A320 CPaT/Systems Flashcards
The steering hand wheel provides a maximum steering angle of _______.
The rudder pedal steering provides a maximum steering angle of _______.
75 degrees.
6 degrees.
The APU is normally supplied fuel from which fuel tank?
Left Wing Tank.
The centre tank can also feed the APU.
The flight deck oxygen system will force oxygen at 100% to the crew members when above a cabin altitude of _________
35 000’
CPAT Oxygen Systems Introduction
Pg. 5
The cabin oxygen system is supplied by chemical generators that can provide oxygen for 2, 3 or 4 masks for about how long?
About 22 minutes.
CPAT
Cabin Oxygen
Pg. 7
The smoke hood available in the flight deck provides re-generated breathing air for at least how long?
13-15 minutes.
CPAT Oxygen Systems Introduction
Pg. 16
Cabin oxygen masks deploy automatically when the cabin altitude reaches
14 000’ (+250’ / - 750’)
CPAT
Cabin Oxygen
Pg. 3
REGUL LO PR on the DOOR/OXY page illuminates when less than _________ PSI is sensed in the crew oxygen distribution manifold, or when the supply bottle drops below ______.
50, 400 psi.
CPAT
Flight Crew Oxygen
Pg. 26
On the DOOR/OXY page, the CKPT OXY label will change to amber in three situations:
- Pressure below 400 psi.
- Low oxygen pressure detected.
- Crew supply pb is off.
CPAT
Flight Crew Oxygen
Pg. 6
On the DOOR/OXY page, an amber half frame appears around the crew oxygen psi value when it is below
1500 psi.
CPAT
Flight Crew Oxygen
Pg. 7
The IDG FAULT switchlight illuminates and an ECAM is generated when:
- IDG oil outlet overheats above 185°C, or
- IDG oil pressure is low (inhibited below 14% N2).
(The light will extinguish when the IDG is disconnected).
CPAT
Electrical System Operations
Pg. 19
When a monitored CB has been out for more than ________, an ECAM will be triggered.
1 minute
CPAT
Electrical System Abnormals
Pg. 2
If power is lost to both ________ and _________, and the air speed is above _______ the RAT extends automatically to provide pressure to the blue hydraulic system and hydraulically power the emergency AC generator.
AC1 and AC2 busses
100 kts
CPAT
Emergency Generator
Pg. 2
CPAM
Electrical Introduction
p. 7
Engine HYD Pump FAULT switch-light illuminates when:
- reservoir level is low
- reservoir overheat (remains on until it cools down)
- reservoir air pressure is low
- pump pressure is low (inhibited in the ground with engines off)
CPAT
Hydraulic System Operations
p. 5
With the blue hydraulic pump switch in auto, the blue hydraulic pump runs when:
- on the ground, when at least one engine is running, or if the maintenance switch is pressed
- continuously in flight
CPAT
Hydraulic System Operations
p. 6
The Blue and Yellow HYD Pump FAULT switch-light illuminates when:
- reservoir level is low
- reservoir overheat (remains on until it cools down)
- reservoir air pressure is low
- pump pressure is low (inhibited in the ground with engines off)
- pump overheat
CPAT
Hydraulic System Operations
p. 7, 12
When the yellow pump is activated through operation of the cargo doors, the only other yellow system components that receive pressure are:
- alternate brakes
- engine 2 reverser
- The PTU will not operate
CPAT
Hydraulic System Operations
p. 9
When armed, the PTU will operate when the green and yellow systems HYD pressure differ by more than _______.
When is the PTU operation inhibited?
500 psi.
Inhibited during the first engine start, and is automatically tested during the start of the second engine.
CPAT
Hydraulic System Operations
p. 14
The PTU FAULT switch-light will illuminate when:
- green or yellow reservoir level is low
- green or yellow reservoir overheat (stays illuminated until cool down)
- green or yellow reservoir air pressure is low (inhibited on the ground with engines OFF)
CPAT
Hydraulic System Operations
p. 15
What is the hydraulic reservoir capacity for each system?
- blue: 6.5L
- green: 12.5L
- yellow: 14.5L
CPAT
Hydraulic System Operations
p. 19
The hydraulic system pressure indications on the HYD system page, display in amber if the system pressure is below _________
1450 psi.
CPAT
Hydraulic System Operations
p. 30
When do the two LGCIUs (Landing Gear Control and Interface Units) alternate between the control and standby mode?
