A3 - 2 Flashcards

refrigeration, heat transfer, renewable, processing

1
Q

quantity of energy required to raise the temperature of a unit mass by 1K

A

specific heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

can be thought of as a measure of disorder in a system.

if a gas or vapor is compressed without friction and without adding or removing heat during the process, the entropy of the process remains constant

A

entropy, S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

temp at the critical point beyond of which there are no distinct phases

A

critical temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

point at which a substance can exist as solid, liquid, and gas in thermodynamic equilibrium

A

triple point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

defined by saturation points where substances exists as saturated liquid, saturated vapor or mixtures of both

A

saturation line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

the sum of all the energies of all molecules in a system

A

Internal Energy, U

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

the amount of energy possessed by a thermodynamic system that can be transferred between the system and its environment

A

Enthalpy, (H = U + PV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

THERMODYNAMIC PROCESSES
no change in pressure of the fluid

A

Isobaric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

THERMODYNAMIC PROCESSES
no change in volume of the fluid

A

Isochoric/ Isometric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

THERMODYNAMIC PROCESSES
no change in temperature of the system

A

Isothermal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

THERMODYNAMIC PROCESSES
no heat transfer from or to the fluid

A

Adiabatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

THERMODYNAMIC PROCESSES
no change of entropy of the fluid

A

Isentropic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

LAWS OF THERMODYNAMICS
when two bodies have equality of temperature with a third body, they in turn have equality of temperature with each other.

A

Zeroth law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

THERMODYNAMIC PROCESSES
no change of enthalpy

A

Isenthalpic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

a process which there is no change in enthalpy from state one to state two, h1 =h2; no work done, W=0; and the process is adiabatic, Q = 0

A

Throttling Process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

also known as the Conservation of Energy principle, states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed, it can only change forms

A

first law of thermodynamics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Work done by system is usually ____ sign

A

positive sign (+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Work done on the system is usually ____ sign

A

negative sign (-)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Law of Thermodynamics states that the state of entropy of the entire universe, as an isolated system, will always increase over time. The law also states that the changes in the entropy in the universe can never be negative.

A

Second Law of Thermodynamics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

a reversible cycle (a cycle having a succession of reversible processes such that the system periodically returns to its initial state)

A

carnot cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

2 types of carnot cycle

A

Carnot heat engine
Carnot refrigeration cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Receives heat from low temperature to higher temperature via work (of compressor)

A

refrigeration cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

a device that transfers heat energy from a source of heat to what is called a “heat sink”. Moves thermal energy in the opposite direction of spontaneous heat transfer, by absorbing heat from a cold space and releasing it to a warmer one

A

heat pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If the objective of the device is to perform work it is a

A

heat engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

a thermodynamic quantity representing the unavailability of a system’s thermal energy for conversion into mechanical work, often interpreted as the degree of disorder or randomness in the system

A

entropy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

if its objective is to supply energy to a body it is a

A

heat pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

if its objective is to extract energy from a body it is a

A

refrigerator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A pure substance is _______. It may exist in more than one phase, but each phase must have the same chemical composition.

A

homogeneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

After all the solid is melted, the temperature of the liquid again rises until vapor just begins to form. This state is called the _______.

A

saturated liquid state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Gases tend to approach the properties of ideal gas on the following conditions:

As the molecular weight ______
As the pressure _______
As the temperature ______

A

As the molecular weight decreases
As the pressure decreases
As the temperature increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Momentum transfer is energy (in form of momentum) in transit due to velocity difference

A

Newton’s law on Viscosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

the total pressure of the mixture is equal to the sum of the individual pressures, if each gas separately occupied the space

A

dalton’s law of partial pressures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Heat transfer is energy in transit due to a temperature difference.

A

Fourier’s law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

MECHANISMS OF HEAT TRANSFER
Transfer of thermal energy due to molecular vibrations

A

conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Mass transfer is mass in transit due to concentration difference

A

Fick’s law on mass diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

MECHANISMS OF HEAT TRANSFER
Transfer of thermal energy due to electron configuration

A

radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

MECHANISMS OF HEAT TRANSFER
Transfer of thermal energy due to molecular motions

A

convection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

the transfer of energy from the more energetic particles of a substance to the adjacent less energetic ones as a result of interactions between the particles

A

conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

In the absence of any bulk fluid motion, heat transfer between a solid surface and the adjacent fluid is by ________

A

pure conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

material property that appears in heat conduction analysis (normally in unsteady states) is the _______, which represents how fast heat diffuses through a material

A

thermal diffusivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

mode of energy transfer between a solid surface and the adjacent liquid or gas that is in motion, and it involves the combined effects of conduction and fluid motion.

