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A&P > A&P Final > Flashcards

A&P Final Flashcards

Units 1-4,6, and unit 7 & 8 ; adding unit 5 right now

1
Q

Integumentary sx

A

Contains the skin, hair & nails; offers protection, temperature regulation, water retention & sensation of the body

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2
Q

Skeletal sx

A

Contains the bones, cartilage & ligaments; offers protection to the body organs, support & movement with muscles & contraction as well as blood formation through blood marrow

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3
Q

Muscular sx

A

Contains primarily skeletal muscles; offers movement through muscle contraction & skeletal/heart muscles, assists with posture & heat production

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4
Q

Lymphatic system

A

Contains lymph nodes, lymphatic vessels, lymph, thymus, spleen & tonsils; sx has role in fluid balance, production of immune cells & defense against disease

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5
Q

Respiratory sx

A

contains nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi & lungs; sx absorbs oxygen, discharges carbon dioxide, acid base balance & assists with speech

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6
Q

Urinary sx

A

contains kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder and urethra; sx assists with excretion of wastes, regulation of blood volume & pressure, control of fluid & electrolytes and acid based balance

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7
Q

Nervous sx

A

Contains brain, spinal cord & sense organs; sx controls, regulates & coordinates the other sxs, also assists with sensation & memory

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8
Q

Endocrine sx

A

contains pituitary gland, adrenals, pancreas thyroid, parathyroids & other organs; sx assists with hormone production & control/regulation of other sx

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9
Q

Circulatory sx

A

contains the heart, arteries, veins & capillaries; sx has a distribution of oxygen, nutrients, waste hormones, immune cells, electrolytes & antibodies. Also does fluid, electrolyte & acid-base balance

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10
Q

Digestive sx

A

contains stomach, small & large intestines, esophagus, liver, mouth & pancreas; sx breaks down and absorbs nutrients as well as eliminates waste

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11
Q

Male reproductive sx

A

contains testes, vas deferens, prostate, seminal vesicles & penis; sx does things for body such as secretion of sex hormones & production/delivery of sperm

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12
Q

female reproductive sx

A

contains ovaries, fallopian tubes, uterus, vagina & breast; sx produces eggs, site of fertilization & fetal development, birth, lactation & secretion of sex hormones

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13
Q

Epithelial tissues

A

covers or lines body surfaces such as the outer layer of skin, walls of capillaries & kidney tubules

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14
Q

Connective tissue

A

connects & supports parts of the body, transports & stores materials. Some examples are bone, cartilages & adipose tissues

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15
Q

Muscle tissue

A

contracts to produce movement such as skeletal & heart muscles

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16
Q

Nerve tissue

A

generates & transmits impulses to regulate body functions such as the brain & nerves

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17
Q

Sagittal plane

A

divides into left and right sides however they are not equal sides

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18
Q

Midsagittal plane

A

divides into left and right sides equally

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19
Q

Transverse plane

A

divides the body into upper and lower portions can be also called the horizontal plane

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20
Q

Frontal plane

A

divides the body into anterior and posterior portions, can also be called coronal place since the line crosses the crown of the head

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21
Q

Describe anatomical position

A

Used to identify locations of body parts, accurate communication. Anatomical position is standing straight up with arms at side with face, palms and feet facing forward

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22
Q

Dorsal body cavity

A

Located along the posterior side of the body(back); contains cranial cavity which holds the brain and spinal cavity which holds the spinal cord

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23
Q

Ventral Body cavity

A

Along the anterior side of the body (front); contains the thoracic cavity which is above the diaphragm contains the lungs, heart & mediastinum & also contains the abdominopelvic cavity which divides into abdominal cavity (under the diaphragm, above the pelvis & contains the stomach, liver, gall bladder, pancreas, spleen, small intestine, most of the large intestine & kidneys) also the pelvic cavity which contains the urinary bladder, rectum & internal reproductive organs

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24
Q

9 abdominal regions

A

right & left hypochondriac region, right & left lumbar region, right & left iliac region, epigastic region, umbilical region, hypogastic region

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25
Q

4 quadrants

A

RUQ, RLQ, LUQ, LLQ

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26
Q

Abdominal pain; where is the appendix located

A

right lower quadrant; located in right iliac region & tip of appendix in right lumbar region

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27
Q

abdominal pain; where is the gallbladder located

A

right upper quadrant , can also can referred pain in the shoulder; gallbladder located in right hypochondriac region

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28
Q

What elements make up 96% of human body?

A

CHON- Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen & Nitrogen

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29
Q

What element makes up the greatest % of body weight?

A

Oxygen makes up 65% of body mass

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30
Q

Electrons

A

carry a negative charge; move around the nucleus in concentric clouds that represent different energy levels

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31
Q

Protons

A

carry a positive charge which is contained in the nucleus. Differentiate one element from another

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32
Q

Neutrons

A

electrically neutral

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33
Q

Define isotopes

A

an atom of an element containing a different number of neutrons

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34
Q

define covalent bonds

A

formed when atoms share one or more pairs of electrons; stronger than ionic bonds, used to create many of the chemical structures of the body

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35
Q

Define metabolism

A

the sum of all chemical reactions in the body

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36
Q

Catabolism

A

breaks down complex compounds into simpler ones, releases energy some heat mostly transferred into ATP

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37
Q

Define Anabolism

A

Larger, more complex chemical molecules from smaller subunits require energy; obtains energy from atp

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38
Q

chemical reactions: synthesis

A

A + B → AB ; Two or more substances combine to form a different more complex substance, new bonds are formed and energy is required. Ex wound healing; fors collagen to repair skin

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39
Q

Chemical reaction: decomposition

A

AB → A + B; A complex substance breaks down into two or more impeller substances; bonds are broken; energy is released- this energy can be released in the form of heat or stored for future use

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40
Q

Chemical reaction: Exchange

A

AB + CD → AC + BD
Two molecules exchange atoms or groups of atoms, which form two new compounds

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41
Q

define compound

A

two or more elements combine to create a new substance, new substance has its own chemical properties

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42
Q

define mixture

A

two substances blend together, do not chemically combine. Each retains unique chemical properties

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43
Q

define solution mixture

A

mixture is particles of matter (solute) dissolved in a substance (solvent). Can be gas, solid or liquid and also must be clear

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44
Q

Define colloid

A

mixture of protein and water, can change from liquid to gel and particles are small enough to stay mixed. Mixture is cloudy

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45
Q

Define suspension

A

contains large particles, will look cloudy or opaque, particles will settle

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46
Q

Importance of water & characteristics

A

water is a solvent, lubricant & water changes temperature slowly.

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47
Q

define pH scale

A

The acidity or alkalinity of a substance is expressed in terms of pH, pH scale ranges from 0-14

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48
Q

pH of blood

A

7.35-7.45

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49
Q

pH ranges

A

Acidic- solution with a pH less than 7
Alkaline- solution with pH of 7 is neutral
Neutral- solution with pH greater than 7

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50
Q

Organic compound 1 of 4

A

Carbohydrates- group of organic compounds known as starches or sugars that serves as the bodys primary source of energy

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51
Q

Organic compound 2 of 4

A

lipids- group of fats characterized by their insolubility in water

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52
Q

Organic compound 3 of 4

A

Proteins- very large molecules consisting of smaller chemical subunits called amino acids

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53
Q

Organic compound 4 of 4

A

Nucleic acids- complex organic substances especially in DNA & RNA

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54
Q

Define & specific task of Nucleolus

A

manufactures ribosomes

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55
Q

Define & specific task of endoplasmic reticulum

A

network of membranous canals & curving sacs through out the cytoplasm

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56
Q

Define & specific task of ribosomes

A

manufacture proteins; dot the surface of some of the ER

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57
Q

Define & specific task of microvili

A

folds of the cell membrane; increases the surface area of the cell

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58
Q

Define & specific task of cilia

A

hair like processes on the cell surface; moves in waves to propel a substance forwards

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59
Q

Define & specific task of flagella

A

uses a whip like motion to move a cell

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60
Q

define hydrostatic pressure

A

as water diffuses by osmosis into a solution, the volume of that solution increases, exerting more pressure

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61
Q

define osmotic pressure

A

water pressure that develops in a solution as a result of osmosis

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62
Q

define hypotonic

A

A solution with a lower concentration of solutes when compared to that inside the cell; water moves by osmosis into the cell; influx of water causes the cell to swell & burst (lysis)

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63
Q

Define hypertonic

A

A solution with a higher concentration of solutes than the concentration of the cell (inside the cell); water moves out of cell; cell shrivels & may die3% Normal saline (3% NaC)

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64
Q

define isotonic

A

A solution with the same concentration of solutes as that inside the cell; water moves into & out of the cell at an equal rate; cells remain normal in size

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65
Q

Sodium potassium pump

A

Active transport, Regulates the volume of fluid within cells, Provides the electrical potential necessary for nervous system activity, Helps in heat production, Transfers sodium from inside the cell (where sodium levels are low) to outside the cell (where sodium levels are higher), At the same time, it transfers potassium from the extracellular fluid (where potassium levels are low) to the cell’s interior (where potassium levels are higher)

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66
Q

Define human microbiome

A

essential for human life

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67
Q

Define human microbiome project

A

scientist are doing DNA sequencing research to identify bacteria in our body; unseen world & bacteria cells out number human cells

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68
Q

define bacteria

A

tiny, single celled organisms that are a major part of the microbiome

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69
Q

define capsule

A

a jelly like layer that keeps bacteria moist and protects them

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70
Q

define viruses

A

extremely small infectious agents, not cells, to reproduce they must be inside a host cell, viruses are simply a bundle of genetic material (RNA or DNA) surrounded by a protein shell called a capsid

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71
Q

Define fungi

A

common & easily spread, many fungal infections start on skin or lungs, lives in soil, plants and in the air. million of fungal species are part of the human microbiome

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72
Q

define pathogen

A

a microogranism know to cause disease; invasion by disease causing bacteria

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73
Q

define archaea

A

microscopic single cels organisms that like bacteria, do not contain a nucleus, lacks peptidoglycans. 3 domains make up life on earth; bacteria, archaea and complex life

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74
Q

what is the link between bacteria & antibiotic resistance

A

plasmids are small loops of DNA inside bacteria that can be shared with other bacteria, helping them quickly adapt to changes.

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75
Q

Gram-positive bacteria & how antibiotics work

A

have a thick later of peptidoglycan in cell wall, retain dye, stains purple; Antibiotics such as penicillin work by attacking the peptidoglycan in the bacterial cell wall, they are more effective against Gram-positive bacteria

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76
Q

Gram-negative bacteria & how antibiotics work

A

thin layer of peptidoglycan in cell wall & also have outer membrane, lose dye when rinsed and appears red or pink ;Gram-negative bacteria are often more resistant to antibiotics due to their outer membrane, which blocks many drugs, and mechanisms like efflux pumps and beta-lactamase enzymes that destroy or expel antibiotics.

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77
Q

general understanding of the fertilized egg & role in tissue development

A

A fertilized egg organizes into three layers; each of these layers gives rise to a different type of tissue (EndodermMesodermEctoderm) Layers continue to divide; eventually each layer gives rise to a different type of tissue differentiation, Stem cells can differentiate into many different types of cells

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78
Q

Ectoderm (outer layer)

A

gives rise to epidermis and nervous system

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79
Q

mesoderm (middle layer)

A

gives rise to connective & muscle tissue ( cardiac muscle, skeletal muscle, bone, blood & smooth muscle)

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80
Q

Endoderm (inner layer)

A

produces mucous membrane of respiratory tract, thyroid gland, secretory parts of pancreas

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81
Q

define differentiation

A

the process of each layer gives rise to a different type of tissue

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82
Q

Epithelial tissue

A

epithelial tissue is a continuous sheet of tightly packed cells; it covers the body’s surface, lines body cavities and many organs, and forms certain glands. Key functions involve protection, absorption, filtration, and secretion.

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83
Q

Connective tissue

A

Existing in a variety of forms—ranging from tough cords to elastic sheets to fluid—connective tissue performs a variety of tasks. The overriding purposes of this seemingly diverse group of tissues are to connect the body together and to support, bind, or protect organs.

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84
Q

Nervous tissue

A

Nervous tissue has a high degree of excitability and conductivity, It’s these characteristics that allow it to communicate rapidly with other parts of the body, Nervous tissue has a high degree of excitability and conductivity—more so than other tissues. It’s these characteristics that allow it to communicate rapidly with other parts of the body.

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85
Q

Muscle tissue

A

Muscle tissue consists of elongated cells that contract in response to stimulation. The body contains three types of muscle tissue: skeletal, cardiac, and smooth.

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86
Q

components of connective tissue

A

extracellular matrix, The matrix consists of varying kinds and amounts of protein fibers and fluid; it’s the variation in composition that gives tissue its characteristics;
*Collagenous fibers: These are strong and flexible but resist stretching; these are the most abundant fibers.
* Reticular fibers: These occur in networks and support small structures such as capillaries and nerve fibers.
* Elastic fibers: Made of a protein called elastin, these fibers can stretch and recoil like a rubber band.

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87
Q

Define stem cells

A

specialized cells that can differentiate into many different type of cells

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88
Q

Define exocrine glands

A

secrete products into ducts; the ducts then empty onto a body surface or inside a body cavity, ex gastic juices, tears & swear

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89
Q

define endocrine glands

A

secretes hormones directly into the blood; known as ductless glands; ex ovaries, pitutiary gland

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90
Q

key functions of epithelium

A

fxn in protection, absorption, filtration & secretion, covers body surfaces, lines cavities & organs, forms glands

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91
Q

define goblet cells

A

modified cells containing secretory vesicles that produce large quanitites of mucus ex epithelial lining of organs; the intestines & respiratory tract

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92
Q

connective tissue

A

most widespread & diverse, exists in a variety of forms, fxn & purpose is to connect the body together & support, bind, or protect organs

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93
Q

extracellular matrix

A

consists of protein fibers & fluid, framework in which cells are embedded

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94
Q

Basic types of connective tissue: connective tissue

A

Loose Connective Tissue: Includes areolar, adipose, and reticular tissue. It provides cushioning, insulation, and support for organs.
Dense Connective Tissue: Includes dense regular, dense irregular, and elastic tissue. It forms strong structures like tendons and ligaments.

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95
Q

Basic connective tissue: cartilage

A

Types: Hyaline, elastic, and fibrocartilage.
Provides flexible support and reduces friction in joints.

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96
Q

Basic connective tissue: Bone

A

Made of compact and spongy bone.
Provides structure, support, and protection for the body.

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97
Q

Basic connective tissue: Blood

A

A fluid connective tissue composed of cells (red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets) suspended in plasma.
Transports nutrients, oxygen, and waste.

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98
Q

Basic connective tissue: Lymph

A

Fluid connective tissue that helps with immune responses and the return of interstitial fluid to the bloodstream.

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99
Q

Skeletal muscle

A

Long, cylindrical, multinucleated fibers with a striated (striped) appearance. It is under voluntary control, meaning movements can be consciously controlled.
Location: Attached to bones by tendons; found in muscles like the biceps, quadriceps, and diaphragm.
Function: Enables movement of the skeleton, posture maintenance, and heat production.

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100
Q

Cardiac muscle

A

Branched, striated fibers with a single nucleus per cell and intercalated discs that allow for synchronized contractions. It is under involuntary control.
Location: Found exclusively in the walls of the heart (myocardium).
Function: Pumps blood throughout the body by rhythmic contractions.`

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101
Q

Smooth muscle

A

Spindle-shaped, non-striated cells with a single nucleus. It is under involuntary control.
Location: Found in the walls of hollow organs such as the stomach, intestines, blood vessels, bladder, and uterus.
Function: Facilitates movement of substances through the organ (e.g., food in the digestive tract or blood through vessels) and regulates internal processes like blood pressure.

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102
Q

Tissue repair: regeneration

A

damaged tissue cells are replaced with the same type of cells, resulting in functional new tissue

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103
Q

tissue repair: Fibrosis

A

damaged tissue is replaced with scar tissue (which is mostly collagen); fibrosis does not restore normal function

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104
Q

Granulation tissue

A

newly formed tissue; fibroblasts in the granulation tissue secrete collagen, which forms scar tissue inside the wound*White blood cells ingest bacteria & cellular debris to keep the wound bed clean

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105
Q

Mucous membrane

A

line body surfaces that open directly to the body’s exterior; secrete mucus, which protects cells of the membrane, acts as a lubricant to propel food through the digestive tract & traps dust and bacteria in the respiratory tract. The type of epithelium varies according to location and functio

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106
Q

Cutaneous membrane

A

(or skin) is the body’s largest membrane; consists of a layer of epithelium on a layer of connective tissue`

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107
Q

Serous membrane

A

consists of simple squamous epithelium on a thin layer of areolar connective tissue. The portion covering the wall of the cavity is the parietal membrane, which folds back & covers the organs; this is the visceral membrane;which secretes serous fluid, which reduces friction as organs expand & contract

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108
Q

Pleura membrane

A

serous membrane; surrounds each lung and lines the thoracic cavity

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109
Q

Pericardium

A

serous membrane; surrounds the heart

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110
Q

peritoneum

A

lines the abdominal cavity and covers the abdominal organs

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111
Q

serous fluid

A

helps prevent friction as the heart beats & lungs expand

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112
Q

what functions & roles does the skin play as it relates to the human body?

A

protection & temperature regulation

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113
Q

define melanin

A

produced by melanocytes, determines a persons skin color by the amount & type of melanin (NOT THE # OF MELANOCYTES)

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114
Q

Define albinism

A

a genetic lack of melanin, extremely pale skins, white hair & pink eyes

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115
Q

define keratin

A

a tough, fibrous protein

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116
Q

Clubbing

A

Abnormal nail change, long term oxygen deficiency usually a result of lung disease

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117
Q

Cyanosis

A

a deficiency of oxygen in circulating blood, ex blood tint on the tip of fingertips when cold

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118
Q

pale nail beds

A

decreased blood flow, such as cold temps, fears or emotional stress, low blood pressure

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119
Q

yellowish thickened nails

A

impaired liver functions, allows bile to accumulate which stains

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120
Q

Describe the changes in the skin due to aging process & how it affects body temperature regulation

A

Thinning of the Epidermis and Dermis- The skin becomes thinner and less resilient due to reduced cell production and collagen breakdown.
Decreased Elasticity- Loss of elastin fibers leads to sagging and wrinkling of the skin.
Reduction in Sweat Glands and Sebaceous Gland Activity- Fewer active sweat glands reduce sweat production, while decreased oil secretion makes the skin drier.
Decline in Blood Flow- Reduced blood supply to the dermis affects nutrient delivery and temperature regulation.
Loss of Subcutaneous Fat- Thinning of the subcutaneous layer reduces insulation, making the skin more sensitive to temperature changes.
Impact on Body Temperature Regulation
Impaired Sweating

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121
Q

what is insensible perspiration: define & describe

A

insensible perspiration: perspiration that doesn’t make the skin feel damp. Perspiration increases dramatically from heat or exercise. In fact, the body can lose as much as a liter of perspiration an hour from intense exercise or extreme heat. If the fluid isn’t replaced, dehydration or even circulatory shock may result.

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122
Q

eccrine glands

A

contain a duct that leads from the secretory portion to the skin’s surface. Eccrine glands produce sweat; which plays a role in helping the body maintain a constant core temperature & helps the body eliminate wastes

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123
Q

apocrine glands (sweat glands)

A

contain a duct that leads to a hair follicle; respond to stress & sexual stimulation. *Sweat produced by apocrine glands does not have a strong odor when it accumulates on the skin, bacteria begins to degrade substances in the sweat, resulting in body odor

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124
Q

Sebaceous glands

A

Secrete an oily substance called sebum; helps keep the skin & hair from drying out and becoming brittle*Has a mild antibacterial & antifungal effect

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125
Q

ceruminous glands

A

Exist in the external ear canal; secrete a waxy substance called cerumen (ear wax); helps keep ear canal from drying out*Excess cerumen can accumulate in the ear canal & harden, diminishing hearing

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126
Q

First degree burn

A

only involves the epidermis, causes redness, slight swelling & pain, can result from sunlight (AKA sunburn), burns is risk for infection, black scab holds bacteria in & restricts blood flow, a partial thickness burn

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127
Q

second degree burn

A

involves the epidermis & part of the dermis; results in blisters, severe pain & swelling, may result in scarring, can appear red, white or tan & a partial thickness burn

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128
Q

third degree burn

A

extends through epidermis & dermis & into the subcutaneous layer, full thickness burn. May not be painful initially (nerve endings are destroyed), often requires skin grafts, risk for infection, fluid loss & lack of thermoregulation

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129
Q

rules of nines

A

divides the body into areas of 9%, add corresponding percentages for each body section burned

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130
Q

Long bones

A

longer than they are wide, work like levers to move limbs

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131
Q

short bones

A

shaped like cubes

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132
Q

flat bones

A

thin, flat, often curved bones, they protect organs and other flat bones (ex scapulae) provide large surface area for the attachment of mucles

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133
Q

irregular bones

A

often clustered in groups, comes in various sizes & shapes

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134
Q
A
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135
Q

sesamoid bones

A

small bones imbedded in tendons

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136
Q

Parts of long bone: diaphysis

A

Hollow cylinder, compact bone; gives bone strength to support the body weights

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137
Q

parts of long bone: articular cartilage

A

hyaline membrane; covers the epiphysis(head of each end of a bone) eases movement of the bone within a joint

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138
Q

parts of a long bone; medullary cavity

A

central hollow portion of the diaphysis; filled with yellow bone marrow

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139
Q

parts of a long bone; endosteum

A

epithelial membrane lining the medullary cavity

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140
Q

parts of a long bone; red bone marrow

A

fills the medullary cavity in children; in adults most marrow has turned yellow

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141
Q

Parts of a long bone; periosteum

A

A dense, fibrous membrane covering the diaphysis; some penetrate the bone & other fibers weave together with the fibers of tendons to ensure a strong connection between muscle and bone; *Contains bone-forming cells & blood vessels; crucial for bone survival

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142
Q

parts of a long bone; epiphyseal plate(growth plate)

A

The layer of cartilage separating the epiphysis from the diaphysis at the ends of a long bone in growing children. When growth stops, it is replaced with an epiphyseal line

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143
Q

parts of a long bone; Osteomyelitis

A

an inflammation of bone and marrow, usually the result of a bacterial infection. Bone infections are often difficult to treat and typically require prolonged intravenous antibiotic

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144
Q

osteoblasts

A

Help form bone by secreting substances that makeup bone matrix

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145
Q

osteoclasts

A

Dissolve unwanted bone or unhealthy bone tissue

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146
Q

Osteocytes

A

Are mature osteoblasts embedded in hardened bone matrix; some dissolve bone, whereas others deposit bone- contributing to the maintenance of bone density; helps regulate blood levels of calcium & phosphorus‒Become more active when building bone

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147
Q

torsional strength

A

bone can not endure much twisting

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148
Q

compressional strength/calcium salts

A

allows bones to resist strong squeezing forces

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149
Q

tensile strength/collagen fibers

A

in the matrix make bone highly resistant to stretching forces

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150
Q

compact bone

A

forms shafts of long bones & surfaces of other bones; dense & solid; offers strength

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151
Q

spongy bone

A

found in the ends of long bones and middle of other bones, always surrounded by compact bone

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152
Q

ossification; new bone development

A

this early skeleton evolves into bone, two types of ossification processes: one for fibrous connective tissue & one for cartilage

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153
Q

Intramembranous ossification: new bone development

A

Begins in a fibrous connective tissue membrane.
Mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts, which secrete bone matrix.
The matrix calcifies, trapping osteoblasts, which then become osteocytes.
Trabeculae form, creating spongy bone, and the outer layers may compact to form compact bone.

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154
Q

Endochondral ossification; new bone development

A

Begins in a cartilage model made of hyaline cartilage.
Chondrocytes (cartilage cells) enlarge, die, and are replaced by bone tissue.
Blood vessels invade the area, bringing osteoblasts that form bone matrix.
Bone development proceeds from the primary ossification center in the diaphysis (shaft) and extends toward the epiphyses (ends).
Secondary ossification centers form in the epiphyses, leaving cartilage only at the growth plates and articular surfaces.

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155
Q

Define trabeculae

A

Spongy ( cancellous bone) consists of a latticework of bone , are arranged in a way that offers maximum strength. If the stress a bone is exposed to changes, the trabeculae will realign to compensate

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156
Q

osteon

A

the basic structural unit of compact bone

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157
Q

lacunae

A

tiny gaps between rings of the lamellae

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158
Q

lamellae

A

layers of matrix are arranged in concentric rings

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159
Q

volkmanns canals

A

transverse passageways, connect the haversian canals; they transport blood & nutrients from the bone’s exterior to the osteocytes locked inside

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160
Q

bone formation at 2 years of age

A

skull is completely ossified

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161
Q

bone formation in utero

A

fetus skeleton composed of mostly cartilage

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162
Q

bone formation at 3 months of age

A

cartilage beings to turn into bone

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163
Q

simple fracture

A

remains aligned & tissue intactscom

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164
Q

compound fracture

A

bone breaks skin; damage to nerve & blood vessles; high risk for infection

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165
Q

greenstick fracture

A

an incomplete break

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166
Q

comminuted fracture

A

bone break due to high impact trauma, broken into pieces (ex motor vehicle )

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167
Q

spiral fracture

A

spiraling fracture, bone twisting, difficult to reposition/align (suspect abuse)

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168
Q

pathologic fracture

A

fracture due to pathologic condition or cancer

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169
Q

the nucleus of the cell is called the control center because

A

it contains cells genetic info

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170
Q

the plasma membrane is made up of

A

phospholipids, cholesterol & protein

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171
Q

chief purpose of the golgi apparatus

A

prepare and package proteins to export them

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172
Q

function of mitochondria

A

powerhouse, converts organic compound into atp

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173
Q

define osmotic pressure

A

osmotic pressure occures when water pressure develops in a solution as a result of osmosis

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174
Q

define passive transport

A

do not require energy, depend on substance moving down concentration gradient

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175
Q

define diffusion

A

molecules evenly distributed throughout a given area until substance reaches equilibrium

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176
Q

define osmosis

A

passive movement of water through selectively permeable membrane

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177
Q

define faciliated diffusion

A

transport process from small charged or polar solutes requires assistence from plasma through a channel protein

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178
Q

define active transport

A

requires energy; movement of solute against its concentration gradient

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179
Q

how many adult bones in the body

A

206 bones

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180
Q

Axial skeleton

A

Central, supporting axis- skull, vertebral column, and rib cage

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181
Q

Appendicular skeleton

A

bones of the limbs, pelvic & shoulder areas; relates to the appendages of the body such as arms & legs

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182
Q

Coronal suture

A

between parietal & front bone

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183
Q

sagittal suture

A

between right & left parietal bones

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184
Q

squamous suture

A

edge of temporal bone

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185
Q

lambdoid suture

A

between parietal & occipital bone

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186
Q

Newborn bone count

A

300 bones or more

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187
Q

Infant skull; suture lines

A

suture lines in the skull have not fused yet, also for infants to pass through birth canal also allows for rapid brain growth during infancy

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188
Q

infant skull fontanels

A

areas between unfused bones covered by fibrous membranes called fontanels, soft to touch, by the age two fontanels are closed

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189
Q

s & s assosciated with abnormal findings in infant skull

A

-wide suture lines suggest hydrocephalus(excessive amounts of cerebrospinal fluid)
-sunken frontanel suggest dehydration
-bulging frontanel suggest intracranial pressure

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190
Q

five sections of the vertebral column

A

cervical (7) , thoracic (12) , lumbar(5), sacrum (5) & coccyx (4 fused)

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191
Q

define scoliosis

A

lateral curvature of spine

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192
Q

define kyphosis

A

thoracic curvature “hunchback”

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193
Q

define lordosis

A

Lumbar curvature “Swayback”n

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194
Q

vertebrae characteristics:vertebral foramen

A

allows passage of spinal cord

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195
Q

vertebrae characteristics: body

A

weight bearing portion of the vertebra

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196
Q

vertebrae characteristics: spinous process

A

projects posteriorly from the vertebra, the bumps you feel along the spine

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197
Q

what is the function of the intervertebral disk

A

layer of cartilage between each vertebra designed to support weight and absorb shock

198
Q

Ribs 1-7

A

true ribs, attached to the sternum by a strip of hyaline cartilage called costal cartilage

199
Q

ribs 8,9 & 10

A

attach to the cartilage of rib 7

200
Q

ribs 11 & 12

A

false/floating ribs, doesnt attach to any part of the thoracic cage

201
Q

acromion process

A

extension of the scapula that articulates with the clavicle , only point where the arm and scapula attach to the rest of the skeleton

202
Q

humerus

A

long bone of the upper arm; head enlarged end of this bone covered with articular cartilage, olecranon fossa(depression on the posterior side of the humerus), olecranon process (bony point of the elbow; slides in the olecranon fossa when arm is extended)

203
Q
A
204
Q

ulna

A

other bone of the lower arm; its longer than the radius

205
Q

radius

A

the radius is a distinctive disc that rotate on the humerus when the palm is turned forward & back

206
Q

what forms the wrist

A

eight carpal bones, arranged in two rows of four bones, bones allow wrist to move back and fourth as well as side to side

207
Q

describe the different between a female and male pelvis

A

the female pelvis is adapted for pregnancy & childbirth; the true pelvis is wide and shallow in females, narrow & deep in males

208
Q

what is the pelvic outlet, its importance in delivery of the newborn & which measurement is essential for vaginal delivery

A

pelvic outlet is the lower edge of the true pelvis, the diameter of the pelvic outlet is measured as the distance between the two ischial bones, outlet is the passageway through an infant enters the world. ischial bones must be wide enough to allow his head to pass

209
Q

synovial joints

A

free moveable; contains a fluid filled joint capsule; most numerous & versatile ex knee (diarathroses)

210
Q

fibrous joint

A

fixed not move; bound by fibers ex skull, adult skull suture joints (synarthroses)

211
Q

amphiarthroses

A

cartilaginous joints, semi moveable; joined by cartilage ex sy,physis pubis

212
Q

joint capsule

A

a sheet of connective tissue that encloses the joint cavity, encloses the joint cavity; extends from the periosteum of each articulating bone

213
Q

synovial membrane

A

a moist, slippery membrane that lines the inside of the joint capsule; secretes synovial fluid, provides friction free movement & phagocytes to remove debris

214
Q

synovial fluid

A

a slippery, viscous fluid with the consistency of an egg white, lubricates the joint, nourishes the cartilage & contains phagocytes to remove debris

215
Q

gliding joint

A

least mobile of all synovial joints; flat bones sliding over each other; surrounding ligaments limit the amount of movement ex tarsal bones of the ankle. carpal bones of wrist

216
Q

condyloid joint

A

allows flexion & extension as well as side to side movement oval convex surface on one bone fits into the depression on another

217
Q

which two structure are responsible for friction free movement

A

synovial membrane & articular cartilage

218
Q

describe the characteristics of the shoulder joint & why it is considered more mobile than stable

A

shoulder & hip joint; ball shaped head of one bone fits into a cuplike socket of other bone; offers widest range of motion (considered more mobile than stable because can easily dislocate)

219
Q

describe & know anatomical location of the rotator cuff

A

tendons of several surrounding muscles form; holding the head of the humerus in the shallow glenoid cavity

220
Q

define & describe: osteoarthritis

A

wear & tear on the joints; articulate cartilage softens & degenerates

221
Q

define rheumatoid arthritis

A

autoimmune disorder; bodys antibodies attach synovial membranes; leads to degeneration of articular cartilage & thickening of synovial membrane; causing inflammation & destruction of joints

222
Q

define cardiac muscles

A

involuntary, contracts automatically found only in the hearts; consists of short branching fibers that fit together at intercalated disks appears striated

223
Q

define smooth muscle

A

involuntary; contracts automatically found in the digestive tract, blood vessels, bladder, airways & uterus; muscle is nonstriated

224
Q

define skeletal muscle

A

voluntary; attached to bone & causes movement of the body; appears markedly striated when examined with a microscope

225
Q

define endomysium

A

a deliate connective tissue covers each muscle fibers

226
Q

define epimysium

A

a layer of connective tissue that surrounds the muscle as a whole & extends past the muscle as a flat connective tissue binding all the muscle fibers together; this how muscles attach to other muscles

227
Q

define fascicles

A

group of muscle fibers

228
Q

define myofibrils

A

long protein bundles that fill the sarcoplasm & stores glycogen & oxygen

229
Q

define transverse T tubules

A

allows electric impulses travel down deep into the cell

230
Q

sarcomere

A

thick & think myofilaments stack together in a type of latticework to form units; unit of contraction

231
Q

how do muscles attach to one another

A

epimysium

232
Q

what two key components re needed for muscle contraction

A

ATP & calcium (without calcium, movement is not possible

233
Q

prime mover

A

main muscle triggering the movement

234
Q

synergists

A

muscled that assist the prime mover

235
Q

anatagonist

A

Muscle that balance these movements

236
Q

define central nervous system

A

consists of brain and spinal cord

237
Q

define peripheral nervous system

A

consists of vast network of nerves

238
Q

parasympathetic system

A

calming effect; rest & digest

239
Q

sympathetic nervous system

A

arouses the body for action; fight or flight

240
Q

define oligodendrocyte

A

form myelin sheath; speed signal conduction

241
Q

define microglia

A

perform phagocytosis of microogranism & cellular debris

242
Q

define astrocyte

A

form blood brain barrier

243
Q

sensory (afferent) neuron

A

carries signals from nerves to body, detect stimuli

244
Q

interneurons

A

Connect incoming sensory pathways with outgoing motor pathways in the central nervous system; connect pathway

245
Q

motor (efferent) nuerons

A

transmit info from CNS to body, relays messages from brain to muscle or gland cells

246
Q

what role do nuerotransmitters play in impulse conduction/control

A

neurotransmitters determine whether the impulse continues or stopped

247
Q

which specific areas do these nerves innervate; cervical

A

chest, head, neck, shoulders, arms, hands & diaphragms

248
Q

which specific areas do these nerves innervate; thoracic

A

intercostal muscles of the ribcage, abdominal muscles & back muscles

249
Q

which specific areas do these nerves innervate; lumbar

A

lower abdominal wall & part of thighs and legs

250
Q

which specific areas do these nerves innervate; sacral

A

thighs buttocks muscles skin of the legs, feet , anal and genital regions

251
Q

how many pairs of spinal nerves

A

31 pairs

252
Q

what is the connection between the spinal tract & signs and symptoms seen in a stroke patients

A

Motor Tracts (Corticospinal): Damage causes weakness or paralysis on the opposite side of the body.
Sensory Tracts (Spinothalamic & Dorsal Column): Disruption leads to loss of sensation (e.g., pain, touch, proprioception).
Cerebellar Pathways: Stroke here results in coordination and balance issues (ataxia).

253
Q

general understanding of the sacral plexus

A

formed from fibers from nerves L4 L5 & S1 through S4, the sciatic nerve, the largest nerve in the body, arises here and runs down the back of the thigh

254
Q

general understanding of the cervical plexus

A

contains the nerves that supply the muscles and skins of the neck, tops of shoulders & part of the head, the phrenic nerve, which stimulates the diaphragm for breathing is located here

255
Q

what is the function of the arachnoid villi & its role in the homeostasis of the brain

A

CSF is reabsorbed into the venous bloodstream by projection of the arachoid mater into the dural sinus

256
Q

what is the function of hypothalamus

A

controls ANS, contains centers responsible for hunger, thirst & temperature regulation, controls the pituitary gland, involved in multiple emotional responses including dear anger pleasure and aggression

257
Q

what is the function of cerebrum

A

Voluntary movements (motor control).
Sensory processing (touch, vision, hearing, etc.).
Cognitive functions (thinking, memory, reasoning).
Emotions and behavior.
Language and communication.

258
Q

what is the function of the front lobe of the brain

A

central sulcus forms the posterior boundary, governs voluntary movements, memory, emotion, social judgement, decision making, reasoning & aggression, also site for certain aspects of ones personality

259
Q

describe the autonomic pathway; parasympathetic division

A

has a calming effect on body functions; decreases HR, constricts broncial tubes to decrease air flow in lungs, no effects on blood vessels of skeletal muscles , no effect on adrenal medulla, stimulates bladder wall to contract and internal sphnicter to relax for urination

260
Q

what is the function of the parietal lobe

A

concerned with receiving and interpreting bodily sensations (ex touch, temp, pressure and pain) also governs proprioception (the awareness of ones body & body parts in space and in relation to each other

261
Q

describe the autonomic pathways; sympathetic division

A

increases alertness, increases HR, dilates bronchial tubes to increase air flow in the lungs, dilates blood vessels of skeletal muscles to increase blood flow

262
Q

describe the ganglia of the parasympathetic division

A

lie in or near target organs

263
Q

sensory receptor slow pain fibers

A

produce a dull aching pain

264
Q

sensory receptor fast pain fibers

A

sharp localized stabbing type pain

265
Q

define nociceptors

A
266
Q

define spinoretticular tract

A
267
Q

describe impulse pathway and the nerves involved in the sense of taste

A

gustation: taste results when chemicals encounter taste buds

268
Q

describe the process of the sense of smell

A

incoming odor molecules bind to cilia projecting from the ends of olfactory receptors cells which triggers the process of sense of smell

269
Q

Define semicircular canals

A

these structures are crucial for the maintenance of equilibrium and balance

270
Q

define vestibule

A

this structure which marks the entrance to the labyrinths contains organs necessary for sense of balance

271
Q

define cochlea

A

the snail like structure contains the structures for hearing

272
Q

key structures responsible for balance

A

semicircular canals & vestibule

273
Q

define and describe lacrimal punctum

A

this tiny pore at the end of each lacrimal canal drains tears into the lacrimal canals and nasolacrimal duct

274
Q

define and describe conjunctiva

A

secretes thin layer of mucous film to keep eyeball moist

275
Q

define and describe retina

A

thin layer of light sensitive cells

276
Q

define and describe fovea centralis

A

produces the sharpest vision

277
Q

define and describe macula lutea

A

the center point of the retina, seen through an opthalmoscope

278
Q

define and describe aqueous humor

A

fills the anterior cavity

279
Q

define and describe canal of schlemm

A

aqueous humor drains into, which delivers the fluid to surrounding blood vessels

280
Q

define and describe glaucoma

A

aqueous humor accumulates anterior & posterior chambers

281
Q

define and describe refraction

A

Light rays entering the eye must be bent so they focus precisely on the retina. Bending of light rays

282
Q

define and describe convergence

A

lines up the visual axis of each eye toward the object so that the light rays fall on the corresponding spots on each retina.

283
Q

define and describe accommodation

A

Although the cornea refracts most of the light rays entering the eye, the lens fine-tunes the rays for sharper focus. Specifically, the curvature of the lens changes to allow the eye to focus on a near object,

284
Q

which muscle surrounds the spermatic cord & its testis (it contracts in cold weather)

A

cremaster muscle

285
Q

spermatogenesis begins

A

seminiferous tubules

286
Q

interstitial cells that produce testosterone are also known as

A

leydig cells

287
Q

where does sperm mature

A

epididymis

288
Q

pathway to sperm

A

seminiferous tubules→ Rete testis→ Efferent ductules→Epididymis→Vas deferens→Pelvic cavity→Seminle vesicle→ Ejaculatory duct→Urethra

289
Q

how long does mature sperm remain fertile before they are ejaculated

A

40-60 days

290
Q

know the term for the two large cylinders of erectile tissues that fill the shaft of the penis

A

corpus carvenousa

291
Q

know which hormones promote the enlargement of the testes

A

FSH & LH

292
Q

what is the purpose of the enzymes contained in the acrosome

A

help sperm penetrate the egg during fertilization

293
Q

2 qualities of semen that aids in fertilizations

A

stickiness & alkalinity

294
Q

primary reproductive organs in females

A

ovaries

295
Q

what does the ovary contain

A

1000s of immature eggs/ oocytes

296
Q

usual site of fertilization

A

ampulla

297
Q

which layer of the uterus does the embryo attach to

A

endometrium

298
Q

which structures of the female breast secrete milk during laction

A

acini

299
Q

know the hormone that stimulates the development of a follicle in women

A

FSH

300
Q

persistent high levels of estrogen & progesterone would cause what to occur

A

lack of follicular development

301
Q

which hormone is secreted by a developing follicle & what effects occur

A

secrete estrogen which stimulates the thickening of the endometrium in the menstrual cycle, small amounts of progesterone

302
Q

if a female pt had a lab results in high levels of LH, what would you suspect

A

ovulation

303
Q

how many chromosomes a zygote has

A

46 chromosomes

304
Q

how long does gestation last

A

280 days/ 40 wks

305
Q

which stage of pregnancy most organs are developed

A

second trimester

306
Q

know the term for the blackberry-like cluster of cells that enter the uterine cavity 3 to 4 days after ovulation

A

morula

307
Q

When does implantation occur (approximately)

A

6 days after ovulation

308
Q

know which portion of the blastocyst fuses with the endometrium

A

thromphoblast

309
Q

define hCG & what does it do?

A

Hormone secreting estrogen & progesterone; progesterone stimulates endometrium growth & prevents menustation

310
Q

Describe the amnion and what a fetus is able to do

A

Transparent sac that completely envelopes the embryo filled with amniotic fluid: fetus can “breathe” fluid & swallow

311
Q

The allantois serves as the foundation for

A

developing umbilical cord

312
Q

The chorion forms the

A

Fetal side of the placenta

313
Q

The umbilical cord contains

A

2 umbilical arteries , 1 umbilical vein

314
Q

Blood returns to the fetus from the placenta via

A

umbilical cord vein

315
Q

Describe the role served by the ductus venosus

A

shunts blood around the liver

316
Q

What symptoms would you expect to see if the ductus arteriosus fails to close at birth? why?

A

respiratory difficulty, blood will enter babys lungs

317
Q

know when the fetal heart begins to beat

A

day 22

318
Q

quickening or fetal movement can usually be felt when

A

20 wks

319
Q

the fetal respiratory system although immature, is capable of gas exchange at how many weeks

A

wk 28

320
Q

the onset of labor is thought to result from several factors such as

A

decline of progesterone
release of oxytocin
uterine stretching

321
Q

stage 1 of labor ends when

A

The cervix is fully dialated

322
Q

stage 2 of labor ends when

A

head emerges, mucus is cleared from baby mouth/nose to facilitate breathing. Umbilical cord clamped & cut

323
Q

when hormone cause the lobules in the breast to contract, forcing milk into the ductus

A

oxytocin

324
Q

Apgar score rating

A

7-10 normal
4-6 fairly low
3 & below critically low

325
Q

Difference between homozygous & heterozygous

A

Homozygous (alleles same)
Heterozygous (Alleles different)

326
Q

what is a genome

A

A complete set of genetic information for one person carried on the 23 pairs of chromosomes

327
Q

chromosomes ingerited from mother & father, but do not play a role in determination of gender

A

autosomes

328
Q

Alleles that are equally dominant

A

codominant

329
Q

Know which disorder causes a syndromes who characteristics include a webbed neck & short stature

A

turners syndrome

330
Q

Klinefelter syndrome results from

A

nondysfunction of sex chromosomes

331
Q

Know what happens to children who inherit one copt of allele in autosomal recessive disorder like do they manifest symptoms of the disorder, are they carriers of the disorder or are they unaffected

A

they are carriers of the disorder

332
Q

describe multifactorial disorders

A

disorder resulting from many contributing factors including genetic & environment

333
Q

majority of the bodys water resides

A

in the cells

334
Q

what occurs in the body when the volume of total body water declines

A

BP drops, sodium concentration increases, osmolarity increases

335
Q

explain ADH & its effects on the body

A

ADH prompts kidneys to reabsorb more water & produce less urine

336
Q

dehyrdration

A

body eliminated more water than sodium

337
Q

fluid overload

A

water intoxication

338
Q

what causes edema

A

electrolyte imbalances, increased capillary pressure, decrease concentration of plasma proteins

339
Q

electrolytes & their role

A

sodium; determine the volume of total body water; influences water distributuion

340
Q

pH of blood

A

7.35-7.45

341
Q

buffer system respiratory

A

faster

342
Q

renal buffer system

A

slowest, takes up to 24hrs, powerful but slow

343
Q

hyperkalemia

A

developed suddenly crush injury, motor vehicle accident

344
Q

hypokalemia

A

chronic diahrrea , prolonged use of potassium waste diuretics

345
Q

explain the enteric nervous system

A

has own nervous system, part of cns

346
Q

mesenetries and their purpose

A

prevent friction and localize infection

347
Q

composition & function of saliva

A

consistency mostly of water, breaks down starch and begins digestion

348
Q

what part of tooth can not regenerate

A

enamel

349
Q

passage way for chyme as it leaves the stomach

A

between stomach and duodenum

350
Q

majority of digestion process and absorption of nutrients occur

A

small intestine

351
Q

which liver structure receives oxygen poor, nutrient rich blood

A

the portal vein

352
Q

which liver structure blood filters through, removes nutrients, toxins and hormones

A

sinusoids

353
Q

passage way of bile as it leaves the liver

A

leaves liver by hepatic ducts then forms into common hepatic duct which becomes the common bile duct

354
Q

function of the gallbladder

A

stores & concentrates bile

355
Q

know the hormone Cholecystokin & function

A

causes gallbladder to contract, forcing bile into the bile duct

356
Q

duodenum

A

digestion takes place in

357
Q

jejunum

A

increases surface area, greater absorption

358
Q

function of the large intestine

A

absorbs large amounts of water from the residue before passing the resulting waste out of the body

359
Q

which does not product digestive enzymes

A

liver

360
Q

what enzyme digests carbohydrates

A

amylase, sucrase and lactase

361
Q

where is protein digested

A

stomach and small intestine

362
Q

where is most of the water you drink absorbed

A

large intestine

363
Q

define calorie

A

energy that the body uses as fuel

364
Q

the cells in the duodenum and jejunum secretes which hormone

A

cck , cholecystokinin

365
Q

micronutrient

A

vitamins and minerals

366
Q

macronutrient

A

carbohydrates, lipids, proteins and water

367
Q

primary energy resource in the body is

A

carbohydrates

368
Q

fat soluble vitamins

A

ADEK

369
Q

true statement about lipids

A

act as a resevior of excess energy, enables absorption and insulate the body

370
Q

can essential fatty acids be synthesized by the body

A

no they can not be synthesized

371
Q

what is a source of an unsaturated fat

A

nuts

372
Q

describe how a protein is digested

A

once absorbed, recombines to create new ones

373
Q

what is a challenge that a person on a vegan diet may face

A

protein

374
Q

which vitamin would be beneficial for a patient with a wound on their leg

A

vitamin A

375
Q

primary goal of glucose catabolism

A

generates ATP

376
Q

which process requires the most energy

A

aerobic respiration

377
Q

describe glycolysis

A

part of carbohydrate metabolism, part of glycocanbilism

378
Q

the breakdown of fat produces

A

more than twice as much energy as the breakdown of carbohydrates

379
Q

what must occur before proteins can be used as fuel

A

amino acids must be altered in the liver

380
Q

what toxic by product does protein catabolism produce

A

ammonia

381
Q

negative nitrogen balance

A

regarding a patient with a wasting illness

382
Q

what occurs when a body temp rises too high

A

hypothalamos signals blood vesels to dialate

383
Q

how lymph moves

A

lymphatic system has no pump, fluid moves slowly & passively, aid & by rhythmic contractions of the lymphatic vessels themselves, one way valves prevent backflow

384
Q

peyer patches

A

small masses of lymphatic tissue, monitor bacterial populations within the intestine and help prevent the growth of harmful bateria

385
Q

function of lymphatic system

A

maintence of fluid balance, absorption of fats and immunity

386
Q

thymus

A

t lymphocytes travel from red bone marrow to the outer cortex of the thymus t lymphocytes migrate to the inner medulla, they get “trained” to distinguish between the cell of host body and foreign cells

387
Q

lymph nodes & cancers

A

cancer often spreads through lymphatic system, cancel cells break free of original tumor then enter lymphatic vessels and travel to nearest lymph nodes

388
Q

spleen functions

A

immunity, destruction of old RBCs, blood storage, hematopoeisis, largest lymphatic organ (LUQ in abdomen)

389
Q

1st line of defense

A

external barriers keep pathogens at bay, skin & mucous membranes

390
Q

2nd line of defense

A

nonspecific immunity, immunity at birth

391
Q

3rd line of defense

A

specific immunity, body learns and remembers how to fight specific pathogens

392
Q

natural active immunity

A

body produces antibodies after being exposed

393
Q

artificial active imunity

A

immunity after vax

394
Q

natural passive immunity

A

when fetus gets antibodies from mom through placenta

395
Q

external barriers

A

mucus, tears & saliva contain a enzyme lysozyme which destroys bacteria

396
Q

complement system

A

helps or complements the ability of antibodies & phagocytic cells to clear pathogens from an organism

397
Q

inflammation

A

this stimulates the bodys defense system to being fightin the infection while instigating measures to contain the pathogen (4 signs redness, swelling, heat & pain)

398
Q

artificial passive immunity

A

when a person receivees antibodies from another person or animal thru injection

399
Q

5 class of antibodies

A

IgA, IgD, IgE (allergic reactions), IgG (primary antibody of secondary immune response, IgM

400
Q

when a transplant is done, the recipients body may recognize it as

A

foreign & set off an immune response called tissue rejection reaction

401
Q

helper t cells

A

plays a supportive role in cellular immunity

402
Q

cellular immunity

A

destroys pathogens inside the cell

403
Q

humoral immunity

A

focuses on the pathogens outside the cells

404
Q

immediate allergic reaction

A

occurs within seconds

405
Q

fever

A

is beneficial, elevated body temp helps fight infection,

406
Q

lower respiratory tract

A

structures inside the thoracic cavity including trachea, bronchi and lungs

407
Q

Upper respiratory tract

A

structures outside of the thoracic cavity

408
Q

nasal cavity

A

nasal passages filters and warms the air

409
Q

septum, palate and cilia

A

septum: seperates the cavity into 2
palate: bony structure that separates the oral and nasal cavity
cilia: filters out dust and large foreign particles

410
Q

Difference between R&L bronchi

A

at the carina, trachea branches into R&L bronchi, supported by c shaped rings

411
Q

which bronchi is wider and more verticle

A

right bronchi is slightly wider and more verticle than L making it more likely to aspirate food

412
Q

3 parts of pharynx

A

nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx

413
Q

pleural cavity

A

space between visceral & parietal pleurae, cavity is only a potential space, 2 membranes are normally seperated by a film of slippery pleural fluid

414
Q

alveoli

A

where gas exchange occurs, deoxygenated blood flows into the aveoli through pulmonary arterioles & oxygenated blood leaves alveoli via pulmonary venules

415
Q

larynx functions `

A

prevents foods & liquids from entering trachea, acts as an air passageway between pharynx & trachea & finally produces sounds

416
Q

respiratory membrane functions

A

oxygens crosses the respiratory membrane/aveolar epithelium, capillary endothelium, shared basement endothelium from the aveoli into RBSc in nearby capillaries RBCS absorb oxygen, they release co2

417
Q

diaphragm: inspiration

A

inspiration; diaphragm contacts, flattens and drops, pressing the abdominal organs downward and enlarging the thoracic cavity

418
Q

diaphragm expiration

A

diaphragm relaxes bulging upward & presses against the base of the lungs reducing the site of the thoracic cavity

419
Q

use of accesssory muscles

A

used when someone is having difficulty breathing, making exhaling an exhausting process, can be a sign of respiratory distress if using muscles

420
Q

what is located in the medulla

A

inspiratory & expiratory systems

421
Q

factors influencing breathing

A

oxygen
hydrogen ions
stretch
pain & emotion
irritants

422
Q

pressure & airflow

A

atmospheric pressure drives respiration, when pressure within lungs drops LOWER than atmospheric pressure, air flows IN

when pressure within the lungs RISES ABOVE atmospheric pressure, air flows OUT

423
Q

Gas exchange

A

exchange depends on differences in pressure, goes diffused from high to low pressure until pressure due equalizes

424
Q

oxygen transport

A

most o2 forms oxyhemoglobin in the lungs, oxyhemoglobin travels to the cells

425
Q

pneumothorax

A

traumatic injury( stabbing, gunshot, mva) to chest can cause air to rush into the lungs= lung collapse, air can also enter pleural space when alveoli collapse

426
Q

blood vs urine by kidneys

A

blood is filtered by the kidneys, urine is a byproduct

427
Q

pressure gradient

A

the existance of a pressure gradient drives glomerular formation

428
Q

nephron

A

filtration unti of kidney

429
Q

function of peritubular capillaries

A

pick up water & solutes reabsorbed by the renal tubules

430
Q

intense physical exercise

A

can cause protein in urine bc hormones released during temporarily alter permeability of the filtration membrane

431
Q

renal tubule consists of

A

1 proximal convulated tube
2 loop of henle
2.25 descending limb
2.75 ascending limb
3 distal convulated tubule
4 collecting duct

432
Q

water, electrolytes & nutrients

A

are reabsorbed in the proximal convulated tubules by active & passive transport

433
Q

aldosterone

A

causes the distal convulated tube to retain sodium, which leads to increased retention of water BP & blood volume increases

434
Q

High BP

A

constantly causes arteries around the kidneys to marrow, weaken or hardened, reducing blood flow to kidneys. this impairs the ability to filter wastes & excess fluids, leading to damage failure of kidneys

435
Q

glucose

A

is not a normal find in urine

436
Q

atrial natiuretic peptide (ANP)

A

excretes NaCL & H2O which decreases blood volume & BP

437
Q

Urinary system consists of

A

kidneys, ureters, urethra and urinary bladder

438
Q

the micturition center

A

is located in the pons

439
Q

urine formation

A

glomerular filtration
tubular reabsorption
tubular secretion

440
Q

tubular reabsorption and secretion

A

1 sodium moves out, waste migrates in
2 water diffused out
3 NaCl pumped out
4 water & salt reabsorbed
5 water reabsorbed; filtrate concentrated

441
Q

urine & water

A

urine is 95% water, 5% dissolved substances

442
Q

parathyroid hormones

A

reabsorbs calcium and excretes phosphate & has no effect on BP & blood volume

443
Q

ADH, antidiueretic hormone

A

reabsorbs water & increases BP & blood volume

444
Q

Urination

A

1 stretch receptors sends impulses to spinal cord
2 spinal cord sends motor impulses to bladder
3 pons can override impulses
4 the brain sends signals to contract or relax spinctors

445
Q

ureteres

A

connect kidneys to bladder

446
Q

calculi

A

kidney renal stones

447
Q

blood vessels

A

enter & leave through the hilum

448
Q

renal vein

A

empties into the inferior vena cava

449
Q

renal arteries

A

brings blood to kidney

450
Q

blood formation

A

Erythropoietin (EPO) hormone produced by the
Kidneys when oxygen levels are low. Stimulates red blood cell production in red bone marrow

450
Q
A
451
Q

hemopoiesis

A

production of blood, tissues that produce blood
cells cared hemopoietic tissue, 2 types: red bone marrow & lymphatic tissues

452
Q

red bone marrow

A

found in ends of long bones + flat irregular bones ; these produce all types of blood cells

453
Q

lympathic tissue

A

tissue found in spleen, lymph nodes + thymus glands. supplement blood cels production

454
Q

stem cells, RBC

A

proerthrocyte to reticulocyte to erythroctye

455
Q

stem cells; granulocytes

A

myleoblast to progranulocyte to basophil, eosinophil & neutrophils to granulocytes

456
Q

stem cells to agranulocytes

A

lymphoblast/monoblast to lymphocyte/monocyte to agranulocytes

457
Q

granulocytes & angranulocytes

A

both wbc

458
Q

stem cells; platelets

A

megakaryoblast to megakaryocyte to thrombocyte to platlets

459
Q

body at work

A

oxygen carrying component of hemoglobin contains iron, an adequate supply for dietary iron is crucial for hemoglobin synthesis bc the blood loss

460
Q

life cycle of RBCs

A

circulate 120 days before they die , break up
1- o2 levels decreased (stimulus for rbc formation)
2 kidneys secrete EPO
3 bone marrow create RBC
4 reticulocyte are released; mature into RBC
5 o2 levels increase, EPO & RBC production decrease

461
Q

coronary circulation

A

this system ensures that the heart muscles gets oxygen- rich blood to fxn properly. the heart receives its own supply of blood through the coronary arteries

462
Q

right coronary artery

A

supplies blood to the right atrium, right ventricle & part of the left ventricles, supports heart conduction sx

463
Q

left coronary artery branches into 2

A

left anterior descending: supplies front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of septum
circumflex artery: supplies the left atrium & side back of left ventricles

464
Q

cardiac conduction pathway

A

sa node
av node
bundle of HIS
bundle branches
purkinje fibers

465
Q

factors affecting heart rate

A

nervous sx (para and sympathetic)
hormones
fitness levels
temperature

466
Q

angina

A

chest pain from reduced blood flow to heart

467
Q

myocardial infarction

A

blockage of blood flow to heart muscle and causing tissue death

468
Q

ejection fraction

A

percentage of blood pumped out the ventricles with each beat, normal range 55
%- 70%

469
Q

blood type type A

A

anti b antibodies

469
Q
A
470
Q

blood type b

A

b antigens, anti a antibodies

471
Q

type AB

A

A&B antigens, no antibodies (universal reciptors)

472
Q

type o

A

no antigens; anti a & anti b antibodies

473
Q

Rh group

A

Rh + has Rh antigens
Rh- lacks the Rh antigen; Rh- individuals can develop anti- Rh antibodies if exposed to Rh+ blood

474
Q

heart structures & wall layers- endocardium

A

innermost layer, smooth layer preventing blood clotting

475
Q

heart structures & wall layers- myocardium

A

middle layer, made of cardiac muscle (thickest layer) does pumping

476
Q

heart structures & wall layers- epicardium

A

outer most layer, covers heart surface

477
Q

heart structures & wall layers- pericardium

A

sac surrounding the heart

478
Q

blood flow through the heart

A

right atrium to the tricuspid valve to the right ventricle through the pulmonary valve to the lungs, blood then returns to left atrium via pulmonary veins into left ventricle through mitral valve to the aorta to the body

479
Q

pulmonary veins

A

oxygenated blood to the left atrium

480
Q

pulmonary arteries

A

deoxygenated blood to the lungs

481
Q

cardiac output

A

amount of blood pumped by heart per minute (stroke volume x heart rate)

482
Q

starlings law

A

the more the heart muscle is stretched due to increased blood volume, the stronger it contracts, increasing stroke volume

483
Q

heart valves

A

tricuspid, pulmonary, mitral, aortic valves prevent backflow, one way blood flow during cardiac cycle

484
Q

cardiac cycle

A

one complete heart beat; diastolic : heart relaxes, chambers fill with blood
systole : heart contracts, pumping blood out

485
Q

electrocardiogram

A

test that measures the hearts electrical activity, showing the sequence of atrial & ventricular contractions

486
Q

stroke volume

A

ejection fraction is the percentage of blood pumped out of the ventricles with each beat, normal range 55-70%

487
Q

vascular system

A

the network of blood vessels (arteries, veins, capillaries) that transport blood throughout the body

488
Q
A

A&P (2 decks)

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