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Fall'20 Final Exam Prep > A & P III Exams > Flashcards

A & P III Exams Flashcards

1
Q

Diagnosing Carcinoid Tumors

A

Elevated urinary 5-HIAA

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2
Q

How does H. Pylori cause its damage to the gastric mucosa? (short answer)

A

Has high Urease activity and converts urea to NH3 which damages the gastric mucosa

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3
Q

Liver oxygen % for Artery and Vein

A

50:50

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4
Q

What viral hepatitis has the highest pregnancy mortality?

A

HEV

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5
Q

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (gastrinoma) is an excessive production of

A

Gastrin

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6
Q

How do you know if someone has vaccination/immunity to HBV?

A

Antibody HBsAb

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7
Q

What is the MOA of droperidol?

A

dopamine blocker

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8
Q

What is the MOA of Zofran?

A

Serotonin/5-HT3 blocker

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9
Q

What is the MOA of omeprazole?

A

PPI/H+/K+ ATPase blocker; blocks secretion of H+

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10
Q

Ascites is caused by increased:

A

portal vein pressure (“portal hypertension”

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11
Q

Defective uptake of bilirubin causes hyperbilirubiemia: What is the name of the syndrome?

A

Gilbert Syndrome

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12
Q

What Lab is the best indicator for biliary obstruction?

A

Alkaline Phosphatase

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13
Q

What is the incubation period of Hep A?

A

3 weeks

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14
Q

What is the normal blood flow of the portal vein?

A

1300ml/min Total = ~1800ml/min

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15
Q

What is the normal blood flow of the hepatic artery?

A

500ml/min Total = 1800ml/min

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16
Q

Chief cells produce =

A

pepsinogen

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17
Q

Physiologic Jaundice is the presence of increased levels of

A

unconjugated bilirubin

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18
Q

What has an increased risk of colon cancer? UC, Crohn’s, Both, or None

A

UC

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19
Q

Colorectal fissure and abscess is associated with? UC, Crohn’s, Both, or None

A

Crohn’s Disease

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20
Q

Hemolysis =

A

Prehepatic / Unconjugated (free) Bilirubin

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21
Q

Most common cause of hepatitis in USA?

A

Alcoholic

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22
Q

Patient presenting with L Iliac pain, 3 days of S&S, 100F fever; WWBC ~14,000. Diagnosis?

A

Acute diverticulitis

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23
Q

A patient with a recent gastrectomy is expected to have pernicious anemia due to what?

A

Defective Vit B12 absorption

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24
Q

Vit B12 absorption is dependent on:

A

intrinsic Factor

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25
Q

A pt with a recent splenectomy will need vaccination for:

A

Pneumococci

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26
Q

The treatment /management of GERD should include all except:

A

Aspirin

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27
Q

Pseudomembranous Colitis diagnosis is based on

A

C.dff Toxin in stool

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28
Q

Tylenol overdose; what do you give?

A

N-Acetylcysteine

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29
Q

Treatment for Pseudomembranous Colitis

A

Oral Vancomycin and/or Metronidazole

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30
Q

Function of Kupffer cells:

A

fight off infection; Tissue Macrophage. “blood cleaners” they kill 99% bacteria from the gut slide 50 of GIT2

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31
Q

Transmitted by fecal -oral route (choose two):

A

HAV HEV “vowels to the bowels”

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32
Q

Syndrome that results from viral infection and aspirin administration:

A

Reye’s syndrome

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33
Q

A pt with chronic alcoholism doesn’t remember……… 2 days after his surgery. What is the treatment?

A

Benzodiazepines

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34
Q

What is the MOA of lactulose in the tx of hepatic encephalopathy (Short answer)

A

lactulose (lactic acid) converts NH3 to NH4 that is poorly absorbed and thus excreted ( Base + Acid = Ionized form)

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35
Q

What requires bile salt emulsification for digestion?

A

Fat Soluble Vitamins: DEAK (K was option?)

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36
Q

Causes contraction of the gallbladder and relaxation of the sphincter of oddi:

A

CCK

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37
Q

In severe liver disease, what product is the most difficult to metabolize?

A

Lipids

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38
Q

enzyme responsible for stimulating pancreatic HCO3 secretion?

A

Secretin

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39
Q

CCK release is regulated by

A

increased fatty acid, amino acids “CC’s Pizza” increased with lots of fatty cheese intake”

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40
Q

Achalasia results in

A

increase LES Pressure -Loss of Myenteric plexus - controls motility; no movement of food

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41
Q

Parietal Cells secrete these products:

A

HCL Intrinsic Factor

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42
Q

Associated with the terminal ileum UC or Crohn or Both or None

A

Crohns

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43
Q

What would be a cause for increased Alkaline Phosphatase?

A

Stones (obstructive)

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44
Q

Insert PIC of Accreta/increta/percreta

A

Placenta Accreta: A Question from above picture: Label _______ Placenta Increta = upper right Above picture: Label Placenta Percreta = bottom right

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45
Q

What is the 24hr fluid replacement for a 70kg pt with 50% burn

A

calculation : 3ml/kg/% in 24hrs = 10,500ml

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46
Q

Abnormal implantation on the lower uterine segment

A

Placenta previa

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47
Q

A pt that had a placental abruption would more than likely thought to be ________ during pregnancy

A

smoking 2 ppd

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48
Q

Associated with a high risk of DIC:

A

Abruptio Placenta

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49
Q

Reason to avoid giving atropine with ritodrine

A

pulmonary edema

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50
Q

Which of the following would not be a fetal complication with gestational diabetes

A

Hyperglycemia

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51
Q

Associated with an empty ovum and a chromosomal pattern of 46,XX

A

Complete molar pregnancy

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52
Q

D&C reveals cluster of grape like tissue, snow storm on the u/s and no fetus present

A

Hydatidiform mole

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53
Q

<20weeks. No POC expelled. Intact membrane; OS closed, bleeding, viable fetus.

A

Threatened abortion

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54
Q

Postpartum pt that experiences SOB and chest pain with a decreased ETCO2 would more than likely be experiencing

A

Venous Air Embolism

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55
Q

Definition of HELLP syndrome (Short Answer)

A

Hemolysis, Elevated Liver Enzymes, Low Platelet Count

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56
Q

Associated with convulsions

A

Eclamsia

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57
Q

What medication do you give to prevent convulsions

A

Mag Sulfate

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58
Q

Drug Treatment for magnesium toxicity

A

calcium gluconate

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59
Q

Picture of female child with what disorder associated with pregnancy?

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

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60
Q

What anesthetic medication would you avoid in PIH?

A

Ketamine

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61
Q

Picture of a baby with phecomelia “seal arms”. The mother likely took what medication?

A

Thalidomide

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62
Q

What would you use to prevent DVT in maternal surgery?

A

pneumatic compression stockings

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63
Q

Most serious risk factor associated with surgery during pregnancy

A

uterine asphyxia

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64
Q

Pathogenesis of fetal acidosis and local anesthetics (discussion)

A

Infant pH lower than mothers (more acidotic), nonionized form of LA enters fetus and becomes trapped (fetal ion trapping)

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65
Q

A picture of a patient with foot drop. What nerve would more than likely be damaged.

A

Common peroneal nerve

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66
Q

Picture of a sunburn with blisters

A

2nd degree burn

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67
Q

Treatment for CO poisoning

A

100% FiO2

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68
Q

Why is succinylcholine avoided with burn patients? (Short answer)

A

Due to hyperkalemia associated with tissue destruction with burns. Succinylcholine causes transient rise in potassium levels.

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69
Q

Picture of a 22 yr old chemistry student with a HCL burn. What would be the first line treatment.

A

Chemical burn with HCL. Initial treatment for chemical burns is PROFUSE IRRIGATION

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70
Q

Which of the following would NOT be included in the treatment of placenta previa

A

Vaginal exam

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71
Q

Which of the following does not occur in an expectant mother near the time of labor?

A

Decreased gastric emptying time

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72
Q

Woman in upper 30s experiencing swelling, increased liver enzymes, RUQ pain, visual disturbance, etc.

A

Preeclampsia

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73
Q

A patient experiencing N/V, vaginal bleeding and an U/S with no fetal parts

A

Ectopic pregnancy

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74
Q

Question about adnexal mass noted on the right. Location of ectopic pregnancy - Where is the most common site of an ectopic pregnancy?

A

Fallopian tube

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75
Q

MCC of polyhydraminos

A

Esophageal Atresia

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76
Q

Burn associated with no pain

A

3rd degree burn

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77
Q

INSERT IMAGE of Contraction 3 questions on fetal heart rhythms associated with contractions

A

VEAL CHOP

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78
Q

18 year old male was involved in an automobile accident that resulted in a cervical injury at C5. His S/S include paresthesias, motor weakness, tender abdomen, with an equivocal abdominal tap for blood and a fracture of the femur. He is being evaluated for splenic injury. He is being treated with 40% 02 by mask and skeletal traction. ABG’s are pH 7.4, PCO2 42, PO2 96. Over the next two hours, his weakness becomes more profound and he becomes agitated and repeat ABG’s results are: pH 7.32, PC02 50, PO2 79. At this time, the appropriate management is to:

A

intubate and ventilate

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79
Q

S&S of DVT:

A

−Leg pain, tenderness, warmth, redness, swelling −Homan’s sign: dorsiflexion of foot à tender calf muscle

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80
Q

Cause of fever in first 48hrs post op:

A

atelectasis

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81
Q

Prevention of atelectasis:

A

early mobilization, breathing exercises, incentive spirometrt

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82
Q

Why are myobacterium tuberculosis/ caseating (cheesy) granulomas found in the apex of the lung?

A

they’re obligate aerobes. Apex has high PO2 d/t high V/Q ratio

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83
Q

Picture of tuberculin skin reaction - positive test shows:

A

all of the above (recent immunization, previous tb test, past exposure)

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84
Q

Most specific and sensitive test for pulmonary embolism:

A

CTA

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85
Q

Tx for pneumothorax

A

Chest tube; needle decompression

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86
Q

Insert image of pulmonary vol loops

A

9.) Which image identifies EXTRATHORACIC obstruction? 10.) Which image identifies INTRATHORACIC obstruction? 11.) Which image identifies Airway Obstruction?

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87
Q

Insert image of MOA for terbutaline and NO

A

12.) On image - Name (SA) Terbutaline 13.) On image - Name (SA) Nitric Oxide

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88
Q

Insert image of resp vol loops (three on one graph)

A

On image below, Identify COPD

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89
Q

Treatment of COPD:

A
  1. Abx - h.influ & S. pneumo 2. Bronchodilators 3. Smoking cessation 4. Supplemental O2 (PO2 < 55) 5. Steroids (increase effectiveness with PFT)
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90
Q

Treatment of COPD:

A
  1. Abx - h.influ & S. pneumo 2. Bronchodilators 3. Smoking cessation 4. Supplemental O2 (PO2 < 55) 5. Steroids (increase effectiveness with PFT)
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91
Q

A mast cell stabilizer; not used for acute attacks

A

Cromolyn

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92
Q

Anti-Leukotrienes - MOA and name

A

Zyflo/Zileuton; block conversion of A.A.

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93
Q

Treatment of Asthma:

A

“7-A therapy” 1. anti-inflammatorys 2. antileukotrines 3. anti-IgE therapy 4. Anticholinergics 5. Aminophylline 6. Agonists - Beta 2 7. Antagonist (of leukotrienes)

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94
Q

example of an anticholinergic used to tx asthma

A

ipratropium

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95
Q

Example of PD3-I

A

aminophylline

96
Q

Insert CV loops

A

A is normal, what is B, Mitral Stenosis What is C Aortic stenosis What is D Mitral regurg What is E Aortic regurg

97
Q

Insert pic IHSS valley

A

identify

98
Q

Insert pic of Aortic Regurg

A

identify

99
Q

normal size of aortic valve

A

2.5-3.5 cm2

100
Q

normal size of mitral valve

A

4-6cm2

101
Q

Hypertrophic CM

A

Autosomal Dominant

102
Q

Dilated CM

A

Alcohol

103
Q

Not a risk of CAD

A

High HDL

104
Q

Silent Ischemia

A

DM

105
Q

Eccentric CM is caused by:

A

Aortic regurgitation Mitral regurgitation

106
Q

3 Clinical Symptoms of poor prognosis for aortic stenosis:

A

SAD -Syncope -Angina -DOE

107
Q

Insert CV loop (red line)

A

Identify S2: Point D ID S1: Point B Identify LVEDV: Point B

108
Q

Left Coronary artery perfused during

A

diastole

109
Q

HCM: what medications you would avoid EXCEPT: Vasodilator (NTG) Diuretic (lasix) Dig Dopamine Phenylephrine

A

Phenylephrine

110
Q

Aortic Stenosis Management

A

Slow (low heart rate) Full (maintain or á preload) Tight (maintain or á afterload) To maintain coronary perfusion pressure Regular (maintain sinus rhythm) Not too strong (maintain contractility)

111
Q

20 year Asian women Olympic

A

Takyasu

112
Q

what EKG correlates to pleuritic chest pain & pericardial rub in BOTH systole and diastole

A

diffuse ST elevation

113
Q

what EKG correlates to pleuritic chest pain & pericardial rub in BOTH systole and diastole

A

diffuse ST elevation

114
Q

MI: 1st 6 hours - Gold Standard dx

A

EKG

115
Q

4 hour to 7-10days post MI measurement?

A

Troponin

116
Q

1st 24hrs post MI; lab?

A

CKMB

117
Q

Patient with CP radiating to back; “knife between shoulder” may indicate

A

Dissecting aortic aneurysm

118
Q

Hypertrophic CM treatment goals

A

Increase Preload Increase Afterload

119
Q

Pulmonary HTN = mean pressure above

A

25 mmHg

120
Q

What increases Coronary artery perfusion

A

Adenosine (Not aortic stenosis, ventricular systole, or tachycardia)

121
Q

Treatment for Dressler’s Syndrome (short answer)

A

NSAIDS Ketorolac Codeine Steroids

122
Q

Dressler’s Syndrome MOA

A

immunologic

123
Q

Treatment for MI (short answer)

A

BOOMAR EKG (1st 6h) Cardiac Enzyme Angioplasty Catheterization LAD = OR

124
Q

Cause is secondary to coronary artery vasospasm

A

Prinzmetal’s angina

125
Q

A patient with jaw pain, tenderness of temporal region and a unilateral headache. What would be likely diagnosos:

A

Temporal Arteritis

126
Q

Briefly describe the prevention of deep vein thrombosis (short answer)

A

Leg elevation Compression stocking Early ambulation Pneumatic compression boot Heparin or LMWH

127
Q

Description of a pt w/temporal Arteritis. What would be the first step in management of the disease?

A

Steroids

128
Q

Equalization of the pressures in the L and R atrium and L and R ventricle at 20mmHg

A

Cardiac Tamponade

129
Q

Calculate EF from ESV 70 and EDV 120 =

A

41%

130
Q

Causes of Concentric Hypertrophy (Choose 3)?

A

Hypertension Aortic Stenosis Coarctation of Aorta

131
Q

Description of Mitral Valve prolapse: young woman, mid-diastolic click. Which of the following would be indicate d in her treatment.

A

Beta blockers for palpitations

132
Q

HIV destroys what cells?

A

CD4 (T helper cells)

133
Q

Largest antibody, first to appear, and does not cross the BBB is?

A

igM

134
Q

What is the difference in anaphylactic and anaphylactoid reactions? Discussion

A

Anaphylaxis - Antigen induced release of vasoactive mediators from mast cells. IgE formation and binding occurs. Anaphylactoid - mast cell release withOUT igE. Both can be deadly; Type I reactions

135
Q

Function of the CD4 T-helper cell: discussion

A

Part of cellular immune response. Originate in bone marrow and mature in the Thymus. Activate macrophages and help B-cells.

136
Q

Define opsonization (discussion)

A

A B-cell function of marking/coating bacteria to make phagocytosis by macrophages occur more easily

137
Q

Patient gets stung by wasps multiple times; has laryngospasm, vascular collapse, etc. what is likely going on ?

A

Systemic Anaphylaxis

138
Q

B-Cell deficiency; x-linked Disorder.

A

Bruton’s Agammaglobuinemia “B cell = Bruton’s”

139
Q

A patient with Thymic Aplasia (DiGeorge’s Syndrome) is likely to have a deficiency of?

A

T-cells T-cell deficiency. Thymus and parathyroid fail to develop. Present with Tetany d/t hypocalcemia. T-cell = Thymic Aplasia’

140
Q

Immune disorder of phagocytic deficiency due to the lack of NADPH oxidase.

A

Chronic Granulomatous Disease

141
Q

TB skin test is an example of what hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type 4 *TB skin test, transplant rejection, contact dermatitis, Type 1 DM, MS, GB

142
Q

Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is an example of what hypersensitivity?

A

Type 3 *Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis, serum sickness, SLE, RA

143
Q

Mismatched blood transfusion is an example of what hypersensitivity?

A

Type 2 *Mismatch Blood tx; autoimmune hemolytic anemia, RH disease, Goodpasture’s disease, ITP, Rheumatic fever, Graves, MG

144
Q

Which one is life threatening: anaphylactic or anaphylactoid?

A

both

145
Q

the MOA of motelukast? (discussion)

A

Competitive antagonist of leukotriene at cystenyl-leukotriene 1 receptor → prevents bronchospasm, vasoconstriction, and eosinophil recruitment

146
Q

What makes up the membrane attack complex (MAC)?

A

C5-C9

147
Q

Contains granules with heparin, histamine and bradykinin

A

Basophils

148
Q

these differentiate into Macrophages:

A

monocytes

149
Q

Cromolyn sodium prevents _____ degranulation given for exercise induced asthma

A

Mast cell

150
Q

Vaccinations required prior to splenectomy (choose all that apply):

A

Salmonella S. Pneumonia H. Influenza

151
Q

Which of the following is incorrect regarding passive immunity….

A

long lasting immunity

152
Q

COVD 19 Vaccine is what kind of immunty

A

Active immunity (and acquired/adaptive)

153
Q

B lymphocytes differentiate into

A

Plasma cells

154
Q

A patient with an autoimmune disease producing antibodies to their own RBCs has a deficiency of what:

A

T-suppressor cells

155
Q

React with T-helper CD4 lymphocytes in cell mediated immunity

A

MHC II think 18 and 24 - MHC I/CD8; MHC II/CD4

156
Q

Infected cells present viral antigen to cytotoxic cells (CD8) cell mediated immunity

A

MHC I think 18 and 24 - MHC I/CD8; MHC II/CD4

157
Q

Insert Antibody response Graph

A

Identify which line is IgG and which is IgM IgG = bright Red and ALWAYS highest line/curve “G = Greatest” IgM = dark red line; first response so peaks before IgG

158
Q

these cells are affected in multiple myeloma

A

Plasma cells

159
Q

Antibody class that crosses the placenta and provides immunity to the infant

A

IgG IgG crosses the placenta during Gestation

160
Q

Antibody class found in saliva, breast milk, mucous

A

IgA

161
Q

Antibody class that mediates Type I hypersensitivity reactions

A

IgE “Evil antibody; immEdiate hypersensitivity”

162
Q

Main determinant of organ rejection

A

MHC II (CD4)

163
Q

These cells act as antigen presenting cells

A

Macrophages antigens are present to CD4

164
Q

S/S of anaphylactic Reaction Discussion

A

Asthma, itching, wheal/flare, hypotension and circulatory collapse Pruritus, urticaria, angioedema, SOB, Respiratory Distress, hypotension, shock, arrhythmias, abdominal pain, severe NVD, feeling of impending doom

165
Q

A patient experiencing rhinitis (Type 1) is likely experiencing a reaction mediated by what antibody (class)

A

Type 1 = IgE

166
Q

A patient with a prior infection with chicken pox has long lasting immunity. This is an example of

A

Active immunity

167
Q

Picture of a patient with pinworms. What lab value would you expect to be elevated?

A

Eosinophils

168
Q

Anaphylactoid vs. Anaphylactic reactions: Which requires IgE mediation?

A

Anaphylactic

169
Q

A patient stung by a bee has symptoms of anaphylactic reaction. What is responsible for this?

A

Mast Cells

170
Q

First line of defense for natural immunity

A

skin and mucous membranes

171
Q

Antibody mediated humoral immunity consists of _____ lymphocytes and cell mediated immunity consists of _____ lymphocytes.

A

Humoral = B lymphocytes Cell mediated = T lymphocytes Antibody Mediated immunity = B lymphocytes “AMB” cell Mediated immunity = T lymphocytes “ cMIT (or see MIT - like the school)

172
Q

Oxygenated blood from placenta enters through:

A

umbilical vein

173
Q

deoxygenated blood returns to placenta via:

A

umbilical arteries

174
Q

Connects the pulmonary trunk directly to aorta in fetal ciruclation

A

Ductus arteriosus

175
Q

INSERT PICTURE OF UMBILICAL CORD

A

Picture of Umbilical cord: Label X Umbilical Vein Picture of Umbilical cord: Label Y Umbilical Arteries

176
Q

Responsible for blood flow between L and R atriums in fetal ciruclation

A

Foramen Ovale

177
Q

Ductus arteriosus closes within ___ after birth

A

2-3 weeks

178
Q

Medication used to close a PDA

A

Indomethacin

179
Q

What is Eisenmenger’s Syndrome? (discussion)

A

uncorrected VSD, ASD, or PDA leads to progressive pulmonary hypertension. As pulmonary resistance increases, the shunt reverses from Left to Right to Right to Left, which causes late cyanosis (clubbing and polycythemia)

180
Q

The most common congenital heart defect

A

VSD

181
Q

Picture of a “kink” between proximal and distal aorta: “3 sign”

A

Coarctation of the Aorta

182
Q

A patient has different pulses femoral vs radial; likely diagnosis?

A

Coarctation of the Aorta

183
Q

Characterized by a continuous murmur

A

PDA

184
Q

4 Characteristics of TOF (choose 4)

A
  1. Pulmonary Stenosis 2. VSD 3. Overriding Aorta 4. RVH
185
Q

Which of the following would decrease a R-L shunt

A

Phenylephrine

186
Q

All of the following would increase a R to L shunt, EXCEPT:

A

Increased SVR

187
Q

Why would you give PGE1 Infusion to a patient with symptomatic TOF? (Discussion)

A

to keep the shunts open; mixing of the blood is necessary for survival

188
Q

A patient with bowel sounds in the chest - diagnosis?

A

Diaphragmatic hernia

189
Q

Insert picture of TE Fistulas

A

Choose the most common type: III B

190
Q

Associated with polyhydraminos

A

Tracheoesophageal fistula

191
Q

Associated with oligohydraminos

A

Renal Agenesis

192
Q

A patient with a palpable olive shaped mass most likely has

A

Pyloric stenosis

193
Q

INSERT PIC OF BARIUM/ PYLORIC STENOSIS Image of string sign on barium study. Diagnostic for:

A

pyloric stenosis

194
Q

A patient comes in with a sore throat, drooling, tachypnea, and cyanosis. indicative of?

A

epiglottisis

195
Q

Barking cough and Temp of 100F indicative of

A

Laryngotracheal Bronchitis (RSV was on exam)

196
Q

This disease is caused by parainfluenza Virus

A

Croup

197
Q

Caused by haemophilus influenza B

A

Epiglottitis

198
Q

Caused by herniation of abdominal contents into umbilical cord at the base of umbilicus:

A

Omphalocele

199
Q

Extrusion of abdominal contents through abdominal folds and does not have a sac

A

Gastroschisis

200
Q

Picture of Prune belly syndrome. Describe anesthetic implications

A

congenital deficiency of abd muscles w/thin weak abd wall. - RF aspiration; can’t cough - Treat as full stomach - Awake intubation - No muscle relaxant - bad kidneys

201
Q

Discuss Meckel’s Diverticulum

A

Remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct that can contain ectopic gastric or pancreatic mucosa Rule of 2’s: - Males twice as often as in females - before 2 yrs of age (symptoms) - 2 cm long - 2 feet proximal to ileocecal valve - 2 types of ectopic tissue - 2% of population PE with rectal bleeding; abd pain; umbilical cellulitis. TX by surgical resection

202
Q

Description of a pt with obstructive sx and bloody stool with a palpable sausage shaped mass. What is diagnosis?

A

Intussusception

203
Q

Description of a pt with progression of respiratory disease with a lung transplant at 20 yrs old. Associated cause/disease?

A

Cystic Fibrosis

204
Q

Discuss why a pregnant woman should not change a litter box:

A

Cat feces are associated as a source of Toxoplasmosis. CMV/Toxoplasmosis infection is one of the TORCH Risk Factors for Cerebral Palsy.

205
Q

Motor disability caused from damage to the cerebral cortex

A

Spastic CP

206
Q

Cerebral palsy caused from damage to the basal ganglia

A

Dyskinetic CP

207
Q

CP caused from damage to the cerebellum

A

Ataxic

208
Q

Picture of a pediatric patient with protrusion of spinal cord - likely?

A

myelomeningocele

209
Q

insert image of Intussusception This is?

A

Intussusception

210
Q

NG tube coiled in the esophagus is usually due to ?

A

Tracheoesophageal Fistula

211
Q

Cystic fibrosis is a result from a defect in ______ channels that is caused by a mutation.

A

Chloride

212
Q

Bypasses the liver in fetal circulation:

A

Ductus Venosus

213
Q

Causes closure of ductus arteriosus after birth:

A

The Increased O2 from Respiration and the drop in prostaglandin d/t placental separation closes the DA Indomethacin helps to close PDA. PGE1 keep the PDA open.

214
Q

how do you diagnosis Cystic Fibrosis?

A

Sweat Chloride Test

215
Q

All of the following are true regarding VSD (choose four):

A

It is NOT a Right to Left shunt -L to R shunt - VSD>ASD>PDA -MC Congenital Cardiac anomaly

216
Q

MC Congenital Heart defect:

A

VSD

217
Q

describe the pathogenesis of HIV

A

T-helper cells coordinates the immune response from T&B lymphocytes, monocytes and macrophages. therefore impaired immunity of both cell-mediated and humoral immunity occur.

218
Q

S/S of tetanus?

A

trismus (lock jaw), jaw spasms, fixed smile, opisthotonus/arching of back, spasms of diaphragm and rib cage that eventually leads to death.

219
Q

what is tetanospasmin?

A

2nd most powerful toxin ; blocks inhibitor NT glycine release from spinal cord. leads to continuous uncontrolled muscle contraction

220
Q

Describe this skin lesions of the HIV patient?

A

Kaposi’s Sarcoma

221
Q

Picture of butterfly rash on the face. What disease does this pt have?

A

SLE - lupus

222
Q

Describe how strep infection can cause glomerulonephritis?

A

post streptococcal infection antibody cross reaction that causes kidney damage

223
Q

Different types of stones

A
  1. Calcium oxalalate; MC; Radiopaque 2. calcium phosphate; primary hyperparathyroidism 3. “staghorn stone” triple phosphate; often associated w/UTI 4. Uric Acid; radiolucent
224
Q

Describe difference b/w RA and OA

A

RA - Chronic systemic inflammatory arthritis. MC in females 20-40 yrs of age. HLA-DR4 tissue type. + Rheumatoid factor and ESR OA - normal “wear and tear” arthritis of movable joints. degenerative joint disease. Pain worsens with activity and improves with rest.

225
Q

Common cause of blindness in HIV patient

A

CMV retinitis

226
Q

Most common cause of death in HIV patients?

A

PCP - Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia is the leading cause of death

227
Q

Describe mycoplasma pneumonia S/S?

A

atypical pneumoniae; often called “walking pneumonia”. Mild symptoms like sore throat, NP Cough, and H/A. XRay usually w/diffuse infiltrates and “look worse than the patient”

228
Q

Risk Factors for SSI?

A
  1. Chronic illness 2. extremes of age 3. immunocompromised 4. DM 5. Foreign Objects/bodies 6. Biofilm formation on prosthetics 7. Dirty wounds with dead tissue 8. Virulent factors like capsule and enzymes produced by bugs
229
Q

RF for HIV infection? (modes of transmission)

A

Body fluids (semen, blood, breast milk) Homosexual and bisexual men IV drug abuse Recipients of blood products prior to 1985 Transmission through the placenta

230
Q

Name some common infections that can occur in HIV patients

A

Bacterial - TB Viral - Herpes simplex, zoster, CMV Fungal - thrush, PCP, histoplasmosis Protozan -toxoplasmosis

231
Q

The treatment for gout:

A

Probenecid (uricosuric agent) Steroids Avoid thiazide/loop diuretics as can lead to hyperuricemia Allopurinol (avoid in acute attack)

232
Q

How is pseudomembranous colitis diagnosed?

A

Toxins A&B in stool

233
Q

How to treat pseudomembranous colitis?

A

oral vancomycin or metronidazole

234
Q

What cells does HIV attack?

A

CD4 helper cells

235
Q

Why is PCN not effective against mycoplasma pneumonia?

A

b/c it has no cell wall

236
Q

Treatment for PCP ?

A

Pentimidine or Trimethprim-sulfamethoxazole

237
Q

Stages of HIV infection

A

Stage I: flu like (acute) Stage II: Feeling fine (latent) Stage III: Falling Count and s/s worsen –> Final Crisis

Fall'20 Final Exam Prep (6 decks)

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