A

convection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In gases and liquids, conduction is due to the collisions and diffusion of the molecules during their random motion

A

conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The faster the fluid motion, the _____ convection heat transfer

A

greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Convection is called _____ if the fluid is forced to flow over the surface by external means such as a fan, pump, or the wind.

A

forced convection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

the transfer of energy by _____ does not require the presence of an intervening medium. In fact, energy transfer by radiation is fastest (at the speed of light) and it suffers no attenuation in a vacuum.

A

radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The rate of convection heat transfer is observed to be proportional to the temperature difference, and is conveniently expressed by

A

Newton’s law of cooling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The maximum rate of radiation that can be emitted from a surface at an absolute temperature Ts (in K or R) is given by the

A

Stefan-Boltzmann Law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The idealized surface that emits radiation at thismaximum rate is called a ____, and the radiation emitted by a blackbody is called _____

A

blackbody
blackbody radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Convection is called _____ if the fluid motion is caused by
buoyancy forces that are induced by density differences due to the variation of temperature
in the fluid.

A

natural (or free)
convection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

With values in the range 0 to 1, this property provides a measure of how efficiently a surface emits energy relative to a blackbody.

A

emissivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Another important radiation property of a surface is its _____, α which is the fraction of the radiation energy incident on a surface that is absorbed by the surface.

Like emissivity, its value is in the range 0 to 1.

A

absorptivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Heat transfer problems are often classified as being ____ (also called steady state) or _____ (also called unsteady).

A

steady
transient

-The term steady implies no change with time at any point within the medium, while transient implies variation with time or time dependence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

ratio of the heat transfer resistances inside of a body and at the surface of a body

A

biot number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

ratio of convective to conductive heat transfer at a boundary in a fluid

A

nusselt number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

ratio of the buoyancy to viscous force acting on a fluid. used in natural convection problems

A

grashof number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

analogous to grashof number. used in force convection problems

A

reynold’s number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

ratio of sensible to latent heat

A

stefan number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

ratio of momentum diffusivity to thermal conductivity

A

prandtl number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

ratio of conductive transport rate to the rate of thermal energy storage

A

fourier number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

the high value of volume flow per ton with ____ makes it suitable for service in centrifugal compressors. _____ and R113 are the most-used refrigerants in centrifugal compressor system.

A

refrigerant 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

this is the most widely used refrigerant. It is used primarily with reciprocating compressors for service in household refrigeration appliances, commercial and industrial air conditioning, and in a multitude of other types of refrigeration systems. _____ possesses desirable properties, having convenient operating pressures, low power requirement per ton, and is nontoxic and noncorrosive.

A

refrigerant 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

like R12, is nontoxic and has a low power requirement per ton. _____ is competitive with Refrigerant 12 in small air-conditioning units. It is competitive with ammonia in industrial low-temperature systems in cases where toxicity of the refrigerant is of concern.

A

refrigerant 22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

the vapor in the air is saturated

A

saturated air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

air containing superheated vapor

A

unsaturated air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

heat does not affect the temperature of the substance but damage its state

A

Latent heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

is the heat absorbed or given by a substance that changes its temperature

A

Sensible heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

sum of latent heat and sensible heat

A

Total heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

is the ratio of sensible heat load to the total heat load

A

SENSIBLE HEAT RATIO (sensible heat factor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

ratio of partial pressure of water vapor in the air to the saturation pressure corresponding to the temp of the air

A

relative humidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

the difference between the reading of the dry bulb and wet bulb temperature

A

wet bulb depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

the saturation temperature corresponding to the actual partial pressure of the stem in air or the temperature at which condensation of the moisture begin when the air is cooled at constant pressure

A

dew point temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

the ratio of the air humidity ratio (SH or W) to the humidity ratio of saturated air ( SHs or Ws ) at the same temperature

A

degree of saturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

mixture of dry air and water vapor is the sum of the enthalpy of the dry air and the enthalpy of the water vapor.

A

enthalpy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

located on vertical lines angling up and to the left from the dry-bulb temperature scale

A

specific volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

a material quality which describes how readilty a substance vaporizes

A

volatility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The lowest temperature at which a liquid can give off vapor to form an ignitable mixture in air near the surface of the liquid.

