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A and P Exam 2 > A and P Exam 2 Questions > Flashcards

A and P Exam 2 Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Put the following steps in order of how natural killer cells destroy pathogens starting from infection and ending when the pathogen is destroyed.

  • natural killer cell recognizes pathogen
  • pathogen lyses and falls apart
  • Golgi apparatus of natural killer cell rearranges and secretes perforin proteins
  • natural killer cell adheres to pathogen
  • perforins secrete from natural killer cell into extra cellular space
  • perforins produce pores in pathogen membrane
A
  • natural killer cell recognizes pathogen
  • natural killer cell adheres to pathogen
  • Golgi apparatus of natural killer cell rearranges and secretes perforin proteins
  • perforins secrete from natural killer cell into extra cellular space
  • perforins produce pores in pathogen membrane
  • pathogen lyses and falls apart
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2
Q

Put the following steps in the correct order in the classical pathway of the complement system starting when a bacterium infects an organism and ending when it is destroyed

  • the c1 protein binds to the antibodies
  • the c3 protein is hydrolysis to c3a and c3b proteins
  • antibodies bind to bacterial cell wall
  • the c3b protein binds to the bacterial cell wall
A
  • antibodies bind to bacterial cell wall
  • the c1 protein binds to the antibodies
  • the c3 protein is hydrolysis to c3a and c3b proteins
  • the c3b protein binds to the bacterial cell wall
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3
Q

Put the following T cell differentiation steps in order from inactive T cells to differentiated T cells

  • infected cell binds to inactive CD8 T cell
  • costimulation between infected cell and CD8 T cell occurs
  • CD8 T cell is activated and begins to divide
  • CD8 T cell differentiates into cytotoxic and memory T cells
A
  • infected cell binds to inactive CD8 T cell
  • costimulation between infected cell and CD8 T cell occurs
  • CD8 T cell is activated and begins to divide
  • CD8 T cell differentiates into cytotoxic and memory T cells
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4
Q

Put the following B cell differentiation steps in order from inactive T cells to differentiated B cells

  • costimulation between infected cell and CD4 T cell occurs
  • sensitized B cells bind to active helper T cell
  • B cell is activated and begins to divide
  • infected cell binds to inactive CD4 T cell
  • B cell differentiates into memory B cells and plasma
  • CD4 T cell is activated and begins to divide
  • costimulation between B cell and helper T cell occurs
  • CD4 T cell differentiates into helper T cells
A
  • infected cell binds to inactive CD4 T cell
  • costimulation between infected cell snd CD4 T cell occurs
  • CD4 T cell is activated
    and begins to divide
  • CD4 T cell differentiates into helper T cells
  • sensitized B cells bind to active helper T cell
    -costimulation between B cell and helper T cell occurs
  • B cell is activated and begins to divide
  • B cell differentiates into memory B cells and plasma
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5
Q

Which of the following organs has a large role in the immune system but not in the lymphatic system?

A. Spleen
B. Integument
C. Thymus
D. Tonsils

A

B. Integument

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6
Q

What is lymph most similar to?

A. Plasma
B. Water
C. Whole blood

A

A. Plasma

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7
Q

Selective immunoglobulin A deficiency is an inherited genetic disorder where in a patient lacks immunoglobulin A, a type of antibody. While patients are often asymptomatic, they can have reduced immune function. which type of lymphocyte is likely affected in a patient with selective immunoglobulin A deficiency?

A. B cell
B. Natural killer cell
C. T cell

A

A. B cell

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8
Q

Which type of phagocyte is derived from monocytes and can move throughout the circulation and tissues to engulf pathogens?

A. Macrophage
B. Eosinophil
C. Neutrophils

A

A. Macrophage

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9
Q

Jonnu is 24 years old and was out bike riding when he swerved to avoid a squirrel and fell into some gravel. he looked at his right antebrachial region and while scuffed up from the gravel he was not bleeding. which physical barrier in his integument protected him from bleeding?

A. Secretions from sweat glands
B. Epidermis
C. Hair

A

B. Epidermis

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10
Q

SARS-CoV-2 is the coronavirus responsible for the COVID-19 pandemic. what is true about the innate immune response against SARS-CoVo2?

A. Interferon alpha is released from infected cells and stimulates natural killer cell activity
B. Interferon alpha is released from infected cells and stimulates macrophage activity
C. Interferon beta is released from infected cells and stimulates natural killer cell activity
D. Interferon beta is released from infected cells and stimulates macrophage activity

A

A. Interferon alpha is released from infected cells and stimulates natural killer cell activity

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11
Q

Antihistamine drugs are used to treat short-term allergic reactions. what would be the effect of an antihistamine drug?

A. A decrease in the activity of the complement system
B. A decrease in redness, swelling, temperature, and pain
C. An increase in redness, swelling, temperature, and pain
D. An increase in the activity of the complement system

A

B. A decrease in redness, swelling, temperature, and pain

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12
Q

Which molecule is released by histamine and triggers the inflammatory response?

A. C3 protein
B. Histamine
C. Perforin
D. Interferon alpha

A

B. Histamine

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13
Q

An inactive T cell has just bound to an antigen on the surface of an infected cell. What will happen immediately next?

A. T cell differentiation
B. Costimulation
C. T cell division
D. Antigen presentation

A

B. Costimulation

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14
Q

What must happen to a B cell before it binds to a helper T cell?

A. The B cell must divide
B. The B cell must be sensitized
C. The B cell must be costimulated
D. The B cell must differentiate

A

B. The B cell must be sensitized

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15
Q

An antibody titer is a measurement of the production and concentration of antibodies by an organism’s immune system. Which of the following would explain a titer that showed elevated antibody levels?

A. Decrease in cytokine production by helper T cells
B. Increased numbers of plasma cells
C. Increased antigen breakdown in the cytoplasm of host cells
D. Increased perforin activity

A

B. Increased number of plasma cells

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16
Q

Salmonella is a genus of pathogenic bacteria that can cause illness from eating infected foods such as uncooked chicken. if ingested, the immune system will label the bacteria with antibodies. sometimes a single antibody will bind to two different Salmonella bacteria and if this process repeats, clumps of bacteria will form. what is this process called?

A. Opsonization
B. Agglutination
C. Neutralization
D. Precipitation

A

B. Agglutination

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17
Q

put the following structures in the correct order that air passes through them during inspiration through the nose, starting with air entering from the environment and ending with the trachea.

  • oropharynx
  • laryngopharynx
  • nostrils
  • nasopharynx
  • nasal cavity
  • nasophrynx
  • larynx
A
  • nostrils
  • nasal cavity
  • nasopharynx
  • oropharynx
  • nasaopharynx
  • laryngopharynx
  • larynx
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18
Q

put the following structures in the correct order that air passes through them during inspiration, starting with the larynx and ending when inspired gases diffuse into capillaries.

  • lobar bronchi
  • alveoli
  • trachea
  • terminal brinchioles
  • respiratory brinchioles
  • alevolar duct
  • segmental bronchi
  • main bronchi
  • bronchioles
A
  • trachea
  • main bronchi
  • lobar bronchi
  • segmental bronchi
  • brochioles
  • terminal bronchioles
  • respiratory bronchioles
  • alveolar duct
  • alveoli
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19
Q

put the following events in order for how the respiratory and nervous systems restore homeostasis staring when arterial PCO2 levels decrease (hypocapnia) and ending when homeostasis is restored.

  • respiratory rate decrease
  • chemoreceptors detect change in arterial PCO2 levels
  • respiratory muscles are inhibited
  • COs is retained
  • PCO2 levels increase
A
  • chemoreceptors detect change in arterial PCO2 levels
  • respiratory muscles are inhibted
  • respiratory rate decrease
  • COs is retained
  • PCO2 levels increase
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20
Q

put the following locations in order from highest to lowest partial pressure of oxygen PO2

  • tissues
  • alveoli
  • environment
  • blood
A
  • environment
  • alveoli
  • blood
  • tissues
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21
Q

suppose that you are out to dinner and a friend begins choking on a piece of food. thankfully, you react quickly and give them the Heimlich maneuver and they are ok. during the time that their airway was obstructed, what happened to their blood PCO2 and blood pH?

a. PCO2 decreased and pH increased
b. PCO2 increased and pH increased
c. PCO2 increased and pH decreased
d. PCO2 decreased and pH decreased

A

c. PCO2 increased and pH decreased

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22
Q

when a dolphin is about to dive, it will inhale through its blowhole and then holds its breath. as it dives, oxygen is unloaded from its lungs to its blood to its tissues. which of the following best explains why this occurs?

a. the partial pressure of oxygen is higher in the tissues than in the blood and lungs
b. the temperature in the tissues is higher than in the blood and lungs
c. the partial pressure of oxygen is lower in the tissues than in the blood and lungs
d. the temperature in the tissues is lower than in the blood and lungs

A

c. the partial pressure of oxygen is lower in the tissues than in the blood and lungs

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23
Q

researchers measured that the p50 for dolphin hemoglobin is 29 mmHg. what is the significance of this measurement?

a. at a pressure of 29 mmHg dolphin hemoglobin is found in 50% of tissues
b. at a pressure of 29 mmHg the dolphin’s lungs are 50% full of air
c. at a pressure of 29 mmHg the dolphin hemoglobin gene is 50% expressed
d. at a pressure of 29 mmHg dolphin is 50% saturated with oxygen

A

d. at a pressure of 29mmHg dolphin hemoglobin is 50% saturated with oxygen

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24
Q

the amount of oxygen in seawater is only approximately 3% of that found in the air. while there is very little oxygen dissolved in water, fish still are able to bring oxygen into their bodies via passing water over their gills. which of the following must be true for this to occur?

a. the partial pressure of oxygen in fish blood is greater than that in seawater
b. the partial pressure of oxygen in fish blood is the same as that that in seawater
c. the partial pressure of oxygen in fish blood is less than that in seawater

A

c. the partial pressure of oxygen in fish blood is less than that in seawater

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25
Q

baranka is 39 years old and is out for a bike ride. as she begins to climb a hill her ventilation rate increases. which signal would lead to this change in ventilation?

a. increase in arterial PCO2 levels
b. increase in arterial pH
c. increase in arterial PO2 levels

A

a. increase in arterialPCO2 levels

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26
Q

which type of receptor detects changes in lung volume?

a. chemoreceptor
b. stretch receptor
c. baroreceptor

A

b. stretch receptor

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27
Q

liza is 56 years old and took a spirometry test and had a vital capacity of 4150 ml. if the deepest breath she can take in is 3000ml, what is her expiratory reserve volume ml?

a. 3000 ml
b. 7150 ml
c. 4150 ml
d. 1150 ml

A

d. 1150 ml

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28
Q

which equation correctly describes FRC?

a. FRC = TV + IRV
b. FRC = ERV + RV
c. FRC = VC - TV
d. FRC = TLC - RV
e. FRC = ERV + IRV

A

b. FRC = ERV + RV

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29
Q

emphysema is called an obstructive lung disease because the pneumatoses obstruct the flow of air into and out of the lungs; this obstruction leads to an abnormal amount of air left in the lungs after exhalation. which lyng volume or capacity would be larger in an emphysema patient?

a. IC
b. VC
c. RV
d. TV
e. TLC
f. IRV
g. FRC
h. ERV

A

c. RV
g. FRC
h. ERV

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30
Q

a molecule of carbon dioxide is exhaled from the lungs to the outside environment. what type of respiration is this an example of?

a. internal respiration
b. cellular respiration
c. external respiration

A

c. external respiration

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31
Q

alyssa is seven years old and is allergic to bees. one day while sitting by the pool a bee landed on and stung her left forearm. she strated to go into an allergic reaction which led to difficulties breathing as her airways constricted. fortunately her mother had her epipen handy and injected alyssa with epinepherine which dilated her airways and alleviated her symptoms. which structure in the respiratory system is epinepherine acting on?

a. smooth muscle in the bronchioles
b. pleural fluid in the pleural cavity
c. type I alveolar cells in the alveoli
d. cartilage in the trachea

A

a. smooth muscle in the bronchioles

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32
Q

which type of tissues lunes the lumen of the trachea?

a. simple columnar epithelium with microvilli
b. simple columnar epithelium with cilia
c. pseudostratified columnar epithelium with cilia
d. pseudostratified columnar epithelium with microvilli

A

c. pseudostratified columnar epithelium with cilia

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33
Q

cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder wherein water does not cross the respiratory mucosa as it normally would, leading to a buildup of thick mucus that is ultimately fatal. which structure that is part of the respiratory mucosa normally functions to move mucus along and out of the respiratory tract?

a. goblet cells
b. microvilli
c. cilia

A

c. cilia

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34
Q

this is a respiratory muscosa. which type of tissue is it made of?

a. pseudostratified columnar epithelium with microvilli
b. stratified squamous epithelium with microvilli
c. stratified squamos epithelium with cilia
d. pseudostratified columnar epithelium with cilia

A

d. pseufostratified columnar epithelium with cilia

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35
Q

which structure is the most distal upper respiratory structure?

a. nasal cavity
b. larynx
c. pharynx
d. trachea

A

c. pharynx

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36
Q

which of the following are functions of the respiratory system?

a. generate heat
b. moving air to and from the lungs
c. gas exchange
d. producing sounds and speech
e. protecting respiratory surfaces
f. pumping blood
g. detecting smells

A

b. moving air to and from the lungs
c. gas exchange
d. producing sounds and speech
e. protecting respiratory surfaces
g. detecting smells

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37
Q

which of the following are functions of the digestive system?

a. digestion of food
b. absorption of nutrients
c. transport nutrients throughout the body
d. elimination of wastes
e. detecting smells

A

a. digestion of food
b. absorption of nutrients
d. elimination of wastes

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38
Q

put the following structures in the correct order that food passes through the alimentary canal, starting with food entering from the environment and ending with defecation.

  • pharynx
  • anus
  • large intestine
  • esophagus
  • small intestine
  • rectum
  • stomach
  • oral cavity
A
  • oral cavity
  • pharynx
  • esophagus
  • stomach
  • small intestine
  • large intestine
  • rectum
  • anus
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39
Q

mary is 64 years old and has struggled with celiac disease for most of her life. celiac disease results in inflammation of the small intestine due to eating gluten (a protein found in certain foods such as wheat). celiac disease causes blunting (or shortening) of the vili of the small intestine which leads to reduced nutrient absorption. which layer of the small intesting is most affected by celiac disease?

a. muscularis
b. serosa
c. mucosa
d. submucosa

A

c. mucsoa

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40
Q

which of the following statments about the peritoneal cavity is false?

a. the mesenteries hold blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, nerves, and adipose tissue
b. all digestive organs are inside the peritoneal cavity
c. the falciform ligmanet is a mesentery that connects the liver to the ventral peritoneum
d. the parietal peritoneum does not directly contact the digestive organs

A

b. all digestive organs are inside the peritoneal cavity

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41
Q

when you eat a cracker (which is mostly made of carbohydrates) enzymes in your saliva begin to hydrolyze the carbohydrates to smaller molecules. which enzyme in saliva hydrolyzes carbohydrates?

a. protease
b. lipase
c. amylase

A

c. amylase

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42
Q

which type of epithelium lines the mucosa of the oropharynx, laryngopharynx, and esophagus?

a. stratified squamous epithelium
b. simple columnar epithelium
c. stratified cuboidal epithelium
d. simple squamous epithelium
e. pseudostratified columnar epithelium

A

a. stratified squamous epithelium

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43
Q

AJ is 43 years old and was out eating pizza with their friends. they accidentally took too big of a bite and did not chew enough and so when starting to swallow they gagged and spit it back out. which phase of deglutition was affected in this situation?

a. esophageal
b. buccal
c. pharyngeal

A

b. buccal

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44
Q

mochi, a black lab puppy, was having digestive problems and so their owners took her to the vet. after examining her digestive system, the vet concluded that her stomach was not digesting protein enough which led to poor motility in the small intestine. which type of stomach cell may be affected?

a. mucous neck cell
b. enteroendocrine cell
c. parietal cell
d. chief cell

A

c. parietal cell

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45
Q

chemotherapy cancer drugs target and kill cells in the body that regenerate quickly. one side effect of chemotherapy is nausea brought about by the action of the drugs on the small intestine. which small intestine structure is affected by chemotherapy drugs?

a. villi
b. intestinal gland
c. circular folds
d. microvilli

A

b. intestinal gland

46
Q

which large intestine structure is a band of smooth muscle on the surface that helps pull the large intestine into pouches?

a. hepatic flexure
b. teniae coli
c. haustra
d. splenic flexure

A

b. teniae coli

47
Q

which of the following statements about the large intestine is false?

a. the large intestine is the major site of water reabsorption in the alimentary canal
b. the ileocecal valve prevents feces from backing up into the ileum
c. the descending colon is on the right side of the abdomen
d. the internal anal sphincter is under autonomic control
e. simple columnar epithelium lines the mucosa of the large intestine

A

c. the descending colon is on the right side of the abdomen

48
Q

put the following structures in the correct order that blood passes through the liver starting with blood entering the liver and ending with blood leaving the liver.

  • central vein
  • interlobular vein
  • liver sinusoids
  • hepatic vein
A
  • interlobular vein
  • liver sinusoids
  • central vein
  • hepatic vein
49
Q

when you eat a piece of bread (which is mostly made of carbohydrates) saliva is released which contains amylase and other enzymes. which digestive function is amylase performing?

a. propulsion
b. absorption
c. mechanical digestion
d. chemical digestion

A

d. chemical digestion

50
Q

after eating a large meal, small intestine capillaries dilate and nutrients from chyme in the small intestine are absorbed into the blood. which hormone regulates this process?

a. gastric inhibitory peptide
b. gastrin
c. vasoactive intestinal peptide
d. cholecystokinin

A

c. vasoactive intestinal peptide

51
Q

which statement about fat-soluble vitamins is false?

a. vitamin A contributes to the synthesis of visual pigments
b. vitamin D contributes to bone formation and muscle contraction
c. vitamin E inhibits breakdowns of proteins
d. vitamin K is required for production of liver enzymes and clotting factors

A

c. vitamin E inhibits breakdown of proteins

52
Q

suppose you are measuring absorption rates of vitamins from the small intestine and you find that one of the following vitamins is absorbed along with cholesterol at much higher rates than the other vitamins. which vitamin is absorbed at higher rates with cholesterol?

a. vitamin B6
b. vitamin B1
c. vitamin D
d. vitamin C

A

c. vitamin D

53
Q

which statement about metabolism is false?

a. anabolic reactions build up larger molecules from smaller ones
b. ADP is the major energy source for cells
c. metabolism concerns all of the chemical changes that happen in body tissues
d. catabolic reactions release energy

A

b. ADP is the major energy source for cells

54
Q

put the following steps of cellular respiration in the correct order starting with glucose and ending with using ATP for energy.

  • pyruvate is oxidized to form acetyl CoA, NADH, and CO2 (pyruvate oxidation)
  • NADH and FADH2 deliver electrons to the electron transport chain
  • the electron transport chain creates a proton gradient
  • ATP synthase produces ATP (chemiosmosis)
  • Acetyl CoA is oxidized to form CO2, NADH, and FADH2 (citric acid cycle)
  • glucose is oxidized to form pyruvate and NADH (glycolysis)
A
  • glucose is oxidized to form pyruvate and NADH (glycolysis)
  • pyruvate is oxidized to form acetyl CoA, NADH, and CO2 (pyruvate oxidation)
  • Acetyl CoA is oxidized to form CO2, NADH, and FADH2 (citric acid cycle)
  • NADH and FADH2 deliver electrons to the electron transport chain
  • the electron transport chain creates a proton gradient
  • ATP synthase produces ATP (chemiosmosis)
55
Q

which of the following will occur when cellular respiration is active in a cell?

a. NAD+ will be oxidized to form NADH
b. protons will flow from the intermembrane space to the mitochondrial matrix
c. FADH2 will be produced by the citric acid cycle
d. the pH of the intermembrane space in the mitochondria becomes more acidic
e. glucose will be oxidized to pyruvate

A

a. NAD+ will be oxidized to form NADH

56
Q

glucose concentrations rise in a cell because glucose is formed from the breakdown of proteins and lipids. which process formed glucose in this case?

a. gluconeogenesis
b. glycogenolysis
c. glycolysis
d. glycogenesis

A

a. gluconeogenesis

57
Q

which process results in the formation of new lipids?

a. ketogenesis
b. lipogenesis
c. beta-oxidation
d. lipolysis

A

b. lipogenesis

58
Q

which of the following statements about lipid metabolism is false?

a. lipolysis breaks triglyceridees down into fatty acids and glycerol
b. lipogenesis most often begins with acetyl CoA
c. beta-oxidation of fatty acids results in the direct production of ATP
d. ketogenesis produces ketones when there is an excess of acetyl CoA

A

c. beta-oxidation of fatty acids results in the direct production of ATP

59
Q

which processes result in the formation of new amino acids?

a. deamination, amination, and transamination
b. transamination only
c. deamination only
d. amination and transamination only
e. amination only

A

d. amination and transamination only

60
Q

which of the following statements about protein metabolism is false?

a. deamination results in the production of ammonium which is then converted to urea
b. trypsin is a proteolytic enzyme that hydrolyzes proteins in the large intestine
c. amination results in the production of amino acids
d. amino acids yield a similar amount of energy as carbohydrates

A

b. trypsin is a proteolytic enzyme that hydrolyzes proteins in the small intestine

61
Q

how does a Calorie differ from a calorie?

a. a Calorie is not used in everyday life but a calorie is listed on nutrition facts labels
b. a Calorie is equal to one thousand calories
c. Calories come from aminal products and calories come from plants
d. Calories are used to calculate basal metabolic rate whereas calories are used to calculate metabolic rate

A

b. a Calorie is equal to one thousand calories

62
Q

emily is 21 years old and is a collegiate swimmer. during a two hour practice in the pool she can burn 1700 Calories. if her BMR is 1925 Calories, how many Calories does she need to consume each day to maintain a constant weight? assume that she only burns excess Calories during swim practice each day.

a. 1925 Calories
b. 3625 Calories
c. 225 Calories
d. 1700 Calories

A

b. 3625 Calories

63
Q

which statement about thermoregulation is false?

a. vasodilation of blood vessels in the skin results in the conservation of body heat
b. muscles contract during shivering thermogenesis to produce body heat
c. sweating dissipates body heat through evaporative cooling
d. conduction can result in heat gain or heat loss

A

a. vasodilation of blood vessels in the skin results in the conservation of body heat

64
Q

dogs have relatively few sweat glands on their bodies compared to humans and thus sweating is not a major way that dogs respond to high body temperatures. which of the following do dogs do to cool off in response to elevated body temperatures?

a. shivering
b. increased respiratory rate
c. vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the skin

A

b. increased respiratory rate

65
Q

gluconeogenesis is a series of metabolic reaction that results in the breakdown of glycogen to form glucose. which type of metabolic process is gluconeogenesis?

a. catabolism
b. anabolism

A

a. catabolism

66
Q

hypovitaminosis occurs when a person has insufficient quantities of vitamins available and may result in many different medical conditions depending on which vitamins are in deficiency. which statement about hypovitaminosis is true?

a. water-soluble vitamins are less likely to be in deficiency because they are stored throughout the body
b. water solulble vitamins are more likely to be in deficiency because they are stored throughout the body
c. fat-soluble vitamins are less likely to be in deficiency because they are stored throughout the body
d. fat-soluble vitamins are more likely to be in deficiency because they are stored throughout the body

A

c. fat-soluble vitamins are less likely to be in deficiency because they are stored throughout the body

67
Q

excessive vomiting or diarrhea may lead to hypokalemia, decreased blood potassium levels. which of the following symptoms would likely present in a patient with hypokalemia?

a. leg cramps
b. decreased production of thyroid hormones
c. weak bones
d. shortness of breath

A

a. leg cramps

68
Q

glycogenolysis is a series of metabolic reactions that results in the formation of glycogen from many glucose molecules. which type of metabolic process glycogenolysis?

a. anabolism
b. catabolism

A

a. anabolism

69
Q

which statement about glycolysis is false?

a. glucose is oxidized to pyruvate in glycolysis
b. glycolysis overall produces more ATP than it requires
c. glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm
d. glycolysis is an example of aerobic respiration

A

d. glycolysis is an example of aerobic respiration

70
Q

where is the alimentary canal are hydrolyzed carbohydrates absorbed at the highest levels?

a. duodenum
b. oral cavity
c. jejunum
d. stomach

A

c. jejunum

71
Q

which of the following processes occurs only in muscle and liver cells?

a. glycogenolysis
b. glycogenesis
c. glycolysis
d. gluconeogenesis

A

a. glycogenolysis

72
Q

which of the following is required for emulsification to occur?

a. lingual lipase
b. lipoprotein lipase
c. bile
d. chylomicrons

A

c. bile

73
Q

which process results in the formation of new lipids?

a. lipogenesis
b. lipolysis
c. ketogenesis
d. beta-oxidation

A

a. lipogenesis

74
Q

as shown in the image, the patient’s right leg has edema whereas the left leg is relatively normal. which path will lympth travel from the left leg to return lymph to the circulation?

  • lymphatic capillaries
  • lymphatic vessels
  • right lymphatic duct
  • thoracic duct
  • right subclavian vein
  • left subclavian vein
  • lymphatic trunks
A
  • lymphatic capillaries
  • lymphatic vessels
  • lymphatic trunks
  • thoracic duct
  • left subclavian vein
75
Q

edema resuls then the lymphatic capillaries cannot take up excess fluid from the surrounding tissues. which of the following could be done to reduce edema conditions?

a. increase blood capillary blood colloidal osmotic pressure
b. increase lymphatic capillary permeability
c. increase blood capillary net filtration pressure
d. increase blood capillary hydrostatic pressure

A

a. increase blood capillary blood colloidal osmotic pressure
b. increase lymphatic capillary permeability

76
Q

a few minutes after the splinter entered your skin, you noticed that the skin around the splinter was red and warm which led you to believe that the inflammatory response was occurring. put the following steps of the inflammatory response in the correct order.

  • phagocytes and other immune cells enter injury site
  • mast cells migrate to the site of the injury
  • tissue around injury site becomes red, swollen, and warm
  • skin is punctured by splinter
  • blood flow to injury site increases
  • mast cells release histamine
A
  • skin is punctured by splinter
  • mast cells migrate to the site of the injury
  • mast cells release histamine
  • blood flow to injury site increases
  • phagocytes and other immune cells enter injury site
  • tissue around injury site becomes red, swollen, and warm
77
Q

if there was foreign bacteria on the splinter, which type of immune cell would attempt to destroy it via phagocytosis?

a. monocyte
b. neutrophil
c. macrophage
d. eosinophil

A

b. neutrophil

78
Q

with the presence of foreign bacteria, the classical pathway of the complement system is activated which ultimately destroys the bacteria. put the following steps of the classical pathway in the correct order. only place one step in each box and not all steps will be used.

  • MBL binds to carbohydrates on bacterial cell wall
  • the C3 protein is hydrolyzed to C3a and C3b proteins
  • antibodies bind to bacterial cell wall
  • histamine is released
  • the C1 protein binds to the antibodies
  • the C3b protein binds to the bacterial cell wall
A
  • antibodies bind to bacterial cell wall
  • the C1 protein binds to the antibodies
  • the C3 protein is hydrolyzed to C3a and C3b proteins
  • the C3b protein binds to the bacterial cell wall
79
Q

researchers investigated the impact of lysosome-associated membrane protein 2 (LAMP-2) on antigen presentation. they incubated wild-type (WT) and LAMP-2 deficient (L2D) human cells with human serum albumin (HSA) and measured T cell activation (which occurs after antigen presentation). what could researchers do to change the function of the L2D cells to match the WT cells?

a. increase the number of ribosomes in the rough ER
b. add more phospholipids to the plasma membrane
c. add more transport vesicles to the cytoplasm
d. decrease the pH of the lysosomes

A

d. decrease the pH of the lysosomes

80
Q

some covid-19 vaccines use mRNA technology in which SARS-CoV-2 mRNA fragments are injected into the body and then they are translated to viral proteins. the body’s immune system then reacts to the viral proteins. which type of cell recognizes the SARS-CoV-2 protein?

a. neutrophil
b. B cell
c. helper T cell
d. macrophage
e. cytotoxic T cell

A

d. macrophage

81
Q

after the SARS-CoV-2 antigen presents on the surface of the immune cell, the infected immune cells may be destroyed. which type of cell with destroy the infected cells?

a. memory T cells
b. cytotoxic T cells
c. regulatory T cells
d. helper T cells

A

b. cytotxic T cells

82
Q

after the SARS-CoV-2 antigen presents on the surface of the immune cell, the infected immune cells will stimulate antibody production from B cells. which type of antibody will be produced against the SARS-CoV-2 antigen?

a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgE
d. IgD

A

b. IgG

83
Q

while holding a yoga pose, you focus on inhaling through your nose. put the following structures in the correct order that air will pass through, from the nose to the lungs. place only one structure in each box. not all structures will be used.

  • larynx
  • trachea
  • secondary bronchi
  • nasopharynx
  • bronchiole
  • alveolar duct
  • laryngopharynx
  • oropharynx
  • nasal vestibule
  • nostril
  • oral cavity
  • terminal bronchiole
  • fauces
  • respiratory bronchiole
  • primary bronchi
  • alveolus
A
  • nostril
  • nasal vestibule
  • nasopharynx
  • oropharynx
  • laryngopharynx
  • larynx
  • trachea
  • primary bronchi
  • secondary bronchi
  • bronchiole
  • terminal bronchiole
  • respiratory bronchiole
  • alveolar duct
  • alveolus
84
Q

sometimes while you are holding a yoga pose, you are instructed to exhale forcefully from your mouth. put the following structures in the correct order that air will ture in each box.

  • nostril
  • terminal bronchiole
  • oropharynx
  • fauces
  • trachea
  • larynx
  • bronchiole
  • alveolus
  • nasopharynx
  • nasal vestibule
  • alveolar duct
  • secondary bronchi
  • oral cavity
A
  • alveolus
  • alveolar duct
  • respiratory bronchiole
  • terminal bronchiole
  • bronchiole
  • secondary bronchi
  • primary bronchi
  • trachea
  • larynx
  • larynxgopharynx
  • oropharynx
  • fauces
  • oral cavity
85
Q

tale a quiet breath in. which muscles contrated to make this occur?

a. diaphragm only
b. diaphragm, external intercostals, and scalenes only
c. diaphragm and external intercostals only
d. diaphragm, external intercostals, and internal intercostals only
e. internal intercostals and abdominal muscles only

A

c. diaphragm and external intercostals only

86
Q

which term is used to describe the amount of air leftover in the lungs after a normal exhalation of the tidal volume?

a. residul volume
b. functional residual capacity
c. expiratory reserve volume
d. vital capacity

A

b. functional residual capacity

87
Q

apneusis is an abnormal pattern of ventilation characterized by deep, gasping breaths following by short, insufficient exhalations. apneusis is usually caused by physical trauma to a certain respiratory group. damage to which respiratory group would likely cause apneusis?

a. ventral respiratory group
b. pontine respiratory group
c. dorsal respiratory group

A

b. pontine respiratory group

88
Q

in Denver, colorado the atmospheric pressure is 615 mmHg. if we assume the Denver atmosphere is only made up of nitrogen, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and water, and the partial pressures of nitrogen, carbon dioxide, and water are 483.39 mmHg, 0.25 mmHg, and 3.08 mmHg, respectively, what is the partial pressure of oxygen?

a. 128.28 mmHg
b. 486.72 mmHg
c. 131.61 mmHg
d. 1101.72 mmHg

A

a. 128.28 mmHg

89
Q

which of the following would result in a right shift of the oxygen saturation curve?

a. decrease in temperature
b. more acidic cellular conditions
c. expression of a hemoglobin isoform with a lower p50 value
d. decrease in BPG production

A

b. more acidic cellular conditions

90
Q

apnea is a medical condition in which breathing stops for some period of time. what would happen to chloride ion concentrations in erythrocytes if apnea occurs?

a. chloride ion concentration would increase
b. chloride ion concentration would decrease
c. chloride ion concentration would not change

A

a. chloride ion concentration would increase

91
Q

place all of the following structures in the correct order that the cheetos will pass through them, starting when you eat them to when they exit your body.

  • jejunum
  • anus
  • anal sphincters
  • body of stomach
  • ileum
  • sigmoid colon
  • cardia of stomach
  • fauces
  • ileocecal valve
  • anal canal
  • ascending colon
  • cardiac sphincter
  • oropharynx
  • oral cavity
  • descending colon
  • duodenum
  • transverse colon
  • esophagus
  • rectum
  • pyloric sphincter
  • pylorus of stomach
A
  • oral cavity
  • fauces
  • oropharynx
  • esophagus
  • cardiac sphincter
  • cardia of stomach
  • body of stomach
  • pylorus of stomach
  • pyloric sphincter
  • duodenum
  • jejunum
  • ileum
  • ileocecal valve
  • ascending colon
  • transverse colon
  • descending colon
  • sigmoid colon
  • rectum
  • anal canal
  • anal sphincters
  • anus
92
Q

when the cheetos enter your stomach, they are mechanically digested. which layer of the stomach wall contributes the most to mechanical digestion?

a. submucosa
b. muscularis
c. serosa
d. mucosa

A

b. muscularis

93
Q

as the cheetos move through your alimentary canal, they are chemically digested with many enzymes from the liver and pancreas. in which part of the alimentary canal does this occur?

a. duodenum
b. ileum
c. stomach
d. jejunum

A

a. duodenum

94
Q

the carbohydrate molecules in the cheetos are absorbed mostly by the small intestine. which type of tissue makes up the mucosa of the small intestine, which results in high absorption rates?

a. simple columnar epithelium with cilia
b. simple cuboidal epithelium with cilia
c. simple cuboidal epithelium with microvilli
d. simple columnar epithelium with microvilli

A

d. simple columnar epithelium with microvilli

95
Q

cholestasis is a condition where bile cannot flow from the liver to the small intestine. place the following structures in the correct order that bile would normally be able to pass through from the liver to the small intestine if not obstructed.

  • jejunum
  • duodenum
  • pancreatic duct
  • liver
  • cystic duct
  • ileum
  • common hepatic duct
  • right or left hepatic duct
  • common bile duct
A
  • liver
  • right or left hepatic duct
  • common hepatic duct
  • common bile duct
  • duodenum
96
Q

choledocholithiasis is the presence of gallstones in the ducts between the gallbladder and the small intestine. this prevents bile from flowing normally and can lead to jaundice and liver cell damage. place the following structures in the correct order that bile would normally be able to pass through from the gallbladder to the small intestine if not obstructed.

  • pancreatic duct
  • jejunum
  • left hepatic duct
  • gallbladder
  • common bile duct
  • right hepatic duct
  • duodenum
  • jejunum
  • ileum
  • cystic duct
A
  • gallbladder
  • cystic duct
  • common bile duct
  • duodenum
97
Q

the pancreatic duct may become obstructed or compressed which leads to acute pancreatitis. this would prevent pancreatic juice from reaching the small intestine. what is pancreatic juice composed of?

a. salts
b. sodium bicarbonate
c. digestive enzymes
d. bile
e. water

A

a. salts
b. sodium bicarbonate
c. digestive enzymes
e. water

98
Q

many digestive processes occur as the delicious pancakes make their way through your alimentary canal. place the digestive phases in the correct order in which they occur.

  • gastric phase
  • intestinal phase
  • cephalic phase
A
  • cephalic phase
  • gastric phase
  • intestinal phase
99
Q

after chewing the pancakes, you swallow and they enter your stomach. which digestive processes occur in the stomach?

a. chemical digestion
b. segmentation
c. peristalsis
d. absorption
e. mehcanical digestion
f. propulsion

A

a. chemical digestion
d. absorption
e. mehcanical digestion
f. propulsion

100
Q

when the pancakes enter your stomach, a hormone is released which stimulates the production of gastric acid to promote digestion. which hormone is this?

a. enterocrinin
b. secretin
c. gastrin
d. gastric inhibitory peptide

A

c. gastrin

101
Q

the larger biomolecules in the ingredients of pho are broken down to smaller biomolecules after ingested. which type of general reaction breaks down biomolecules?

a. catabolic reactions
b. anabolic reactions

A

a. catabolic reactions

102
Q

rice noodles are made of polysaccharides such as amylose which are ultimately broken down to glucose. for maximal ATP production, which step of cellular respiration does glucose enter?

a. glycolysis
b. TCA cycle
c. oxidative phosphorylation
d. pyruvate oxidation

A

a. glycolysis

103
Q

rice noodles are made of polysaccharides such as amylose which are ultimately broken down to glucose. suppose you are served a very large amount of rice noodles and you ate them all, leading to excess glucose in your body. which process converts excess glucose to glycogen for storage?

a. glycogenolysis
b. gluconeogenesis
c. glycolysis
d. glycogenesis

A

d. glycogenesis

104
Q

the beef in pho contains fats which are also broken down after ingestion. which process specifically breaks down fatty acids to be used for energy production in cellular respiration?

a. beta-oxidation
b. lipolysis
c. ketone body oxidation
d. lipogenesis

A

a. beta-oxidation

105
Q

both the beef and the tendon in pho have large quantities of proteins which are also broken down in the body. where in the body are proteins hydrolyzed by pepsin?

a. large intestine
b. oral cavity
c. small intestine
d. stomach

A

d. stomach

106
Q

many cancerous tumors rely on cytoplasmic anaerobic respiration for a cellular energy supply. which of the following would be an effective drug to limit the energy supply for these tumor cells?

a. a drug that promotes pyruvate uptake into the mitochondria
b. a drug that inhibits ATP synthase
c. a drug that transports glucose to lysosomes
d. a drug that prevents the formation of FADH2

A

c. a drug that transports glucose to lysosomes

107
Q

if your BMR is 2200 Calories, how many big macs would you need to eat a day to maintain a constant weight?

a. 2
b. 2200
c. 550
d. 4

A

d. 4

108
Q

exercising will burn Calories to help maintain a healthy weight. assume that running will consume 1000 Calories in one hour. how many minutes would you need to run to burn all of the Calories from one Big Mac?

a. 33
b. 1000
c. 550
d. 60

A

a. 33

109
Q

consider the thermoregulatory process of shivering thermogenesis. would this result in burning Calories from a Big Mac?

a. yes
b. no

A

a. yes

110
Q

which is the primary cell type of the lymphatic systems?

a. erythrocyte
b. monocyte
c. basophil
d. lymphocyte
e. neutrophil

A

d. lymphocyte

111
Q

oxygen diffuses from the alveoli in the lungs into capillaries. conversly, carbon dioxide diffuses from capillaries into the alveoli. which respiratory system function is this scenario describing?

a. speech production
b. moving air to and from the lungs
c. gas exchange
d. protecting respiratory structures
e. detecting odors

A

c. gas exchange

112
Q

which statement about minerals is false?

a. iodine is required for proper thyroid function
b. zinc is important for oxygen transport in the blood
c. potassium contributes to nerve and muscle cell function
d. calcium is important for bone formation and muscle cell function

A

b. zinc is important for oxygen transport in the blood

A and P Exam 2 (2 decks)

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