With each cycle of the gear. One LGCIU controls the gear for a complete cycle of extension and retraction, then after retraction, the other one takes over.
CPAT
Landing Gear Controls and Indications
p. 4
A safety valve is installed in the landing gear system to isolate the hydraulic pressure from the landing gear when IAS exceeds ________
260 kts.
Hydraulic pressure is also isolated whenever the landing gear lever is in the UP position.
CPAT
Landing Gear Controls and Indications
p. 7
The landing gear indicator panel (displaying the red and green lights for the landing gear) is operational as long as
LGCIU #1 is electrically powered.
CPAT
Landing Gear Controls and Indicators
p. 13
What stops the wheels from rotating after the LDG has been retracted?
Mains - automatic application of wheel brakes.
Nosewheel - friction strips in the wheel well.
CPAT
Landing Gear Controls and Indicators
p. 17
Anti-Skid operation is automatically deactivate at ground speeds less than
20 kts.
CPAT
Brakes
p. 27
Autobrake operation commences upon extension of ground spoilers. Therefore, minimum speed for ground spoiler extension is required for the autobrakes to operate. What is this speed?
72 kts
CPAT
Brakes
p. 32
The green DECEL light on the autobrake panel illuminates when the deceleration value is at least ________ of the selected rate.
80%
CPAT
Brakes
p. 33
LOW and MED autobrakes operate _________ after ground spoiler deployment.
LO - 4 seconds
MED - 2 seconds
CPAT
Brakes
p. 37
Autobrakes automatically disarm after takeoff once the aircraft has been airborne for more than
10 seconds.
CPAT
Brakes
p. 39
The accumulator pressure can maintain parking brake pressure for
12 hours.
CPAT
Brakes
p. 43
Which hydraulic system does the parking brake use?
Alternate system or accumulator pressure (yellow HYD system).
CPAT
Brakes
p. 41
The accumulator pressure is sufficient for how many brake applications?
7 full brake applications.
CPAT
Brakes
p. 52
A wheel brake temperature arc appears when the temperature exceeds ________
100°C - Green Arc
300°C - Amber Arc + ECAM
CPAT
Brakes
p. 5
Full 6° of nose wheel steering control by the rudderpedals is available up to what speed?
40 kts.
CPAT
Nose Wheel Steering
p. 6
The Tow Control Lever deactivates the nose wheel steering system, allowing the wheels to be manually turned up to ___________.
When does the NW STRG DISC ECAM message display change from green to amber?
95° in either direction.
After the first engine is started.
CPAT
Nose Wheel Steering
p. 9
To allow for proper cooling, the APU may continue to run for ________ after it has been selected off.
60 to 120 seconds
CPAT
APU Operations
p. 17
The APU bleed air may be used to supply the packs up to __________, but is limited to supplying only one pack from ________ to _________.
15 000’
15 000’ to 20 000’
CPAT
APU Introduction
p. 6
The APU generator can provide electrical power up to what altitude?
The aircraft service ceiling of approximately FL390.
CPAT
APU Introduction
p. 8
The maximum altitude for an APU in-flight battery start is
approximately 25 000’.
CPAT
APU Introduction
p. 12
What happens to the pack flow when the APU bleed is selected on?
The packs automatically switch to HI FLOW.
CPAT
APU Introduction
p. 19
The three hydraulic reservoir’s are normally pressurized by
- bleed air from engine one, or
- bleed air from the cross bleed duct
CPAM
Hydraulic Introduction
p. 21
What do the hydraulic priority valves do?
Close automatically to cut off pressure to heavy load users if the respective system pressure is low.
CPAM
Hydraulic Introduction
p. 24
What are the five methods of onboard generation of AC power?
1-3. Engine and APU generators
- Emergency generator
- Static inverter
CPAM
Electrical Introduction
p. 4
The engine and APU generators are identical, and are rated at _______.
They provide __________ AC power.
90 KVA
115-200V 3-phase, 400 Hz
CPAM
Electrical Introduction
p. 5, 14
________ transformer rectifiers (TR’s) are installed. They can supply the system with up to _________ of DC current.
When does the essential TR power the essential DC bus?
3 (TR 1, TR 2X8, and ESS TR).
200 amperes
If all normal generators have failed or TR 1 or 2 has failed.
CPAM
Electrical Introduction
p. 9
What is the AC power source priority?
- Engine GEN to on-side bus
- External PWR to unpowered busses
- APU to unpowered busses
- Opposite engine GEN to unpowered bus
CPAM
Electrical Introduction
p. 47
Why should the APU bleed air never be used for wing anti-ice?
The APU bleed air is not equipped with an air-to-air heat exchanger for temperature regulation, therefore the slats may be damaged by excessive heat.
CPAM
Pneumatic Introduction
p. 24
The packs provide air temperature to satisfy _________ while the hot trim air is added to the specific zones that require ________
the coldest temperature selection,
a warmer air temperature.
CPAM
Air Conditioning Introduction
p. 7
What do the cabin fans do?
They are electrically powered, and are installed to re-circulate cabin air into the mixing unit, to mix with air from the packs, so bleed air demand from the engines is reduced.
CPAT
Air Conditioning Introduction
p. 10
Normally the packs will remain off when the engine start switch is selected, however if the second engine start is delayed by more than _______, the packs will come on.
30 seconds
CPAT
Air Conditioning Packs
p. 7
Where are the actual temperature sensors located for the cabin?
In the lavatory extraction circuit, and galley ventilation system.
CPAT
Air Conditioning Packs
p. 29
During takeoff, when takeoff power is set, and the MLG struts are compressed, what happens to the ram air inlet flaps uses for the packs?
What about landing?
They close automatically to avoid ingestion of foreign matter.
They also close during landing, as soon as MLG struts are compressed, and open 20 seconds after the speed drops below 70 kts.
CPAT
Air Conditioning Packs
p. 27
The temperature selection range on the overhead panel for air conditioning is
18°C to 30°C
CPAT
Air Conditioning Packs
p. 31
What percentage of flow does the three position pack for selector command?
LO = 80% NORM = 100% HI = 120%
CPAT
Air Conditioning Packs
p. 32
What happens to the pack flow, if the Crew selects LO, and the temperature demand cannot be satisfied?
The system automatically delivers normal flow.
CPAT
Air Conditioning Packs
p. 33
The packs deliver HI flow automatically, regardless of the selected flow rate, whenever:
- single pack operations, or
- when the APU is supplying bleed air
CPAT
Air Conditioning Packs
p. 34
If the cooling demand in one zone cannot be satisfied because the bleed pressure is too low, the zone controller sends a pressure demand signal causing
An increase to the minimum engine or APU idle, to increase the bleed pressure required.
CPAT
Air Conditioning Packs
p. 35, 36
When does the controlling CPC (cabin pressure controller) change?
70 seconds after landing or automatically if the operating CPC fails.
CPAT
Pressurization Introduction
p. 16
How can the pilot manually change the controlling CPC?
By selecting the MODE SEL pb to MAN, waiting at least 10 seconds, then re-selecting AUTO.
CPAT
Pressurization Controls and Indications
p. 8
Differential pressure is set to not exceed _______ in the pressurization system.
8.6 psi
CPAT
Pressurization Controls and Indications
p. 15
What valves does the ditching switch close?
- outflow valve
- emergency ram air inlet
- both the avionics ventilation inlet and extract valves
- both pack flow control valves
CPAT
Pressurization Controls and Indications
p. 47
If a thrust lever is set between two detents, the FADEC computes power for
the next higher detent (or stop).
CPAT
Power Plant Thrust Levers
p. 8
If a flex temperature that is not higher than the current TAT is set, the FLEX/MCT detent will produce what thrust on the ground?
MCT
CPAT
Power Plant Thrust Levers
p. 10
After takeoff with an engine failure when does the FMA begin showing a flashing white LVR MCT?
Once the speed reaches green dot.
CPAT
Power Plant Thrust Levers
p. 16
The FADEC remains powered for __________ from the aircraft electrical system after the engine master switch is switched OFF.
5 minutes
CPAT
Power Plant FADEC
p. 8
Will the engine shut down immediately if the engine fire push button is selected?
No, because the engine fire for switch only closes the low pressure fuel SOV, so the engine will run until the fuel the lines is consumed.
Conversely, the engine master switch closes the LP, and the HP fuel SOV causing an immediate shut down.
CPAT
Power Plant Fuel
p. 10
What are the two types of engine idle?
Variable idle:
- on the ground, and in flight with the flaps at 0
- idle speed depends on ambient conditions and bleed demands
Approach idle:
- in-flight, when the flaps are extended
- higher than normal idle adjusted for ambient conditions
CPAT
Power Plant Fuel
p. 16
For automatic start when does the ignition automatically come on and off?
ON when N2 reaches 16%
OFF when N2 reaches 50%
CPAT
Power Plant Ignition
p. 6
With the engine selector in NORM, when will the continuous ignition automatically come ON?
- flameout detected, or;
- engine running, and:
- engine anti-ice ON (some engines only)
- EIU failure
- flameout detected
- ignition delay during start
CPAT
Power Plant Ignition
p. 12
Why is engine two normally started first?
It provides power to the yellow hydraulic system, which operates the parking brake.
CPAT
Power Plant Auto Start
p. 4
When is a manual start procedure used?
After aborting a start because of:
- engine stall
- engine EGT over-limit
- low start air pressure
If we expect to abort a start because of:
- degraded bleed air performance (due to hot conditions, high altitudes, marginal pneumatic air source, etc.)
- an engine with a reduced EGT margin
CPAT
Power Plant Manual Start
p. 2
During engine start EGT should increase within _______ after the introduction of fuel.
15 seconds.
CPAT
Power Plant Manual Start
p. 11
What are the fuel tank capacities on the A320?
Outer Wing - 691kg X 2
Inner Wing - 5435kg X 2
Centre Tank - 14300kg
Total: 41300 kg
CPAT
Fuel System Introduction
p. 4
What are the Vent Surge Tanks?
Fuel tanks outboard of each outer wing tank used to provide temporary fuel storage for thermal expansion and aircraft movement.
CPAT
Fuel System Introduction
p. 8
Is gravity feeding fuel from the centre tank possible?
No, Gravity feeding is only possible from the wing tanks.
CPAT
Fuel System Introduction
p. 16
Describe the operation sequence of the fuel pumps.
- All pumps run for 2 min after engine start (centre tank pumps supply the engine).
- After 2 min, and if the slats are extended, the centre tank pumps will stop until the slats are retracted after takeoff.
- When the inner wing tanks reach a full level (from the fuel recirculation system), the centre tank pumps will stop until the fuel level in the wings drop below a threshold (each wing/centre tank pumps runs through this independently).
- 5 min after the centre tank low level is reached, the pumps turn off for the remainder of the flight.
- When the inner wing tanks reach a low level, transfer valves open to allow fuel from the outer fuel tank to flow into the inner tank.
CPAM
Fuel Controls and Indicators
p. 9
When do the outer wing fuel transfer valves open?
When the inner fuel tank level reaches the lower level sensor at (about 750 kg).
- The system ensures that both wings are signaled to transfer at the same time since each low level sensor controls one transfer valve in each wing.
CPAT
Fuel Tanks
p. 5
The approximate time to re-fuel the A320 is
Just the wing tanks - 17 min
All tanks - 20 min
CPAT
Refuelling System
p. 7
With loss of electrical power, the wing and anti-ice valves fail in what position?
Wing - Closed
Engine - Open
CPAT
Ice and Rain Protection Introduction
p. 6
What does the wing anti-ice heat?
The 3 outboard slats of each wing.
CPAT
Ice and Rain Protection Operations
p. 4
What can be done if the engine anti-ice is selected on immediately after engine start, but the anti-ice valve does not open?
Perform a slight run up of the engine (about 5% N2) to provide additional pressure for valve operation, then return the thrust lever to idle.
CPAT
Ice and Rain Protection Operations
p. 15
With the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT switch in AUTO, when does the window/probe heat come on?
When at least one engine is running, or when the aircraft is in flight.
CPAT
Ice and Rain Protection Operations
p. 21
When should wing anti-ice be turned on for the approach?
Only on the final approach phase if severe icing conditions are encountered.
CPAT
Ice and Rain Protection Operations
p. 36
What is the difference between speed and thrust mode on the autothrust?
SPEED Mode - When the vertical mode controls the vertical rate (VS, FPA, GS, ALT, etc.).
THR Mode - When the vertical mode adjusts pitch to maintain the target speed (CLB, DES, etc.).
CPAM
Autothrust
p. 4
If the instinctive autothrust disconnect push button is pushed for more than ________, the autothrust operation will be inhibited for the rest of the flight.
15 seconds
CPAM
Autothrust
p. 22
When will the ALIGN lights flash on the ADIRS panel?
- if PPOS is not entered within 10 minutes
- if entered PPOS LAT or LONG is more than 1° different from shutdown location (PPOS will need to be entered again)
CPAM
Air Data Inertial Reference System
p. 32
What is an ADIRS?
The Air Data Inertial Reference System (ADIRS), is basically an air data computer and IRS.
It has two major independent features, the ADR, and the IR.
CPAM
Air Data Inertial Reference System
p. 2
When the bank angle exceeds _______, PFD symbols de-clutter. They reappear when the bank angle decreases below _______.
45°, 40°
CPAM
Primary Flight Display
p. 2
If the altitude, compass and airspeed background on the PFD change to a black background from gray, what is the problem?
An instrument cooling problem.
CPAT
Primary Flight Display
p. 3
In normal law, Flight Control Protection Symbols Display in green at _______ degrees bank.
+/- 67°
CPAT
Primary Flight Display
p. 9
When the pitch angle exceeds _______, PFD symbols de-clutter. They reappear when the pitch angle decreases below _______.
25° nose up, or 13° nose down
22° nose up, 10° nose down
CPAT
Primary Flight Display
p. 10
In normal law, flight control protection symbols display in green at ______ degrees nose up and _______ degrees nose down.
30, 15
CPAT
Primary Flight Display
p. 11
What does the SRS command after lift off for a normal takeoff?
To maintain at least V2 + 10, (however the pitch is limited to +18°, so the aircraft may accelerate more).
- An active wind shear warning allows the SRS to increase pitch to +22.5°.
CPAT
Primary Flight Display
p. 37
Describe the three low IAS’s marked on the PFD.
VLS - top of the amber strip. Represents the lowest selectable speed with autothrust to provide an appropriate margin to the stall speed.
V(alpha prot) - alpha protection speed, top of the black and amber strip. Represents the speed at which alpha protection becomes active in normal law.
V(alpha max) - alpha max speed, top of the solid red strip. Represents the max angle of attack the aircraft can attain in normal law.
CPAT
Primary Flight Display
p. 48-50
What are the 7 flight control computers and what do they do?
2 FACs:
- Flight Augmentation Computers
- provide rudder control
2 ELACs:
- Elevator Aileron Computers
- provide aileron control, and;
- elevator/trimmable horizontal stabilizer (THS) control
3 SECs:
- Spoiler Elevator Computers
- provide spoiler control
- 2 of these also provide a backup for the elevator/THS control
CPAM
Flight Controls Introduction
p. 3
How many spoilers are on each wing?
Which ones can function as speed brakes?
5 panels on each wing
2, 3 and 4
CPAM
Flight Controls Introduction
p. 13
How many slat and flap surfaces are on the wing?
5 slat, and 2 flap sections per wing
CPAM
Flight Controls Introduction
p. 16
What are the SFCCs?
Slat Flap Control Computers. Two are installed and each have two channels, one for slats and one for flaps.
CPAM
Flight Controls Introduction
p. 17
What is the Alpha/Speed Lock function?
A function that inhibits slat retraction at high angles of attack or low air speeds.
CPAT
Flaps and Slats
p. 13
If flaps 1 is selected below 100 kts, what happens?
What if it is selected above 210 kts?
The result is CONF 1+F.
If selected above 210 kts, the result is CONF 1.
With CONF 1+F extended, and the IAS increases to 210 or greater, the flaps retract (resulting in CONF 1).
CPAT
Flaps and Slats
p. 18
What is A. FLOOR and when does it activate?
Autothrust Command to TOGA until it is disconnected.
Happens:
- somewhere between V-alpha Prot and V-alpha Max depending on the configuration, or;
- if full side stick is applied and the nose up pitch limit is reached (regardless of angle of attack).
CPAT
Flight Controls Normal Law
p. 27
What does the side stick control in the V-alpha protection regime?
What happens if the side stick is released at V-alpha max?
In normal law, side stick input controls angle of attack (alpha) instead of of a load factor.
The speed will return to and maintain V-alpha prot.
CPAT
Flight Controls Normal Law
p. 25
What’s the best method to disconnecting TOGA LK?
Select thrust levers to idle, arm A/THR, then select levers to CLB.
CPAT
Flight Controls Normal Law
p. 27
In normal law, if the side stick is released during a steep turn, what happens?
The angle of bank will return to and maintain 33°.
Note:
- auto trim is inhibited above 33° of bank
- if V-alpha prot or high speed protection is active, the angle of bank is limited to 45°
- In a spiral dive, positive spiral stability is maintained so the aircraft returns to wings level if the side stick is released
CPAT
Flight Controls Normal Law
p. 31
What are the five reconfiguration laws?
- alternate law without reduced protections
- alternate law with reduced protections
- abnormal attitude law
- direct law
- mechanical backup
CPAT
Flight Controls Reconfiguration Laws
p. 3