A

flash point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

are liquids that has flashpoint below 37.8°C (100°F)

A

flammable liquids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

are substances that has flashpoints above 37.8°C (100°F) and below 93.3°C (200°F)

A

combustible liquids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

All of the hydrogen in the fuel is converted into water and all of the carbon is converted into carbon dioxide

A

stoichiometric combustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The lowest temperature at which a liquid can flow.

A

pour point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The lowest temperature at which the vapour will continue to burn for at least 5 seconds.

A

fire point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Chemical reaction of carbon and hydrogen in the fuel with oxygen in the air to form water and other exhaust products

A

combustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

When air-fuel ratio is lower than stoichiometric ratio

A

rich combustion

63
Q

When air fuel ratio is higher than stoichiometric ratio

A

lean combustion

64
Q

Sequence: Four-stroke cycle used in gasoline/petrol engines:

A

intake (1),
compression (2),
power (3), and
exhaust (4).

65
Q

Sequence: In a 2-stroke engine, it only takes one piston stroke to complete the combustion cycle.

A

There’s a (1) compression stroke, then an (2) explosion of compressed fuel.

On the return, the exhaust is pushed out of the cylinder by the fresh fuel moving in. The spark plugs fire for each revolution.

66
Q

BiGSHOW

A

➢Biomass and Biofuels
➢Geothermal
➢Solar
➢Hydroelectric power
➢Ocean
➢Wind

67
Q

How much bioethanol is being sold in the market today?

A

10%

67
Q

Solar energy is converted to heat energy for heating/cooling applications (e.g., Flat plate collectors)

A

Heat based (Thermal) Applications

68
Q

solar energy is converted into electrical
energy.

A

Photovoltaics

69
Q

Hydropower: > 100 MW

A

large scale

70
Q

Hydropower: 10 MW - 100 MW

A

medium scale

71
Q

Hydropower: < 10 MW

A

small scale

72
Q

Hydropower: 1 MW - 10 MW

A

small

73
Q

Hydropower: 100 kW - 1 MW

A

mini

73
Q

Hydropower: 50 kW - 100 kW

A

micro

74
Q

Hydropower: < 5 kW

A

pico

75
Q

Categories of wind turbine
Depend on surface drag force
Example:
Cup type, Paddle type, Savonius, Crossflow type

A

drag type

76
Q

Categories of wind turbine
Use the aerodynamic lift produced by the wind flow over the lifting surfaces to
propel the rotors
Example:
Single propeller, Double propellers, Three propellers, Straight-wing, Darrieus

A

lift type

77
Q

Classification of wind turbines
As to shaft speed
- Few bladed windmills (turbines)
- Can develop a speed of more than 300 rpm
- Also referred to as “low torque windmill”
- Mostly used for electric conversion

A

high speed

78
Q

Classification of wind turbines
As to shaft speed
- Multi-bladed windmills
- High torque windmill
- Suitable for pumping water (windpumps)

A

low speed

79
Q

Classification of wind turbines
As to shaft orientation
- Rotor axis is perpendicular with the direction of wind
- Has no wind vane to orient the rotor
- Hence, also called as “non-directional windmill”

A

vertical axis

79
Q

Classification of wind turbines
As to shaft orientation
- Rotor axis is parallel with the direction of wind
- Uses wind vane to orient the rotor to the direction of flow
- Also known as “directional windmill type”

A

horizontal type

80
Q

deals on the principles and practices of processing agricultural products suitable for food/feed

A

agricultural processing

81
Q

crops produced and harvested with normally low moisture content of about 20 to 30% and are not easy to deteriorate or spoil.
Cereal grains and legumes are the examples of these crops.

A

durable crops

82
Q

crops that have high moisture content (30% and above) such as fruits and vegetables including dairy, meat, and fish and easily to deteriorate and spoil.

A

perishable crops

83
Q

deals on the secondary processing of a product after it undergoes primary processing. The original shape and form of the product is altered making it more attractive for human consumption.

A

food processing

84
Q

processing operation, which does not heavily change the physical characteristics of the product.
Drying and dehydration of grains and fruits are examples of this operation.

A

primary processing

85
Q

processing operation which change the physical properties of the product. On-plant processing such as converting banana into catsup or mango to puree are examples of this operation.

