on approach after glide slope captured.
d. Either A or C (CORRECT!()

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Radio Height is displayed on the PFD when:

A

Below 2,500’ AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Armed guidance modes are displayed on line 2 of the Flight Mode Annunciator in which color(s)?

A

Blue or Magenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Engaged guidance modes are displayed on line 1 of the Flight Mode Annunciator in which color(s)?

A

Green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Information from ILS receiver number 1 is displayed on __________

A

Captain’s PFD & First Officer’s ND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Information from ILS receiver number 1 is displayed on __________

A

Captain’s PFD & First Officer’s ND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The ON BAT light on the ADIRS CDU illuminates

A

when one or more ADIRUs are supplied by airplane battery only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The ON BAT light on the ADIRS CDU illuminates

A

when one or more ADIRUs are supplied by airplane battery only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

In the event of failure of the AIR DATA function of ADIRU 1 or 2, the affected displays can be
manually replaced by ADR 3 with the EIS

A

AIR DATA selector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

If the FLEX TEMP is not entered on the TAKEOFF page of the MCDU

A

a FLX takeoff is not available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Pressing the ECAM EMER CANC pushbutton will

A

cancel existing aural warnings for as long as they exist and cancel existing cautions (aural & visual)
for the rest of the flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The flight control surfaces are _____ controlled and _____ actuated

A

electrically, hydraulically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which computer normally controls operation of the elevators and horizontal stabilizer?

A

ELAC 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Sidesticks provide electronic commands to the flight control computers. If both sidesticks are operated
simultaneously:

A

both sidestick inputs are algebraically summed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Roll control is achieved by

A

one aileron assisted by the four outboard spoilers on each wing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Whenever flaps are extended, the ailerons:

A

droop 5 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

If electrical power to a SEC fails:

A

the affected spoiler(s) automatically retract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

If angle of attack protection is active or if flaps are in CONFIG FULL:

A

speed brake extension is inhibited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Should the active elevator actuator fail, elevator control is:

A

maintained by the other actuator which becomes active.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Two control surfaces that have mechanical back-up are:

A

horizontal stabilizer and rudder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Horizontal stabilizer trim automatically resets to zero degrees after landing.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Should both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after the _____ are extended

A

Slats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Moving the RUD TRIM rotary switch with the autopilot engaged

A

has no effect on the rudder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

All of the following will activate the wing tip brakes EXCEPT:

A

thermal runaway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

While on the ground in Normal Law, a sidestick roll deflection

A

has a direct proportional relationship between sidestick deflection and deflection of the flight controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

In flight, in Normal Law and with bank angle less than 33º, pitch trim is

A

automatic with or without the autopilot engaged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

With autopilot engaged, manual movement of the pitch trim wheel

A

will disconnect the autopilot but not the ELACs

78
Q

In Normal Law, elevator control changes from normal mode to alpha protection mode when the
angle of attack is greater than

A

Alpha Protection

79
Q

When ___________is reached, as shown by indicated airspeed, TOGA thrust is provided
regardless of thrust lever position

A

alpha floor

80
Q

In Direct Law, you would know to use manual pitch trim by

A

the message “USE MAN PITCH TRIM” on the PFD.

81
Q

With the A320 in Pitch Alternative Law, roll is in _______ Law

A

Direct

82
Q

When the landing gear is extended, pitch alternate law

A

degrades to pitch direct law

83
Q

When in Alternate Law, the low speed stability (nose down command) cannot be overridden by the
sidestick

A

FALSE

84
Q

In the event of a complete loss of electrical flight control signals, the airplane reverts to

A

Mechanical Backup

85
Q

In Mechanical Backup, hydraulic power is not required since the rudder pedals and pitch trim wheels
are mechanically linked

A

FALSE

86
Q

Even in Alternate Law, a pilot cannot stall the airplane

A

FALSE

87
Q

Not counting the APU fuel pump, the A320 has a total of _______ main pumps

A

6

88
Q

If the wing tank pumps fail, suction (gravity) feeding to the engines is possible from

A

the wing tanks only.

89
Q

Refueling is still possible even if external power and APU generated power are unavailable

A

TRUE

90
Q

On the A320, with the MODE SEL switch in AUTO, the center tank pumps will do all of the
following EXCEPT

A

a. run for two minutes after both engines are running.
b. will not run until slats are retracted in flight.
c. run for five minutes after the center tank is empty.
d. run for five minutes after the slats are extended. (CORRECT!)

91
Q

On the A320 fuel transfers from the outer cells to the inner cells of the wing tanks when either
inner cell quantity decreases to:

A

1,650 lbs

92
Q

On the A320 normal fuel management in flight is to use fuel from:

A

the center tank first, then the wing tanks.

93
Q

What indication would you see if the center tank has more than 550 pounds of fuel and the left
or right wing tank has less than 11,000 pounds?

A

FAULT in the MODE SEL pushbutton.

94
Q

The engine low pressure fuel valves are controlled by:

A

a. the engine MASTER switch.
b. the ENGINE FIRE pushbutton.
c. FADEC
d. either A or B (CORRECT!)
e. either B or C

95
Q

Once opened, the fuel transfer valves on the A320 are closed automatically:

A

at the next refueling operation.

96
Q

The fuel crossfeed valve is controlled by ________ motors

A

2

97
Q

Pneumatic air is supplied by intermediate-pressure (IP) or high-pressure (HP) engine bleeds, or both

A

TRUE

98
Q

In flight, if HP bleed air pressure is insufficient:

A

the engine speed will increase automatically

99
Q

The HP bleed valve will close automatically in the event of low upstream pressure, excessive
upstream pressure, or when the bleed air valve is closed electrically.

A

TRUE

100
Q

The crossbleed valve has two electric motors, one for the automatic mode and one for the manual mode.

A

TRUE

101
Q

The APU bleed air valve is:

A

electrically controlled and pneumatically operated.

102
Q

The leak-detection system senses an overheat using a single loop in:

A

the pylons and APU.

103
Q

The amber APU BLEED FAULT light illuminates from an APU:

A

BLEED LEAK

104
Q

External air may be used to supplement low APU bleed pressure.

A

FALSE

105
Q

The AUTO position of the XBLEED selector opens the crossbleed if:

A

the APU bleed valve is open.

106
Q

If a fault exists, the amber FAULT light in the ENG BLEED will extinguish when the ENG BLEED
pushbutton is selected off:

A

if the fault has disappeared.

107
Q

Recirculation fans in the air conditioning system direct filtered cabin air to:

A

the mixing unit

108
Q

Temperature regulation is controlled by

A

three zone controllers and two pack controllers.

109
Q

If an air cycle machine fails, the affected pack:

A

Operates as a heat exchanger

110
Q

If both channels of a pack controller fail, pack outlet temperature:

A

is lost and pack valve closes.

111
Q

Should both channels fail in the zone controller:

A

Pack 2 temperature will be the average of the FWD CABIN and AFT CABIN zone selectors.

112
Q

The lav/galley extract fan operates:

A

continuously when electrical power is available.

113
Q

If bleed air is being supplied by the APU or if one pack fails, pack flow will be ______
regardless of the PACK FLOW selector position.

A

HI

114
Q

An amber FAULT light in the HOT AIR pushbutton means:

A

a duct overheat has been detected.

115
Q

What happens to the outflow valve when the RAM AIR switch is selected ON?

A

The outflow valve opens if Dp (differential pressure) is less than 1 psi.

116
Q

When either the BLOWER or EXTRACT switches is in OVRD, air from the air conditioning
system is added to ventilation air.

A

TRUE

117
Q

How many motors drive the outflow valve?

A

3

118
Q

During normal operations, the two cabin automatic pressure controllers alternate:

A

automatically after landing or if the operating controller fails.

119
Q

If the lav/galley fan system fails:

A

cabin temperature defaults to a predetermined value.

120
Q

Manual pressurization control is selected:

A

after selecting the MODE SEL pushbutton to MAN.

121
Q

On the cargo heat control panel, selecting the AFT ISOL VALVE to OFF:

A

Closes the inlet and outlet isolation valves and the trim air valve and stops

122
Q

In the event of loss of pressure in the green hydraulic system, fluid can be transferred from
the yellow hydraulic systems.

A

FALSE

123
Q

Which hydraulic systems have engine-driven pumps?

A

Green and yellow

124
Q

Which hydraulic systems have electric pumps?

A

Blue and yellow

125
Q

The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides hydraulic power to the ___________ system.

A

Blue

126
Q

The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) will deploy automatically when:

A

AC buses 1 and 2 are not powered and airspeed is greater than 100 kts.

127
Q

With no electrical power available, the hand pump supplies yellow system hydraulic pressure
to operate the:

A

Cargo doors

128
Q

The PTU activates automatically when the pump pressure output differential between the
________ and _________ systems exceeds a predetermined value.

A

Green, yellow

129
Q

It is possible to pressurize the green hydraulic system on the ground via the PTU when the
engines are not running.

A

TRUE

130
Q

Pressing the RAT MAN ON pushbutton on the hydraulic panel will manually deploy the RAT
and provide:

A

blue hydraulic power only.

131
Q

An ENG PUMP pushbutton FAULT light extinguishes when the ENG PUMP pushbutton is
selected OFF except for which condition:

A

OVERHEAT

132
Q

With the airplane on the ground and the blue electric pump switch in AUTO, the blue system
pump will start operating automatically when

A

one engine is running.

133
Q

The PTU FAULT light illuminates when the

A

green or yellow system reservoir has low air pressure

134
Q

Normally, landing gear operation and monitoring is the primary responsibility of

A

the LGCIUs which alternate primary/backup roles after each gear cycle

135
Q

The ________ hydraulic system provides power for gear extension/retraction

A

Green

136
Q

A safety valve shuts off the hydraulic power to the landing gear when airspeed is:

A

greater than 260 KIAS.

137
Q

Which of the following statements about the alternate brake accumulator is true?

A

When landing on alternate brakes powered by accumulator pressure only, anti-skid is
never available.

138
Q

Above 72 knots, autobraking is initiated by

A

ground spoiler extension

139
Q

The alternate brake system has the same capabilities as normal brakes EXCEPT

A

auto brake is inoperative

140
Q

When using the alternate brake system on accumulator pressure only, the accumulator supplies

A

at least seven full brake applications as indicated by the top of the green band (1,000 psi)
on the BRAKES sector of the triple indicator

141
Q

The steering tillers can steer the nose wheel up to ____ in each direction

A

+/- 75º

142
Q

When using the rudder pedals for nose wheel steering, the steering angle starts to reduce
above ________ ground speed and progressively reduces to 0º at _______.

A

40 and 130kts

143
Q

The green DECEL light in each AUTO / BRK switch illuminates when the actual airplane
deceleration is ________ of the selected rate.

A

80%

144
Q

The RED ARROW on the Landing Gear Selector Lever illuminates when

A

the landing gear is not locked down when the aircraft is in the landing configuration

145
Q

Extending the landing gear with the Emergency Gear Extension handcrank requires 3
clockwise turns of the handle which does all of the following EXCEPT

A

automatically cycles to the standby LGCIU

146
Q

The lights on the Landing Gear Indicator Panel will continue to operate even if both LGCIUs
have failed as long as LGCIU 1 is supplied with electrical power

A

TRUE

147
Q

In flight, the ______ on each wing are anti-iced with pneumatic bleed air.

A

three outboard slats

148
Q

When a pneumatic leak is detected, the wing anti-ice valves:

A

close automatically

149
Q

When either engine anti-ice valve is open

A

maximum N1 is reduced and idle N1 is increased

150
Q

Window heat operates at what power level in flight?

A

High

151
Q

Probe heat comes on automatically when

A

at least one engine is running

152
Q

On the ground, wing anti-ice valves will:

A

open during a 30-second test sequence

153
Q

The FAULT light on the wing anti-ice switch indicates

A

a. anti-ice valve position disagrees with the selected position.
b. low pressure is detected.
c. icing has been detected and the anti-ice valve is closed.
d. Either A or B (CORRECT!)

154
Q

The ECAM will display a WING A ICE memo when wing anti-ice is selected “ON.”

A

true

155
Q

A FAULT light on an engine anti-ice switch indicates the valve:

A

position disagrees with ENG 1 (2) pushbutton selection.

156
Q

If electrical power is lost, engine anti-ice valves will ______ and wing anti-ice valves will _____.

A

open, close

157
Q

Passenger oxygen mask doors open automatically if the cabin altitude exceeds

A

14,000 ft.

158
Q

Passenger oxygen is supplied by:

A

chemical generators

159
Q

Cockpit crew oxygen is supplied by:

A

a single high-pressure cylinder.

160
Q

The passenger oxygen system will provide oxygen for approximately:

A

13 mins

161
Q

Above _________, the cockpit crew oxygen masks will provide 100% oxygen, regardless of the
position of the N / 100% selector.

A

35,000 ft

162
Q

A _____ disk on the lower left side of the forward fuselage provides a visual indication of a
thermal discharge.

A

Green

163
Q

Cockpit crew oxygen distribution system can be shut off from the cockpit.

A

true

164
Q

The Crew Oxygen Mask Microphone will be automatically deactivated when the mask is
restowed in its box.

A

FALSE

165
Q

The passenger oxygen system can be automatically activated at a high cabin altitude, or
manually by:

A

pressing the MASK MAN ON pushbutton.

166
Q

When does the flow of oxygen begin for the passengers?

A

When a mask is pulled towards the seat.

167
Q

Communications radios are controlled:

A

from any one of the three radio management panels (RMPs).

168
Q

Only ______ is functional in the EMER ELEC CONFIG.

A

RMP 1

169
Q

The Flight Deck Voice Recorder will record on the ground:

A

a. automatically for five minutes after electrical power is supplied to the airplane.
b. when at least one engine is running.
c. when the DFDR pushbutton on the pedestal is pressed.
d. Both A & B are correct. (CORRECT!)
e. Both B & C are correct.

170
Q

When using the boom microphone, oxygen mask microphone, or hand microphone, the PA
button must be pressed and held to use the PA system.

A

TRUE

171
Q

The white SEL indicator on a Radio Management Panel illuminates when:

A

a transceiver associated with one RMP is tuned by another RMP.

172
Q

With the INT/RAD switch on an Audio Control Panel in the INT position and the sidestick
Transmit Switch in the RADIO (keyed) position, you will transmit on the:

A

radio selected by its transmission key on the Audio Control Panel.

173
Q

The loudspeaker volume knob will control the loudness of the aural alert and voice messages.

A

FALSE

174
Q

The Flight Deck Handset is used for communication

A

from the flight deck to the cabin

175
Q

The Digital Flight Data Recorder:

A

operates continuously in flight whether or not the engines are running

176
Q

Pressing the CVR ERASE pushbutton for two seconds erases the Cockpit Voice Recorder
tape completely if

A

a. the aircraft is on the ground.
b. the parking brake is set.
c. Both A and B (CORRECT!)
d. either A or B

177
Q

When the captain selects the EMER pushbutton ON on the CALLS panel, all of the following
occur EXCEPT:

A

three long buzzers sound on the flight deck.

178
Q

Which statement concerning the NAV key on the RMP is NOT correct?

A

Normal auto tuning of nav aids is still available.

179
Q

During the Preliminary Cockpit Preparation flow, before selecting batteries on, ensure a
minimum of ____ volts is displayed; if less, establish external power connection and charge for
a minimum of ____ minutes.

A

25.5 volts, 20 minutes

180
Q

On the ECAM DOOR/OXY page, if oxygen pressure is half boxed on amber, the Minimum
Flight Crew Oxygen Pressure table must be consulted.

A

TRUE

181
Q

During panel prep, select the BAT switches OFF then back to AUTO and check the ECAM
ELEC page for battery charging current of less than _____, decreasing within ______.

A

60 amps, 10 seconds

182
Q

On a First Flight of the Day, a change of flight crew, or if the route includes “long segments in
poor NAVAIDS coverage” without GPS, position ALL ADIRS IR MODE selectors in the ____
position. For other flights if the residual ground speed is greater than ___, position ALL
ADIRS IR MODE selectors in ____ for no more than ____, then position them to
_____ to perform a fast alignment

A

NAV, 5 knots, OFF, 5 seconds, NAV

183
Q

After engine start with the Parking Brake OFF, if the brake pedals are depressed fully, brake
pressure displayed on the BRAKES and ACCU PRESSURE indicator should be

A

0

184
Q

T. O. INHIBIT, displayed in magenta on the upper ECAM, means that selected low priority
warnings/cautions are suppressed from

A

T.O. power application until 1500’ or 2 minutes after lift-off, whichever occurs first.

185
Q

The ILS pushbutton on the glare shield panel must be pressed to

A

display ILS information on the PFD

185
Q

The Landing Checklist cannot be completed until the ECAM LDG memo appears

A

TRUE

186
Q

LDG INHIBIT appears below approximately _____ feet RA to show that selected low-priority
warnings/cautions are suppressed during landing

A

800’ RA

187
Q

On arrival at the gate, the ADIRS drift check must be accomplished within _____ following
aircraft stop. Regardless of navigation time, a ground speed of less than _____ is within
acceptable limits.

A

2 mins, 15 knots

188
Q

If a Flex Temp was not entered in the MCDU and the thrust levers are positioned in the FLEX
detent:

A

a. a warning will be generated
b. continue to move the thrust levers to TOGA and execute a max thrust takeoff.
c. pressing the TO CONFIG pushbutton prior to takeoff will generate an alert.
d. A and B are both correct (CORRECT!)
e. A and C are both correct

189
Q

A Flex thrust takeoff is allowed on a wet runway, but not allowed on a contaminated runway
which is defined as _____ of standing water.

A

1/8 inches

190
Q

Prior to landing, the ENG MODE SEL should be set to the IGN mode:

A

for contaminated runways.

ATP A320 Type (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions