Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Nursing Pre-reqs > A&P crash course > Flashcards

A&P crash course Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Pharmacology flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) flashcards
1
Q

anatomical position

A

body is erect and facing forward, with arms at the sides, palms facing forward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

sagittal plane

A

vertical. Divides a body or organ left and right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

parasagittal plane

A

plane parallel to the sagittal plane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

coronal plane

A

vertical. Divides a body or organ front and back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

transverse plane

A

divides the body top to bottom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

axial parts

A

head, neck and body (trunk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

appendicular parts

A

arms and legs, connected to the axial parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

anterior (or ventral)

A

front of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

posterior (or dorsal)

A

back of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

superior (or cranial)

A

towards the top

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

inferior (or caudial)

A

towards the bottom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

medial

A

structures toward the midline (of the body)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

lateral

A

structures further away from the midline (of the body)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

proximal

A

on limbs, towards the trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

distal

A

on limbs, further from the trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

4 basic tissues

A

nervous, muscle, epithelial, connective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what does the nervous tissue do

A

control and communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what does the muscle tissue do

A

movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what does the epithelial tissue do

A

cover and protect the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what does the connective tissue do

A

provide support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

tissue

A

groups of similar cells that come together to perform a common function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

father of microbiology

A

Anton Van Leeuwenhoek

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

parts of the neuron

A

cell body (or soma), dendrites, axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

neuron “pit crew”

A

glial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

types of muscle tissue

A

skeletal, cardiac, smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

skeletal muscle tissue properties. (what does it do. shape of cell. voluntary/involuntary)

A

pulls on bones and skin to move you. long multinucleate parallel cells, striations. voluntary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

cardiac muscle tissue properties (description. voluntary/involuntary)

A

striated, uni-nucleate, intercalated discs. involuntary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

smooth tissue properties (location, description, voluntary/involuntary)

A

lines the insides of blood vessels and hollow organs. lacks striations. short and tapered. involuntary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is your proper epithelium?

A

covers and lines your outer and inner body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is your glandular epithelium?

A

forms your glands, and secretes hormones and other substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

where do your epithelial tissues get blood?

A

they are avascular. they receive blood from the supporting connective tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

basic (3) shapes of epithelial cells

A

squamous, cuboidal, columnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

properties of squamous cells (description, function)

A

flat, like scales. flat nucleus. fast absorption and diffusion, making thin membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

properties of cuboidal cells (description, function)

A

tall as they are wide. absorb nutrients, produce secretions (like sweat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

properties of columnar cells (description, function)

A

tall and thick, cushion underlying tissues, elliptical nucleus.produce secretions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

basic (3) layering types of epithelial cells

A

simple, stratified, pseudostratified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how do you describe (i.e. verbally) epithelial tissues?

A

first by naming it’s number of layers, then the shape of the cells. (i.e. simple squamous epithelium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

epithelial cell are polar. What are the 2 sides called

A

apical, basal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the apical side of an epithelial cell

A

exposed to outside (or internal cavity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the basal side of an epithelial cell

A

tightly attached to basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the basement membrane

A

thin layer of mostly collagen fibers that helps hold the epithelial tissue and helps hold it to the connective tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

are epithelial cells permeable?

A

they are selectively permeable. they allow some level of absorption, filtration, and excretion of substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what secretes hormones right into your bloodstream or nearby cells

A

endocrine gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what secrete their juices into tubes or ducts that lead to the “outside” of the body

A

exocrine gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

(4) types of connective tissues

A

proper, cartilage, bone, blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

6 things connective tissue do for you

A 
binding and supporting
protecting
insulating
storing reserve fluid and energy
transporting substances within the body
movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

where do connective tissue cells originate?

A

mesenchyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

properties of mesenchyme (description, type)

A

loose and fluid type epithelial tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

(3) overarching properties of connective tissue

A

originate in mesenchyme
different degrees of vascularity
mostly composed of nonliving material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is the nonliving material of connective tissue called

A

extracellular matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

(2) components of the extracellular matrix

A

ground substance and fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

properties of ground substance (description, function, what is it made of)

A

watery, rubbery, unstructured material that fills in the spaces in-between cells. protects cells from surroundings. mostly starch, protein, and water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

name the major protein component of ground substance

A

proteoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what are the starchy strand that sprouts from proteoglycans

A

glycosaminoglycans (GAG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

(3) types of fibers in the extracellular matrix

A

collagen, elastic, reticular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

properties of collagen fibers (attribute, popularity)

A

strongest, most abundant (stronger than steel)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

properties of elastic fibers (description, attribute, shape)

A

long and thin, can stretch and coil like rubber bands, form branching frameworks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

properties of reticular fibers (description, shape and function)

A

short, finer collagen fibers, extra coating of protein, form sponge-like protective networks for your organs (like fuzzy nets)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

two phases of connective tissue cells

A

immature and mature (ending in -blast and -cyte, respectively)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

properties of blast cells (meaning, function)

A

means forming. stem cells, still in the process of replicating. secrets the ground substances and fibers that forms its unique, specialized matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

properties of of cyte cells (function)

A

maintain the health of the matrix created by the blasts. can revert to blast if needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

(3) types of connective tissue cells

A

blast, cyte and immune cells (macrophages, leukocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

types of proper connective tissues

A

loose and dense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

properties of loose connective tissue (made up of, description)

A

fewer fibers, more cells and ground substance. airy dispersal of fibers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

(3) types of loose connective tissue

A

areolar, adipose, and reticular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

properties of loose areolar connective tissue (popularity, what type of fibers and how, few/many fibroblasts, is mostly ____)

A

most common loose connective tissue. loose, random arrangement of (collagen and elastin) fibers, few fibroblast cells, mostly empty space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

properties of loose adipose connective tissue (is mostly _____ that _____)

A

mostly cells (adipocytes) that store lipids and insulate the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

properties of loose reticular connective tissue (similar to _____ but _____, function)

A

similar to areolar, but with a reticular fibers – not collagen and elastin. holds your blood in place inside organs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

(3) types of dense connective tissue

A

regular, irregular, elastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

properties of dense regular connective tissue (made up of, description, function)

A

full of tight bundles of collagen all running parallel. provide resistance to tension in one direction (as in a tendon or ligament)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

properties of dense irregular connective tissue (made up of, description, function)

A

full of thicker fibers, arranged erratically. resists tension in many directions (as in under your skin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

properties of dense elastic connective tissue (description, example location)

A

more elastic than rigid, like in between vertebrae.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

properties of cartilage (made up of, attribute)

A

comprised of collogan and elastin. stands against tension and compression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

(3) types of cartilage

A

hyaline, elastic, fibro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

properties of hyaline cartilage (popularity, description, attribute, what is in the ground substance)

A

most common type. appears glassy, provides pliable support, like in your nose. ground substance is rich with proteoglycans, come collagen fibers (which are hard to see)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

properties of elastic cartilage (similar to ____ but ____, attributes)

A

similar to hyaline, but with more elastic fibers (that you can see more clearly). has strength and stretchability like in your ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

properties of fibrocartilage (made up of, function)

A

has thick fibers of collagen. provides shock absorption and withstands pressure, like in your knees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

(2) types of bone tissue

A

spongy and compact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

properties of spongy bone tissue (location, attribute, function)

A

found in heads of long bones and inner layers of flat bones. strong but porous, stores marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

properties of compact bone tissue (attribute, function)

A

dense, stores calcium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

properties of blood (as a connective tissue) (what is it’s ground substance, what does that have/do, function)

A

ground substance is plasma (which has protein fibers floating in it, used for clotting), transports oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

name and function of red blood cell

A

erythrocyte. carries oxygen and co2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

name and function of white blood cells

A

leukocyte. protect against disease and foreign invaders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what is and what is the function of platelets

A

small cell fragments needed for clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

(8) functions of the integumentary system

A

protection from the outside, retains fluids, eliminates waste, regulates temperature, blood storage, sensation, vitamin D synthesis, part of immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

(5) parts of the integumentary system

A

skin, hair, nails, sweat/oil glands, and nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

(5) function of the skin

A

protects against infections and extreme temperatures, maintains fluid balance, synthesizes vitamin d, senses things

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

(3) layers of the skin

A

epidermis, dermis, subcutis or hypodermis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

the epidermis is made up of __(describe tissue)__, mostly __(this cell)___

A

stratified squamous epithelial tissue, mostly keratinocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

properties of the dermis (function, made up of, what “extra bits” does it have)

A

most of the “work” gets done here (sweating, blood circulation, feeling etc). has many collagen and elastin fibers (that keeps your skin strong and elastic), full of capillaries and blood vessels and nerve fibers. contains hair follicles and oil/sweat glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

properties of subcutis/hypodermis. (made up of, [4] functions)

A

mostly comprised of adipose tissue. provides insulation, energy storage, shock absorption, and helps anchor the skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

layers of the epidermis (latin please)

A

stratum corneum, stratum lucidum (thick skin only), stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

(4) types of epidermal cells

A

keratinocytes, melanocytes, langerhans/dermal cells, and merkel cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

properties of keratinocytes (shape, makes, life cycle)

A

squamous cell, the building block of the tough, fibrous protein keratin. are dying and being replaced constantly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

properties of melanocyte (location, _____ shape, function)

A

in skin. spider-like shape, synthesizes melanin. has two forms that synthesize different colors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

properties of langerhans cells (location, _____ shape/description, function)

A

in skin. star-shaped with long skinny tendrils that weave around keratinocytes ingests unwanted invaders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

properties of merkel cells (location, function)

A

found in the basal epidermal layer. combine with nerve endings to create a sensory receptor for touch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

properties of the stratum corneum (latin for, description)

A

horny layer. outermost and roughest. made up of 20-30 sheets of dead keratinocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

properties of the stratum lucidum (latin for, made up of, bonus points)

A

clear layer. two or three layers of clear, flat, dead keratinocytes. only found in thick skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

properties of the stratum granulosum (latin for, made up of)

A

granular layer. contains living keratinocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

properties of the stratum spinosum (latin for, description)

A

spiny layer. looks spiky when dried out on slides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

properties of the stratum basale (latin for, description/location, made up of, what happens here, what else does it do)

A

basal layer. deepest and thinnest epidermal layer. contains a single layer of columnar cells, much new cell production occurs here. connects the epidermis to the dermis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

(2) layers of the dermis

A

papillary layer, reticular layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

properties of the papillary layer of the dermis (made up of ___ with ____, bonus function in thick skin)

A

thin sheet of areolar connective tissue with peg-like projections called dermal. in thick skin forms friction ridges (fingerprints)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

properties of the reticular layer of dermis (what %, made up of, what’s there? bonus points)

A

makes up 80% of the dermis. dense, irregular connective tissue. all the things are there (blood vessels, capillaries, nerves, hair follicles, etc). tattoos live here.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what are the peg-like projections in the papillary dermal layer called

A

papillae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

what receives stimuli from the outside environment

A

cutaneous sensory receptors, or corpuscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

what do corpuscles do? where are they?

A

register all of the different sensations associated with touch. your dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

what senses “touch”?

A

tactile corpuscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

what senses “pressure”?

A

lamellar corpuscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

what percent of your blood volume is retained in your skin at any given time?

A

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

(2) types of perspiration

A

insensible and sensible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

what is blue skin called? what might be the causes? why?

A

cyanosis. heart failure, poor circulation, severe respiratory issues. blood depleted of oxygen is bluish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

what is yellow skin called? what might be the causes? why?

A

jaundice. liver disorder. bile starts accumulating in the blood stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

what is red skin called? what might be the causes? why/

A

erythema. fever, inflammation, or allergy. blood vessels expanded and allow more blood to flow to the surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

how do we get vitamin d?

A

your skin cells contain a molecule converts to vitamin d when it comes into contact with UV light. it goes to liver and kidneys via the bloodstream, where it becomes activated D (or calcitriol) and is then circulated to your bones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

what are your (4) skin appendages

A

hair, nails, sweat glands, sebaceous glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

the outermost layer of your hair and nails is called your_____ and shaped like ____ ____

A

cuticle, roof shingles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

two main regions of your hair

A

the shaft and the root

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

what are the properties of the shaft of a hair?

A

the keratinization is complete, outside the follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

what are the properties of the root of a hair?

A

the keratinization is still happening, inside the follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

what’s another word for sweat gland? how many do you have? what types are there?

A

sudoriferous gland. three million. eccrine and apocrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

properties of eccrine glands (popularity, location, description)

A

more abundant. in your palms, forehead foot soles. simple coiled tubes that start in the dermis and extend through a duct, and open into a pore.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

properties of apocrine gland (popularity, location, what does is secrete?)

A

only about 2000. empty into hair follicles around armpits and groin. secrete sweat with fats and proteins in it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

what secrets milk?

A

mammary glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

what secrets earwax?

A

ceruminous glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

what’s another word for oil gland? what are it’s properties (location, size, function)?

A

sebaceous gland. found everywhere but the thick skin. smaller on your limbs but bigger on your face, neck and upper chest. secrets sebum into hair follicles where it then travels to the surface of your skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

(3) principle functions of the nervous system

A

sensory input, integration, and motor output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

(2) main parts of the nervous system

A

central and peripheral

130
Q

what is your central nervous system? what is it responsible for?

A

main control center–brain and spinal cord. Integrating sensory information from the PNS, and coordinating both conscious and unconscious activity

131
Q

what is your peripheral nervous system

A

all the nerves that branch off from the brain and spine, that allows your central nervous system to communicate with the rest of your body, and your brain to be in touch with the the physical environment

132
Q

(2) basic divisions of the peripheral nervous system

A

sensory division, and motor division

133
Q

properties of sensory division (of pns) (attribute, function, shape)

A

afferent (picks up sensory stimuli). transmits impulses from sensory receptor towards CNS. mostly unipolar.

134
Q

properties of motor division (of pns) (attribute, shape)

A

efferent (sends directions from your brain to muscles and glands) mostly multipolar.

135
Q

the motor division (of the pns) can be divided into…(2)

A

the somatic and autonomic nervous systems

136
Q

properties of the somatic nervous system (voluntary/involuntary, rules your___)

A

voluntary. rules your skeletal muscle movement

137
Q

properties of the autonomic nervous system (voluntary/involuntary, rules your ____)

A

involuntary. heart, lungs, stomach, etc

138
Q

the autonomic nervous system can be divided into…(2)

A

the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

139
Q

properties of the sympathetic nervous system (function)

A

prepares the body for intense physical activity (fight or flight)

140
Q

properties of the parasympathetic nervous system (function)

A

relaxes the body and inhibits or slows many high energy functions (rest and digest)

141
Q

(2) types of neural tissue cells

A

neurons and neuroglia/glial cells

142
Q

properties of glial cells (function, popularity)

A

provide support, nutrition, insulation and help with signal transmission. outnumber neurons 10 to 1

143
Q

(4) types of glial cells in the central nervous system

A

astrocyte, microglial cells, ependymal cells, oligodendrocytes

144
Q

properties of astrocytes (function, popularity)

A

CNS support, regulate ions, exchanges materials between neurons and capillaries. most abundant and versatile glial cell

145
Q

properties of microglial cells (description, function)

A

thorny looking, CNS immune defense against invading microorganisms

146
Q

properties of ependymal cells (location, function)

A

CNS line cavities in the brain and spinal cord. create, secrete and circulate cerebrospinal fluid.

147
Q

properties of oligodendrocytes (function)

A

CNS wrap and insulate, form the myelin sheath

148
Q

what is the name of the insulation glial cells form on neurons

A

myelin sheath

149
Q

(2) types of glial cells in the peripheral nervous system

A

satellite cells and schwann cells

150
Q

properties of satellite cells (function)

A

PNS similar to astrocytes, surround neuron cell bodies

151
Q

properties of schwann cells (function)

A

PNS similar to oligodendrocytes, insulate, help for the myelin sheath

152
Q

what percent of your calories you take in are consumed by brain activity?

A

~25%

!

153
Q

what is a “process” in this (A&P) context?

A

a projecting part of an organic structure

154
Q

what (3) shapes do neurons come in?

A

multipolar, bipolar, and unipolar

155
Q

properties of multipolar neurons (popularity, shape)

A

99% of neurons. have three or more processes, including one axon and many dendrites

156
Q

properties of bipolar neurons (popularity, shape)

A

pretty rare and specialized, for example in your retina. have two processes, and axon and a single dendrite, extending from opposite sides of the soma.

157
Q

properties of unipolar neurons (shape, location)

A

have just one process. mostly found in the sensory receptors

158
Q

what are the most abundant neurons? what do they do?

A

interneurons (or association neurons). transmit impulses between sensory and motor neurons. mostly multipolar

159
Q

what is the action potential

A

the change in electrical potential associated with the passage of an impulse along the membrane of a muscle or nerve cell

160
Q

when a neuron is at rest, the inside of the neuron is _____ relative to the outside

A

negative

which means it’s polarized

161
Q

define voltage. what do we call it in this context?

A

the measure of potential energy generated by separate charges. “Membrane potential”

162
Q

define current

A

the flow of electricity from one point to another. current = voltage / resistance

163
Q

what is the resting membrane potential in mV

A

-70 mV

164
Q

what is the sodium-potasium pump responsible for?

A

maintaining the large excess of Na+ outside the cell and the large excess of K+ ions on the inside.
It pushes these ions “up hill”, against the concentration gradient.

165
Q

what is an ion channel

A

a large protein that can provide passage across a cell membrane when it is open

166
Q

(3) types of ion channels

A

voltage-gated
ligened-gated
mechanically-gated (for example, the sense of touch is related to these)

167
Q

at what membrane potential do voltage-gated sodium ion channels open?

A

-55 mV

168
Q

(in nerves) what does a physical stimulus cause to open? what does that do?

A

mechanically-gated sodium-ion channels. this causes sodiums to rush into the cell–thereby lowering the membrane potential (i.e. bringing it closer to 0)

169
Q

if not enough mechanical sodium ion channels, open, what happens? What does the membrane potential have to reach for it to happen

A

it just evens out again. -55 mV

170
Q

during an action potential, where does the depolorization (generally) end?

A

+40 mV

171
Q

when do voltage-gated potassium-ion channels open?

A

during re-polarization

172
Q

which direction do potassium ions flow through the channels during action potential? why?

A

they flow out because during this state because they are positively charged and so is the inside of the cell

173
Q

what is hyperpolarization?

A

when the membrane potential overshoots it’s repolarazation past the resting membrane potentail. Around -75 mV

174
Q

what is the refractory period

A

when all the ion gates of a neuron are open, it can’t respond to any other stimulus, no matter how strong.

175
Q

what is conduction velocity?

A

the speed at which an electrochemical impulse propagates down a neural pathway. faster in your reflexes, for example, slower in, for example, your heart.

176
Q

why does Na+ continue to enter the cell even after the membrane potential has become zero? (during depolarization)

A

because the concentration gradient is so strong, by a factor of 10

177
Q

how is conduction velocity effected by the presence of a mylian sheath on an axon?

A

the conduction velocity is faster, as signals can propagate across the gaps. This is called saltatory conduction.

178
Q

what are the gaps in mylianated axons called?

A

Nodes of Ranvier

179
Q

a synapse is either ____ or ____

A

electrical or chemical

180
Q

synapses are able to _________ in response to neuron firing patterns

A

change and adapt—strengthen or weaken

181
Q

electrical synapses are like (mass text / personal call)

A

mass texts to literally everyone

182
Q

where do we find electrical synapses

A

places like the heart

183
Q

chemical synapses are ______ and _____ than electrical

A

more selective, and slower

184
Q

what is the space between one neuron and the other neuron’s synapse called

A

synaptic cleft

185
Q

what is (nerve) potentiation

A

the strengthening of a synapse, for example through classic conditioning

186
Q

what is (nerve) habituation

A

when a synapse decreases it’s response to a common stimulus

187
Q

what is (nerve) sensitization

A

when a reaction to one stimulus causes other synapses to be more sensitive to reactions

188
Q

what holds any given neuro transmitter inside the presynaptic terminal

A

the synaptic vesicle

189
Q

what is the area on a neuron called that receives the neurotransmitter across a chemical synapse

A

receptor region

190
Q

what ion channel opens at the end of a presynaptic terminal. what type of gate is it?

A

calcium (positive), electric

191
Q

what are the possible reactions to a given neurotransmitter

A

excitation or inhibition

192
Q

what happens during an Excitatory Post-Synaptic Potential?

A

depolarization. it makes an action potential more likely

193
Q

what happens during an Inhibitory Post-Synaptic Potential?

A

hyperpolarization. it makes an action potential less likely

194
Q

the likelihood of a post-synapitic neuron developing an action potential depends on…

A

…the sum of all the excitations and inhibitions in that area

195
Q

how long do neurotransmitters stay bonded to the their receptors?

A

a few milliseconds

196
Q

what is a central pattern generator?

A

groups of neurons in your spinal cord that are capable of generating complex patterns of muscle activation–without input from the brain–necessary for learned and practiced activities like walking and running

197
Q

what are meninges? name them (3)

A

protective membrane layers around the brain. Dura matter, arachnoid, pia matter

198
Q

how does the CNS start off, in the embryo?

A

a neural tube

199
Q

what are the 3 main components of the brainstem

A

the midbrain, the pons and the medulla oblongata.

200
Q

what does the brain stem regulate

A

basic, vital involuntary functions (i.e. heart pace, lungs, sleep and appetite etc)

201
Q

what does your midbrain control

A

higher-level functions, where you react without thinking (like when you track a fast moving object, or look to were a noise happens)

202
Q

what are (4) things you find in the diancephalon?

A

the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus and the mammillary bodies

203
Q

what does the diancephalon regulate?

A

things like homeostasis, alertness, and reproductive activity, and part of the limbic system

204
Q

what happens in the limbic system?

A

where we have strong emotions, like fear. aka reptilian brain

205
Q

what is the cerebrum made up of?

A

“gray matter” or cerebral cortex on the outside, and “white matter” on the inside

206
Q

what does the cerebrum regulate?

A

our voluntary movements and other higher functions like thinking, learning, regulating emotions, etc

207
Q

what are the ridges in your brain called

A

gyri

208
Q

what are the large grooves in your brain called

A

sulci

209
Q

what connects the two hemispheres of the brain?

A

the corpus callosum

210
Q

what are the hemispheres of the brain divided into?

A

lobes

211
Q

what does the frontal lobe govern?

A

muscle movement, speech, motor skills and cognitive functions like concentration and preventing socially unacceptable behaviors

212
Q

what does the occipital lobe govern?

A

processing visual cues

213
Q

what does the parietal lobe govern?

A

processing the sensations of touch, pain and pressure

214
Q

what does the temporal lobe govern?

A

processing auditory information (including language)

215
Q

what is wernicke’s area associated with?

A

the production of written and spoken language–in the temporal lobe

216
Q

what does the hippocampus do?

A

keep short-term memory

217
Q

what does the amygdala control

A

social and sexual behavior

218
Q

what is in the PNS that allows it to “see” what is going on

A

sensory nerve receptors (thermorecptors, photoreceptors, chemoreceptors, mechanoreceptors, and nociceptors)

219
Q

where in your PNS does the signal of a stimulus get’s “decoded” and kicked over to the motor division?

A

integrations centers

220
Q

what is an effector?

A

any structure that receives and reacts to a motor neuron’s signal (like a muscle contracting or a gland secreting a hormone)

221
Q

what are the steps of a reflex arc?

A

1) receptor senses a stimulus
2) sensory neuron transmits signal up the PNS to the CNS
3) integration center decodes the signal
4) motor neuron sends directions back to the site of the stimulus
5) effector cells respond

222
Q

what is a muscle or tendon spindle?

A

receptors that specifically sense stretching

223
Q

what are the (3) main differences between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

A

1) location of origin of nerurons== sympathetic is thoracolumbar and parasympathetic is craniosacral.
2) relative lengths of nerve fibers==sympathetic have long preganglionic and short post, parasympathetic vice versa
3) location of gangila==sympathetic close to origin (spine), parasympathetic close to effectors

224
Q

how many neurons does your autonomic require to work

A

two

225
Q

what is a ganglion

A

a cluster of neuron cell bodies that house millions of synapses

226
Q

about how many hormones does a human have

A

50

227
Q

what makes a particular substance a hormone or a neurotransmitter

A

neurotransmitters are released from neurons across synapses, and hormones are released from glands into the bloodstream

228
Q

what is acetylcholine

A

the “coin of the realm” for your nervous system.

229
Q

what is always released from postganglionic fibers in the SNS?

A

norepinephrine

230
Q

what is released by preganglionic fibers?

A

ACh

231
Q

what receptor allows smooth muscle cells to contract

A

alpha receptor

232
Q

what receptor allows smooth muscle cells to relax

A

beta receptor

233
Q

which is generally (in your day to day life) stronger, your sympathetic or parasympathetic tone?

A

parasympathetic

234
Q

define transduction

A

when our sensory cells translate chemical, electromagnetic, or mechanical stimuli into action potentials that our nervous system can make sense of

235
Q

what is your olfactory system’s main organ?

A

the olfactory epithelium

236
Q

where is the olfactory epithelium located

A

the roof of your nasal cavity

237
Q

what do airborne particles have to do before they bind to receptors on your olfactory sensory neurons?

A

be absorbed into the mucus there

238
Q

where is the ethmoid bone?

A

between your olfactory epithelium and the olfactory bulb

239
Q

what is the spherical structure located in the olfactory bulb of the brain where synapses form between the terminals of the olfactory nerve and other cells

A

the glomerulus

240
Q

about how many smells can we smell?

A

about 10,000

241
Q

where are your taste buds located on your tongue

A

down between your fungiform papillae, in stratified squamous epithelial cells

242
Q

about how many taste receptor epithelial cells does each taste bud have?

A

50-100

243
Q

what are the two types of taste bud cells are there?

A

gustatory and basal. One to do the tasting, one to be ready to replace them when they dies. (like the Immortals)

244
Q

what is a gustatory hair? what does it do?

A

a threadlike protrusion that runs from the taste bud into the taste pore and it mingles with the molecules of food in the saliva

245
Q

what’s the outside part of the ear (that you can see) called?

A

the pinna or auricle

246
Q

what’s the part of the ear that funnels sound to the eardrum called?

A

the external acoustic meatus

247
Q

what’s the inner ear also called? What’s it’s main job? why does it have to do that?

A

the tympanic cavity. to amplify sound waves. because your inner ear has a fluid sound waves have to pass through

248
Q

name the (3) auditory ossicles

A

the malleus, the incus, and the stapes (the hammer, anvil and stirrup)

249
Q

what is the membrane between the middle and inner ear called?

A

the superior oval window

250
Q

what are the two labyrinths in the ear?

A

the bony and the membranous

251
Q

what are the three main chambers of the colchea?

A

the scala vestibuli, the scala media and the scala tympani

252
Q

what’s the stiff band of tissue that runs between the scala media and tympani in your ear called?

A

the basilar membrane

253
Q

how does the basilar membrane “read” different frequencies?

A

it has different length fibers that run it’s whole length

254
Q

what is the receptor organ for hearing located in the cochlea called?

A

the organ of Corti

255
Q

what is the vastibular system?

A

a portion of the membraneous labryinth in the ear that is a collection of sacs and canals

256
Q

what are the names of the two sacs in your inner ear that help you dectect movement? They are connected to the semi-circle, fluid filled canals

A

the urtricle and the saccule

257
Q

what percent of all the sensory receptors in your body are in your eyes?

A

~70%

258
Q

what is the outermost layer of your eyeball called? (two things)

A

most of it is the sclera (which is white), but the cornea is there too (which is transparent)

259
Q

what is the choroid?

A

the vascular layer in the eye that supplies everything with blood

260
Q

what is the ring of muscle tissue that surrounds the lens of the eye

A

cilicary body

261
Q

what is the iris of the eye made up of (type of muscle)

A

smooth

262
Q

what are the two layers of the retina. what do they do?

A

the outer (i.e. closer to the inside) pigmented layer to help absorb light, and the neural layer

263
Q

what (3) things does the neural layer of the eyeball have?

A

photoreceptors, ganglion neurons, and bipolar neurons

264
Q

how are rod cells in your eye arranged?

A

in a single ganglion cell of up to 100 rods that are wired up as a single unit

265
Q

how many cone cells are wired up to a ganglion in your eye?

A

one per

266
Q

term for blood cell production

A

hematopoiesis

267
Q

the average human body has ___ bones

A

206

268
Q

we can divide bones up into two main groups, ___ and ___

A

axial and appendicular

269
Q

about how many axial bones are there?

A

80

270
Q

the axial bones can be divided into three groups, the ___, ___, and ____

A

skull, rib cage, and vertebral column

271
Q

the appendicular bones can be divided into three groups, the ___, ___, and ____

A

shoulder blades, pelvis, and limbs

272
Q

what are the 4 shapes of bones

A

long, short, flat, and irregular

273
Q

bones have two main portions, ____ bone and ____ bone

A

compact and spongy

274
Q

what are the tiny cross-hatching supports of spongy bone called?

A

trabeculae

275
Q

where in the bone do you find the marrow?

A

the spongy part

276
Q

what two colors does bone marrow come in?

A

yellow and red

277
Q

what does red marrow do?

A

produce blood cells

278
Q

what does yellow marrow do?

A

stores energy as fat

279
Q

what’s the knobby thing on the ends of long bones called? What’s the straight bit called?

A

epiphyses and diaphysis

280
Q

what are the cylindrical, weight-bearing structures that run parallel to the bone’s axis called?

A

osteons

281
Q

what are the concentric ring, tree ring like tubes that make up an osteon called? what kind of fibers do they have in them?

A

lamellae, and collagen fibers

282
Q

what do you find in the central canals of osteons?

A

nerves and blood vessels

283
Q

what is between the lamellae of the osteons in your bones? what lives there?

A

lacunae, and osteocytes

284
Q

what are osteocytes, and what do they do?

A

they are mature bone cells and they monitor and maintain your bone matrix, they “command” the osteoblasts and osteoclasts

285
Q

osteoblasts and osteoclasts–which does what?

A

osteoblasts are bone makers, osteoclasts are bone breakers

286
Q

what two factors go into describing a joint

A

structural and functional

287
Q

what is a non-moving joint called?

A

synarthrosis

288
Q

what are partly-moving joints called?

A

amphiarthrosis

289
Q

what are fully-movable joints called?

A

diarthroses

290
Q

what are the three structural classifications of joints?

A

fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial

291
Q

name the 6 types of movements synovial joints can do?

A

plane, hinge, condylar, pivot, ball-and-socket, and saddle

292
Q

what are the six types of angular movements you can do?

A

flexion, extension, hyperextension, abduction, adduction, and circumduction

293
Q

what is flexion

A

it decreases the angle of the joint, and brings the bones closer together

294
Q

what is extension

A

it increases the angle of the joint and brings the bones farther apart

295
Q

what is abduction

A

motion of a structure away from the midline

296
Q

what is adduction

A

motion of a structure towards the midline

297
Q

what is circumduction

A

a combination of flexion, extension, adduction and abduction. It’s a conical movement, like when you’re really into a fist pump

298
Q

what are the two protein strands that bond to create muscle movement

A

actin and myosin

299
Q

how many skeletal muscles do you have?

A

640

300
Q

each muscle has it’s on ____, ___, and ____

A

nerve, artery and vein

301
Q

muscle fibers are made up of _____(10’s 100’s 1000’s 10,000’) of parallel threads called ____

A

1000’s, myofibrils

302
Q

muscle fibers are the basic ___ of your muscles, with ___, ____, and a membrane called a _____

A

cell, mitochondria, multiple nuclei, and sarcolemma

303
Q

muscle fibers bunch together to form what?

A

fascicles

304
Q

muscle fascicles combine to form

A

the muscle organ itself

305
Q

the supportive sheaths of connective tissue in your muscle are called, from inside to outside, ___, ___, and ___

A

endomysium, perimysium, and epimysium

306
Q

what are the two rules of proteins?

A

1) proteins like to change shape when stuff binds to them, and 2) changing shapes can allow proteins to bind or unbind with other stuff

307
Q

what are the lengthwise divisions of myofibrils called?

A

sarcomeres

308
Q

In your muscles, on a basic level, ____ protein strands

are light and twisty, and ____ strands are thicker and lumpy-looking

A

actin, myosin

309
Q

what are sarsomeres seperated by?

A

a z-line

310
Q

at rest, actin and myosin (are/are not) touching

A

are not

311
Q

(actin/myosin) really, really wants to get all up close and personal with (actin/myosin)

A

myosin, actin

312
Q

actin and myosin bonding and releasing makes the what model of muscle contraction

A

the sliding filament model

313
Q

what protects/blocks the protein actin?

A

the proteins tropomyosin and troponin

314
Q

what can make the actin’s “bodyguard” proteins chill out a bit

A

ATP and calcium

315
Q

what is the membranous structure found within muscle cells? what is it’s job?

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum, and to store calcium ions

316
Q

what ion does troponin love to bind with?

A

calcium

317
Q

what does a myosin have to do before it is ready to bind with actin?

A

have broken an ATP into ADP + phosphate and be hanging onto that energy so it’s all stretched out

318
Q

what happens once the myosin finally binds with the actin?

A

it releases the stored energy from breaking down the ATP (and shrinks) and then releases the ADP + phosphate (because rule 2: changing shapes can allow proteins to bind or unbind with stuff)

319
Q

what happens when ATP binds with myosin that already is bound to an actin strand?

A

it unbinds with the actin

320
Q

what happens to the calcium that bonded with the troponin?

A

the calcium pumps pull it back out again

321
Q

what happens when the troponin protein binds with calcium?

A

it pulls the tropomyosin away from blocking the actin

Nursing Pre-reqs (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions