A1 - Becker Wrong answers Flashcards

FUl review

1
Q

Foley, CPA, is the group engagement partner for a multinational corporation. Pente, CPA, audits a wholly owned subsidiary of this corporation. Which of the following is true about Foley’s decision between assumption and division of responsibility under U.S. GAAS?

A.	If Foley chooses to divide responsibility, she need not evaluate Pente's reputation and independence.

B.	If Foley chooses to divide responsibility, no reference to the work done by Pente will be included in the audit report.

C.	If Foley chooses to assume responsibility, the report will mention this assumption in the auditor's responsibility paragraph.

D.	If Foley chooses to assume responsibility, she must not make reference to the component auditor in her report.
A

Choice “D” is correct. Under U.S. GAAS, if Foley chooses to assume responsibility, no reference to the component auditor should be made in the auditor’s report because to do so may cause a reader to misinterpret the degree of responsibility being assumed. Furthermore, the group engagement team should determine the type of work to be performed on the financial information of the components. Note that division of responsibility is generally not permitted under ISAs.

Choice “A” is incorrect. Regardless of Foley’s decision, she must always become satisfied regarding Pente’s reputation and independence.
Choice “B” is incorrect. If Foley chooses to divide responsibility, the report should clearly indicate that the component was not audited by the auditor of the group financial statements but was audited by the component auditor, and should include the magnitude of the portion of the financial statements audited by the component auditor.
Choice “C” is incorrect. If Foley chooses to assume responsibility, no reference to this assumption or to the work done by Pente will be included in the audit report.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following best describes what is meant by the term generally accepted auditing standards?

A.	Rules acknowledged by the accounting profession because of their universal application.

B.	Pronouncements issued by the Auditing Standards Board.

C.	Measures of the quality of the auditor's performance.

D.	Procedures to be used to gather evidence to support financial statements.
A

Choice “C” is correct. Generally accepted auditing standards (“GAAS”) are measures of the quality of the auditor’s performance, and guide the auditor in the performance of a properly planned and executed audit.

Choice “A” is incorrect. GAAS are not “rules,” nor are they universally applicable. GAAS are measures of the quality of an auditor’s performance.
Choice “B” is incorrect. The Auditing Standards Board (ASB) issues many types of pronouncements, including (but not limited to) “Statements on Auditing Standards” (SASs). While SASs are considered to be interpretations of GAAS, not all ASB pronouncements relate to audits. Therefore, just because something is issued by the ASB does not make it GAAS.
Choice “D” is incorrect. Auditing standards differ from auditing procedures in that procedures relate to acts to be performed, whereas standards deal with the quality of the performance of those acts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In the audit of a nonissuer, what is an auditor’s responsibility for supplementary information, such as the disclosure of pension information, which is outside the basic financial statements but required by the GASB?

A. The auditor has no responsibility for such supplementary information as long as it is outside the basic financial statements.

B. The auditor’s only responsibility for the supplementary information is to determine that such information has not been omitted.

C. The auditor should apply substantive tests of transactions to the supplementary information and verify its conformity with the GASB requirement.

D. The auditor should apply certain limited procedures to the supplementary information and add a separate section to the auditor’s report.

A

Choice “D” is correct. The auditor should perform limited procedures on required supplementary information accompanying the financial statements. In addition, the auditor’s report on the financial statements should include a separate section with the heading, “Supplementary Information.”

Choice “A” is incorrect. The auditor is responsible for performing certain limited procedures on supplementary information and for adding a separate “Supplementary Information” section to the audit report.

Choice “B” is incorrect. The auditor is required to perform certain limited procedures with respect to supplementary information.

Choice “C” is incorrect. The auditor is not required to audit supplementary information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following procedures would an auditor most likely perform in obtaining evidence about subsequent events?