A

secondary processing

86
Q
  • Fluid at rest
  • Deals with the fluid at rest such as those fluid stored in tanks, etc.
A

hydrostatic

87
Q
  • Fluid in motion
  • Deals with the various factor affecting the relationship between the rate of flow and the various pressures tending to cause or inhibit the flow.
A

hydrodynamics

88
Q

Mass as an isolated system is neither created or destroyed by chemical reaction or physical transformation.

The mass of the product in a chemical reaction must equal the must of the reactant.

A

conservation of mass

89
Q

The total energy of an isolated system remain constant – it is said to constant over time.

Energy can neither be created nor destroyed. It transform from one form to
another.

A

conservation of energy

90
Q

The _______ of fluid is constant at any point in a system and there is no accumulation or depletion of fluid within the system.

A

rate of flow

91
Q

When fluid is released and is permitted to fall or move from an initial position or a given reference plane, the fluid will have an ability to do an amount of work equal to the product of weight of fluid and its distance from reference plane.

A

potential energy

92
Q

Fluid, in addition to the potential energy, is subjected into an internal static pressure expressed in lbs per in2, kg per m2.

A

pressure energy

92
Q

Body in motion possesses an amount of kinetic energy.

A

velocity energy

92
Q

Sum of the three types of energy plus the work supplied by a machine (pump) less friction of fluid in the system (conduit and fittings, etc.).

A

total hydraulic energy

93
Q

CLASSIFICATION OF FLOW

  • Fluid flows in parallel elements
  • Direction of motion of each element is parallel with the other element
A

streamlined flow

94
Q

CLASSIFICATION OF FLOW

  • Fluid moves in elemental swirls or eddies
  • Both velocity and direction of each element changes with time
A

turbulent flow

95
Q

FLUID CLASSIFICATIONS

  • Characterized by the rate of fluid shear that is linearly related to shear force.
  • Example, oil, water, etc.
A

newtonian fluid

95
Q

demonstrate the finite existence of the streamlined and turbulent flow.

A

reynolds number

96
Q

FLUID CLASSIFICATIONS

  • The characteristics of fluid is not linear with the shear force.
  • Examples, slurries, food purees, paints, butter, mayonnaise, etc
A

non-newtonian fluid

97
Q
  • The internal resistance of fluid to shear.
  • The coefficient may be considered as the coefficient of friction of fluid to fluid.
A

viscosity

98
Q

side of pile in relation to the horizontal. It varies with the moisture content, and the amount of foreign matters present

A

angle of repose

98
Q
  • Pressure that results from force due to change in velocity of the fluid.
  • Pressure taken from the direction of fluid.
A

dynamic pressure

99
Q

flow rate varies with the cube of the orifice diameter. The exponent range from 2.50 to 2.96.

A

rate of flow

100
Q

determines the minimum pitch of conduit
intended to move the materials by gravity.

A

coefficient of friction

100
Q
  • Pressure resulting from elevation and indicates forces perpendicular to the walls of a container.
  • Pressure taken perpendicular from the direction of fluid.
A

static pressure

101
Q

simplest and most reliable pressure gauge wherein the pressures are determined by the difference in height of the fluid inside a tube.

A

manometer

101
Q
  • Open tube pointing into the stream of fluid.
  • Impact of moving fluid creates pressure head nearly equal to the velocity (V2/2g).
  • Fluid static pressure or head is added to the pressure head so that a pressure gage attached to the tube indicates the sum of the velocity pressure and elevation head.
A

pitot tube

102
Q

widely used for operation control wherein accuracies of approximately 2% are acceptable

A

bourdon tube

102
Q

consists of spring loaded diaphragm or bellow which actuates a series of levers attached to the indicating hand.

A

diaphragm

103
Q
  • Preferable to the pitot tube when average cross-sectional velocity is desired
  • Velocity indicated is a true average
  • Pressure difference can be magnified by increasing the diameter ratios
    *More accurate readings can be obtained
  • An excellent measuring device for permanent installation
A

venturi meter

103
Q
  • Based on the variation in resistance of an electrical conductor .
  • with conduit temperature
  • variation of the conductor temperature with the velocity of gas past the wire
  • increase in velocity will permit an increase in the current flowing
  • cooled wire will offer less resistance to electrical flow
A

hot-wire anemometer

104
Q
  • operates from the motion of the fluid rather than the volume that is flowing
  • activated by the fluid motion
  • examples are vane, propeller, or cup rotors
A

propeller meter

105
Q

Study that deals with the principles and practices of processing agricultural products suitable for food and feeds.

A

Agricultural processing

106
Q

Study that deals with the application and practices in converting agricultural products into different kinds and forms of food suitable for animal consumption.

A

Feed processing

107
Q

Study that deals with the application and practices in converting agricultural products into different kinds and forms of food.

A

food processing

107
Q

indicates the percentage volume of spaces over the volume of the product plus the volume of spaces within the product. dictated by the shape and dimension of the product as well as the roughness of the product surface.

A

Porosity

108
Q

ratio of the weight and the volume of the product. It indicates the weight of the product at a given volume.

It is normally expressed in kg/m3 of lb/ft3.

The knowledge on this property will give an accurate estimate of determining the size of the holding bin or storage structure required for a certain product to be handled.

A

bulk density

109
Q

angle measured from the horizontal at which a product will start to move downward over a smooth surface and smoothness of the material.

A

angle of friction

Basically, moisture content affects the angle of friction of the grain. Wet grains has a greater angle of friction than dried grain.

109
Q

angle at which the product formed a conical shape from the horizontal after it is allowed to freely flow from discharge spout bins.

A

angle of repose

110
Q

indicate the amount of heat transfer from one side of the material to the other side by conduction.

A

Thermal conductivity

Thermal conductivity of paddy grain and husk increases linearly with an\ increase of the mean bulk temperature, bulk density, moisture content.

111
Q

amount of heat required to raise its temperature one degree higher when heat is added.

A

specific heat

112
Q

amount of heat required to remove a certain amount of moisture from the product.

A

heat vaporization

113
Q

process of allowing the grain to rest in order for the moisture at the innermost portion of the kernel to equilibrate with the outer layer.

A

tempering

114
Q

The use of air to separate grains from other materials is an important principle of many agricultural machines.

a fan or a blower is used to create higher pressure which will cause the grain to move and separate during separation

A

pneumatic separation

115
Q

refers to the velocity of air required to lift the products overcoming the gravity.

A

terminal velocity

116
Q

Moisture that can be found at the surface of the product particularly at the void spaces of the materials.

A

free moisture

117
Q

Moisture inside the tissue of the material which can be removed by heating or reducing the vapor pressure with in the material

A

bound moisture

118
Q

Difficult-to-remove moisture and need chemical reaction by high temperature or other means in order to remove it.

A

chemically bound moisture

119
Q

requires a sensitive analytical balance and a thermostatically controlled electrically-heated vacuum or drying oven.

A

oven method

120
Q

determines the moisture by fractional distillation. The sample is heated at a temperature considerably above the boiling point of water in 150 ml of mineral oil.

A

distillation method

121
Q

samples of known weight are placed on top of a platform scale of the meter where they are heated at a relatively high infrared temperature. The samples loose moisture as they are heated and give the moisture level after reaching its equilibrium level.

A

infrared method

122
Q

commonly used by researchers. The value obtained with this method are used to calibrate all secondary type of moisture measuring devices. The steps are too cumbersome and time consuming.

A

primary method

123
Q

types of primary method

A

oven method
distillation method
infrared method

124
Q

types of secondary method

A

electric of secondary method
dielectric method
chemical method
hygrometric method

125
Q

based on the principle that the electrical resistance and conductivity of a material depends upon the moisture content.

A

electric resistance method

126
Q

determines the moisture content of the product due to its die-electric properties.

A

dielectric method

127
Q

water is removed from the sample by the addition of chemicals that either decompose or combine with the water.

A

chemical methods

128
Q

sample of the product is placed in a sealed container and allowed to equilibrate with the air in the container which has a known relative humidity and temperature.

A

hygrometric method

129
Q

the study of the properties of the air, and use of the psychrometric chart are essential for an understanding of the processes involved in drying and storage of grains and other agricultural crops, and for analyzing individual requirements for a particular climatic condition.

A

psychrometry

130
Q

temperature of the air as measured by an ordinary thermometer such as a household thermometer. The bulb is the sensitive portion of the instrument. As the temperature of the bulb increases, the liquid in the bulb expands and rises in the stem.

A

dry-bulb temperature

131
Q

temperature of the air as measured by an ordinary thermometer whose glass bulb is covered by a wet cloth or gauze. The clean cotton wick absorbs water.

A

wet bulb temperature

132
Q

temperature at which moisture condenses on a surface. it is the temperature at which condensation occurs when air is cooled at constant humidity ratio and constant atmospheric pressure

A

dewpoint temperature

133
Q

weight of the water vapor contained in the moist air per unit weight of dry air. other terms used for humidity ratio are absolute humidity and specific humidity

A

humidity ratio

134
Q

ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor, the pressure that saturated water vapor exerts at the temperature of air

A

relative humidity

135
Q

______ of moist air is defined as the volume per unit weight of air. the specific density of the moist air is equal to the reciprocal of its _____

A

specific volume

136
Q

_____ of a dry air-water vapor mixture id the heat content of the moist air per unit weight of dry air above a certain reference temperature

A

enthalpy

137
Q

GENERAL CLASSIFICATION OF FANS AND BLOWERS

operate at pressures equal to or more than 1 lb/in2 (27.7 in. of water). machines in this class also include centrifugal compressors and turbo compressors

A

Class I: Blower

138
Q

GENERAL CLASSIFICATION OF FANS AND BLOWERS

operate at pressures of less than 1 lb/in2 (27.7 in. of water). machine in this class area also called centrifugal fans, fans blowers, or exhausters

A

Class II: Fans

139
Q

air flow is parallel to the shaft or axis. propeller fan is a generic term.

A

axial flow or propeller fan

140
Q

used to handle large volumes of air against free delivery or low heads. this may have 2 or more blades which maybe of sheet or airfoil shape. blades may be narrow or wide, may have uniform or varied pitch

A

propeller fan

141
Q

Similar to disk fan but is more defined for the hubs have been enlarged. The blades are warped for better efficiency and have a close radial clearance with the housing. As a result, it is able to operate against higher pressure and, therefore, has a better efficiency.

A

axial flow fan

142
Q

Consists of an axial flow wheel within a cylinder and includes driving mechanism support, either for belt drive or for direct connection.

A

tube axial fan

143
Q

Consists of an axial flow wheel within a cylinder, a set of guide vanes located either before or after the wheel, and a driving mechanism
support for either belt drive or direct connection.

A

vane axial fan

144
Q

A low speed fan, capable of operating at several inches pressure under most conditions but is limited to handling clean air. It has a squirrel-cage rotor and a large number of blades.

A

forward curved blade fan

145
Q

a binary alloy of copper and zinc

A

brass

146
Q

the resistance of a conductor ____ when its temperature is increased

A

increases

147
Q

a meter whose needle is initially at the center

A

galvanometer

148
Q

automatic device that operates at a preset value

A

relay

149
Q

modern contact surfaces are made from ____ alloys

A

silver

150
Q

unit of magnetic flux in SI is

A

weber

151
Q

a small lamp used to indicate that a circuit is energized

A

pilot lamp

152
Q

an instrument that measures the voltage or electrical pressure in a circuit

A

voltmeter

153
Q

good conductors

A

silver
gold
copper
brass
steel
aluminum
iron
sea water

154
Q

good insulator

A

rubber
glass
oil
diamond
dry wood
plastic

155
Q

a good capacitor has a _______ resistance

A

very high

156
Q

the energy stored in an electrolytic cell is ________

A

a chemical

157
Q

the most common usage of resistors in electronic circuits is to _______
a) limit current
b) introduced a voltage drop
c) generate heat
d) all of these

A

d) all of these

158
Q

a substance that cannot be decomposed any further by a chemical reaction

A

element

159
Q

admittance in AC circuit is a parameter equivalent to the ______

A

reciprocal of impedance

160
Q

1 hp is equivalent to ______W

A

746 W

161
Q

in aming a resistance test, remember that the resistance of a short circuit is ______

A

approximately zero

162
Q

grease is a lubricant that is basically a combination of _____

A

oil and soap

163
Q

electromotive force is measured by a

A

voltmeter

164
Q

a potentiometer is used to control the _____ of the circuit

A

voltage

165
Q

the efficiency of a cell _____ that of a DC generator

A

more than

166
Q

an open coil can be detected by reading

A

high resistance

167
Q

a pipe bending tool
a) pipe vise
b) hickey
c) pipe reamer
d) gimlet

A

b) hickey

168
Q

cells are connected in _______ when high voltage, as well as high current is desired

A

series-parallel

169
Q

this is the greatest effective difference of potential that exist between any two conductors of a circuit

A

voltage

169
Q

electric current in a wire is a flow of ______

A

free electrons

170
Q

the device to transform AC electricity to dc electricity

A

converter