A.	 Compare the latest available interim financial information with the financial statements being reported upon.

B.	 Examine changes in the quoted market prices of investments purchased since the year-end.

C.	 Apply analytical procedures to the details of the balance sheet accounts that were tested at interim dates.

D.	 Inquire about payroll checks that were recorded before the year-end but cashed after the year-end.
A

Choice “A” is correct. In obtaining evidence about subsequent events, the auditor should examine the latest available interim financial information, and compare them with the financial statements under audit.

Choice “B” is incorrect. Changes in quoted market prices subsequent to year-end are to be expected, and would not provide information about subsequent events.
Choice “C” is incorrect. Applying analytical procedures to the details of the balance sheet accounts that were tested at interim dates is part of testing the year-end financial statements, not part of obtaining evidence about subsequent events.
Choice “D” is incorrect. Payroll checks that are recorded before year-end are not subsequent events, even if they are not cashed until after year-end.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When a group engagement partner decides to make reference to a component auditor’s audit under U.S. GAAS, the group engagement partner’s report should state “We did not audit the financial statements of X Company…” in which section of the audit report?

A.	 Opinion

B.	 Auditor's Responsibilities

C.	 An emphasis-of-matter paragraph

D.	 Not in the auditor's report, but in a separate report prepared by the component auditor and appended to the auditor's report
A

Choice “A” is correct. Such a statement is included in the Opinion section of the auditor’s report. The statement includes the following language: “Those statements were audited by other auditors, whose report has been furnished to us, and our opinion, insofar as it relates to the amounts included for X Company, is based solely on the report of the other auditors.”

Choice “B” is incorrect. The Auditor’s Responsibility section would remain unchanged from the standard unmodified report when reference is made to a component auditor in a report issued by a group engagement partner.

Choice “C” is incorrect. An emphasis-of-matter paragraph is not added to an auditor’s report when reference is made to a component auditor.

Choice “D” is incorrect. No separate report would be issued when reference is made to a component aud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Inadequate disclosure would result in a

A

qualified or adverse opinion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A _____________ would be appropriate when a “statement of cash flows” is omitted and the scope of the audit is not restricted.

A

qualified report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A departure from GAAP would result in either a _____________, depending on materiality.

A

qualified or adverse opinion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the rules, with respect to the disclosure of a subsidiary CPA firm and component auditors’ (based on assumed responsibility)?

A

If the parent firm assumes responsiblity, than there is not mention of the component auditor in the report. Engagement firm determines work to be performed.
(note: Division of responsibility is NOT usually allowed under ISAs).

If the engagement team chooses to divide the responsilbility, the report should cleary indicate that the component was not audited by the auditor of grp fin stmts, but by the component auditor AND should include the magnitude of the portion of the fin stmts audited by the component auditor.

NOTE: In either case Independance Rules still apply for both firms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

MCQ-03208
Which of the following best describes what is meant by the term generally accepted auditing standards?

A. Measures of the quality of the auditor’s performance.
B. Pronouncements issued by the Auditing Standards Board.
C. Rules acknowledged by the accounting profession because of their universal
application.
D. Procedures to be used to gather evidence to support financial statements

A

Choice “A” is correct. Generally accepted auditing standards (“GAAS”) are measuresof the quality of the auditor’s performance, and guide the auditor in the performance of
a properly planned and executed audit.

Choice “B” is incorrect. The Auditing Standards Board (ASB) issues many types of pronouncements, including (but not limited to) “Statements on Auditing Standards” (SASs). While SASs are considered to be interpretations of GAAS, not all ASB pronouncements relate to audits. Therefore, just because something is issued by the ASB does not make it GAAS.

Choice “C” is incorrect. GAAS are not “rules,” nor are they universally applicable. GAAS are measures of the quality of an auditor’s performance.

Choice “D” is incorrect. Auditing standards differ from auditing procedures in that procedures relate to acts to be performed, whereas standards deal with the quality of the performance of those acts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

An auditor completed an audit of a nonissuer’s December 31, Year 3, financial statements and dated the audit report as of March 13, Year 4. On March 14, Year 4, prior to the release of the audit report, an event occurred that required management to revise the Year 3 financial statements and describe the event in a note. The auditor’s report on the revised Year 3 financial statements was newly dated as of April 11, Year 4, and released on April 12, Year 4. In this situation, the auditor has taken responsibility for all subsequent events that occurred from January 1, Year 4, until:

A.	March 14, Year 4.

B.	April 12, Year 4.

C.	March 13, Year 4.

D.	April 11, Year 4.
A

Choice “D” is correct. Since the auditor’s report was newly dated as of April 11, Year 4, the auditor is responsible for subsequent events until that date. The period between the date of the financial statements and the date of the auditor’s report is the subsequent period, during which the auditor is responsible for investigating certain subsequent events.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MCQ-15005

When a group engagement partner decides to make reference to a component auditor’s audit under U.S. GAAS, the group engagement partner’s report should state “We did not audit the financial statements of X Company…” in which section of the audit report?

A.	Auditor's Responsibilities

B.	Not in the auditor's report, but in a separate report prepared by the component auditor and appended to the auditor's report

C.	Opinion

D.	An emphasis-of-matter paragraph
A

Choice “C” is correct. Such a statement is included in the Opinion section of the auditor’s report. The statement includes the following language: “Those statements were audited by other auditors, whose report has been furnished to us, and our opinion, insofar as it relates to the amounts included for X Company, is based solely on the report of the other auditors.”

Choice “A” is incorrect. The Auditor’s Responsibility section would remain unchanged from the standard unmodified report when reference is made to a component auditor in a report issued by a group engagement partner.

Choice “B” is incorrect. No separate report would be issued when reference is made to a component auditor.

Choice “D” is incorrect. An emphasis-of-matter paragraph is not added to an auditor’s report when reference is made to a component auditor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following events occurring after the issuance of an auditor’s report most likely would cause the auditor to make further inquiries about the previously issued financial statements?

A.	 The entity's sale of a subsidiary that accounts for 30% of the entity's consolidated sales.

B.	 A technological development that could affect the entity's future ability to continue as a going concern.

C.	 The final resolution of a lawsuit explained in a separate paragraph of the auditor's report.

D.	 The discovery of information regarding a contingency that existed before the financial statements were issued.
A

Choice “D” is correct. With respect to events occurring after the issuance of an auditor’s report, the auditor is only responsible for information that existed at the audit report date.

Choice “A” is incorrect. Since the information did not exist at the report date, the auditor has no obligation to make any further inquiry.

Choice “B” is incorrect. Since the information did not exist at the report date, the auditor has no obligation to make any further inquiry.

Choice “C” is incorrect. Since the information did not exist at the report date, the auditor has no obligation to make any further inquiry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In which of the following situations would an auditor ordinarily choose between expressing an “except for” qualified opinion or an adverse opinion?

A.	 The auditor did not observe the entity's physical inventory and is unable to become satisfied as to its balance by other auditing procedures.

B.	 The financial statements fail to disclose information that is required by generally accepted accounting principles.

C.	 Events disclosed in the financial statements cause the auditor to have substantial doubt about the entity's ability to continue as a going concern.

D.	 The auditor is asked to report only on the entity's balance sheet and not on the other basic financial statements.
A

Choice “B” is correct. Failure to disclose information that is required by GAAP is a departure from GAAP. Departures from GAAP result in a qualified or an adverse opinion.

Choice “A” is incorrect. If the auditor is unable to observe physical inventory and is unable to become satisfied through alternative means, that is a scope limitation. Scope limitations result in either a qualified opinion or a disclaimer of opinion.

Choice “C” is incorrect. If, after considering identified conditions and events and management’s plans, the auditor concludes that substantial doubt about the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern for a reasonable period of time remains, the audit report should include a separate section with the heading “Substantial Doubt About the Entity’s Ability to Continue as a Going Concern” to reflect that conclusion.

Choice “D” is incorrect. The auditor can report on one financial statement and not the others. This does not preclude issuance of an unmodified opinion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A scope limitation may result in what kinds of opinions?

A

qualified opinion or a disclaimer of opinion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Failure to disclose information that is required by GAAP is a departure from GAAP. Departures from GAAP result in what kinds of opinions?

A

qualified or an adverse opinion

17
Q

When an auditor of a nonissuer qualifies an opinion because of the inability to confirm accounts receivable by direct communication with debtors, the wording of the qualified opinion paragraph of the auditor’s report should indicate that the qualification pertains to the:

A.	Limitation on the auditor's scope.

B.	Possible effects on the financial statements.

C.	Lack of sufficient appropriate audit evidence.

D.	Departure from generally accepted auditing standards.
A

Choice “B” is correct. When an auditor of a nonissuer qualifies his or her opinion because of a scope limitation, such as the inability to confirm accounts receivable, the wording in the opinion paragraph should indicate that the qualification pertains to the possible effects on the financial statements and not to the scope limitation itself.

Choice “A” is incorrect. The Qualified Opinion section of the auditor’s report would not refer to the scope limitation directly, but would include “except for” language related to the opinion.

Choice “C” is incorrect. The lack of sufficient appropriate audit evidence would not be referenced in the Qualified Opinion section of the report.

Choice “D” is incorrect. A departure from generally accepted auditing standards would not have taken place when the auditor appropriately issued a qualified opinion. Additionally, such language would not be contained in the Qualified Opinion section of the auditor’s report.

18
Q

Which of the following best describes what is meant by the term generally accepted auditing standards?

A.	 Measures of the quality of the auditor's performance.

B.	 Procedures to be used to gather evidence to support financial statements.

C.	 Pronouncements issued by the Auditing Standards Board.

D.	 Rules acknowledged by the accounting profession because of their universal application.
A

Choice “A” is correct. Generally accepted auditing standards (“GAAS”) are measures of the quality of the auditor’s performance, and guide the auditor in the performance of a properly planned and executed audit.

Choice “B” is incorrect. Auditing standards differ from auditing procedures in that procedures relate to acts to be performed, whereas standards deal with the quality of the performance of those acts.

Choice “C” is incorrect. The Auditing Standards Board (ASB) issues many types of pronouncements, including (but not limited to) “Statements on Auditing Standards” (SASs). While SASs are considered to be interpretations of GAAS, not all ASB pronouncements relate to audits. Therefore, just because something is issued by the ASB does not make it GAAS.
Choice “D” is incorrect. GAAS are not “rules,” nor are they universally applicable. GAAS are measures of the quality of an auditor’s performance.

19
Q

An auditor completed an audit of a nonissuer’s December 31, Year 3, financial statements and dated the audit report as of March 13, Year 4. On March 14, Year 4, prior to the release of the audit report, an event occurred that required management to revise the Year 3 financial statements and describe the event in a note. The auditor’s report on the revised Year 3 financial statements was newly dated as of April 11, Year 4, and released on April 12, Year 4. In this situation, the auditor has taken responsibility for all subsequent events that occurred from January 1, Year 4, until:

A.	 April 11, Year 4.

B.	 April 12, Year 4.

C.	 March 14, Year 4.

D.	 March 13, Year 4.
A

Choice “A” is correct. Since the auditor’s report was newly dated as of April 11, Year 4, the auditor is responsible for subsequent events until that date. The period between the date of the financial statements and the date of the auditor’s report is the subsequent period, during which the auditor is responsible for investigating certain subsequent events.

Choice “B” is incorrect. April 12, Year 4, is the new report release date. The auditor is responsible until the date of the auditor’s report, which is April 11, Year 4.

Choice “C” is incorrect. March 14, Year 4, is the date of the event requiring management to revise the financial statements, so the auditor revised the report and is then responsible until the new date of April 11, Year 4.

Choice “D” is incorrect. March 13, Year 4, was the original report date. If the auditor’s report was revised with a new date, the auditor is responsible until the new date of April 11, Year 4.

20
Q

When a group engagement partner decides to make reference to a component auditor’s audit under U.S. GAAS, the group engagement partner’s report should state “We did not audit the financial statements of X Company…” in which section of the audit report?

A.	Opinion

B.	Auditor's Responsibilities

C.	Not in the auditor's report, but in a separate report prepared by the component auditor and appended to the auditor's report

D.	An emphasis-of-matter paragraph
A

Choice “A” is correct. Such a statement is included in the Opinion section of the auditor’s report. The statement includes the following language: “Those statements were audited by other auditors, whose report has been furnished to us, and our opinion, insofar as it relates to the amounts included for X Company, is based solely on the report of the other auditors.”

Choice “B” is incorrect. The Auditor’s Responsibility section would remain unchanged from the standard unmodified report when reference is made to a component auditor in a report issued by a group engagement partner.

Choice “C” is incorrect. No separate report would be issued when reference is made to a component auditor.

Choice “D” is incorrect. An emphasis-of-matter paragraph is not added to an auditor’s report when reference is made to a component auditor.

21
Q

John and Mary are developing an audit plan to outline the nature, extent, and timing of the procedures they will be performing during their audit of ABC Co. Which of these procedures would most likely be documented during the planning stage?

A.	Documenting the results from substantive procedures

B.	Documenting the management representation letter

C.	Documenting the nature, timing, and extent of risk assessment procedures

D.	Analyzing external confirmation responses to determine the need for further investigation
A

Choice “C” is correct. Documenting the nature, timing, and extent of risk assessment procedures is a required part of the written audit plan.

Choice “A” is incorrect. Documenting the results of substantive procedures performed is a required part of the substantive testing phase of the audit.

Choice “B” is incorrect. The management representation letter is documented at the conclusion of fieldwork and not in the planning stage.

Choice “D” is incorrect. Analyzing external confirmation responses performed during the audit to obtain sufficient audit evidence is a substantive procedure and is not part of the planning stage.

22
Q

An auditor should be aware of subsequent events that provide evidence concerning conditions that did not exist at year end but arose after year end. These events may be important to the auditor because they may:

A.	 Have been recorded based on year-end tests for asset obsolescence.

B.	 Require adjustments to the financial statements as of the year end.

C.	 Require disclosure to keep the financial statements from being misleading.

D.	 Have been recorded based on preliminary accounting estimates.
A

Choice “C” is correct. Conditions that did not exist at year end but arose after year end are Type 2 (nonrecognized) subsequent events that must be disclosed to keep the financial statements from being misleading.

Choice “A” is incorrect. This is not a subsequent event as the recording of obsolescence at year end is based on the results of the performance of customary asset valuation tests - conditions that existed at year end.

Choice “B” is incorrect. An adjustment would not be required as the conditions did not exist at year end. Type 1 (recognized) subsequent events require adjustment to the financial statement.
Choice “D” is incorrect. An adjustment based on preliminary accounting estimates would not have been recorded as the conditions did not exist at year end.

23
Q

Subsequent to the issuance of the audit report for the final year of a three-year contract, a fact is discovered that may have affected the final year’s report. Which of the following actions is the auditor required to take?

A.	 The auditor is not required to do anything because once the auditor has reported on audited financial statements, the auditor has no responsibility to carry out any retrospective review of the workpapers or show the effect of any newly discovered facts on them.

B.	 The auditor is required to reissue the auditor's report and to reference discovery of the fact.

C.	 The auditor is required to determine whether the information is reliable and whether the facts existed at the date of the report.

D.	 The auditor is not required to do anything because the auditor was discharged for reasons other than professional misconduct after the audited financial statements were issued.
A

Choice “C” is correct. When information is identified subsequent to the issuance of the audit report that may have affected the final year’s report, the auditor is required to determine whether the information is reliable and whether the facts existed at the date of the report.

Choice “A” is incorrect. With subsequently discovered facts, an auditor has a responsibility to determine whether the information is reliable and whether the facts existed at the date of the report.

Choice “B” is incorrect. An auditor must first determine whether the information is reliable and whether the facts existed at the date of the report. If adjustments or disclosures are made, then the auditor will need to extend the procedures for the subsequent discovery of facts and update the date on the audit report.

Choice “D” is incorrect. With subsequently discovered facts, an auditor is required to determine whether the information is reliable and whether the facts existed at the date of the report even if the auditor was discharged for reasons other than professional misconduct.

24
Q

An auditor of a nonissuer exercising professional skepticism with respect to the risks of material misstatement due to fraud will most appropriately:

A.	 Adopt an attitude of acceptance unless evidence indicates otherwise.

B.	 Authenticate documents used as audit evidence.

C.	 Consider the reliability of information to be used as audit evidence.

D.	 Assess the entity's document-retention controls before using documents as audit evidence.
A

Choice “C” is correct. An auditor exercising professional skepticism with respect to the risks of material misstatement due to fraud will most appropriately consider the reliability of information to be used as audit evidence.

Choice “A” is incorrect. An auditor exercising professional skepticism should critically assess audit evidence rather than adopting an initial attitude of acceptance.

Choice “B” is incorrect. An auditor is not required to authenticate audit evidence. The auditor may accept records and documents as genuine unless the auditor has reason to believe the contrary.

Choice “D” is incorrect. An auditor exercising professional skepticism does not need to assess the entity’s document-retention controls before using documents as audit evidence.

25
Q

Which of the following is not an example of the application of professional skepticism?

A.	 Designing additional auditing procedures to obtain more reliable evidence in support of a particular financial statement assertion.

B.	 Inquiring of prior year engagement personnel regarding their assessment of management's honesty and integrity.

C.	 Using third-party confirmations to provide support for management's representations.

D.	 Obtaining corroboration of management's explanations through consultation with a specialist.
A

Choice “B” is correct. The auditor should consider that fraud might occur regardless of any past experience with the entity. An assessment of management’s honesty and integrity performed during the previous year would not necessarily be relevant to the current year’s audit.

Choice “A” is incorrect. An auditor might apply professional skepticism by performing additional audit procedures designed to improve the reliability of evidence.

Choice “C” is incorrect. Using third-party confirmations to provide support for management’s representations is an example of the application of professional skepticism, because the auditor is obtaining additional support rather than simply accepting the explanation as given.

Choice “D” is incorrect. Corroborating management’s explanations is an example of the application of professional skepticism, because the auditor is obtaining additional support rather than simply accepting the explanation as given.

26
Q

The phrase “U.S. generally accepted accounting principles” is an accounting term that:

A.	 Provides a measure of conventions, rules, and procedures governed by the AICPA.

B.	 Includes broad guidelines of general application but not detailed practices and procedures.

C.	 Encompasses the conventions, rules, and procedures necessary to define U.S. accepted accounting practice at a particular time.

D.	 Is included in the audit report to indicate that the audit has been conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards (GAAS).
A

Choice “C” is correct. The literature pertaining to U.S. GAAP changes over time, and therefore U.S. generally accepted accounting principles can be said to encompass the conventions, rules, and procedures necessary to define accepted accounting practice at a particular time. U.S. GAAP is one of the financial reporting frameworks acceptable for preparation of financial statements. IFRS is another one..

Choice “A” is incorrect. The phrase “U.S. generally accepted accounting principles” does not provide a measure of conventions, rules, and procedures governed by the AICPA. The AICPA provides Statements on Auditing Standards, which relate to proper performance of a financial statement audit, not to accounting principles.

Choice “B” is incorrect. The literature pertaining to U.S. GAAP does provide detailed practices and procedures.

Choice “D” is incorrect. Inclusion of the phrase “U.S. generally accepted accounting principles” in the audit report indicates whether the financial statements are presented in accordance with the conventions, rules, and procedures that define accepted accounting practice in the United States. Inclusion of this phrase does not indicate whether the audit has been conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards (GAAS).