9B. Trauma Classifications Flashcards

1
Q

Name the trauma classification:

Distal phalangeal/nail

A

Rosenthal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name the trauma classification:

1st Metatarsophalangeal

A

Jahss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name the trauma classification:

5th metatarsal base

A

Stewart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name the trauma classification:

Lisfranc joint

A
  • Quenu & Kuss
  • Hardcastle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the Quenu & Kuss classification

A
  • Divergent fracture/dislocation of LisFranc’s joint
  • Convergent or homolateral fracture/dislocation of LisFranc’s joint
  • Isolateral or partial incongruity of LisFranc’s joint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the Hardcastle* classification

*with Myerson Modification

A
  • Type A: Total incongruity of the entire tarsometatarsal joint with displacement in the sagittal or transverse plane
  • Type B1: Partial incongruity with medial dislocation, displacement of the 1st metatarsal in isolation or in combination with displacement of the lesser tarsus
  • Type B2: Partial incongruity with lateral dislocation; 1st metatarsal unaffected
  • Type C1: Partial divergent displacement; the 1st met is displaced medially and any combination of the lateral 4 metatarsals is displaced laterally in the sagittal or transverse planes or both
  • Type C2: Total divergent displacement; the first metatarsal is displaced medially and any combination of the lateral 4 metatarsals is displaced laterally
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does Hardcastle compare to Quenu & Kuss?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name the trauma classification:

Navicular

A

Watson Jones

  • Type I: navicular tuberosity fracture
  • Type II: dorsal lip fracture
  • Type IIIA: transverse body fracture, non-displaced
  • Type IIIB: transverse body fracture, displaced
  • Type IV: navicular stress fracture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name the trauma classification:

Posterior tibial tendon

A

Conti (*based on MRI findings)

  • Type IA: 1-2 fine longitudinal splits in the PT tendon without tendon degeneration
  • Type IB: multiple longitudinal splits and fibrosis without tendon degeneration
  • Type II: narrowing of the PT tendon, longitudinal splits with tendon degeneration (intramural degeneration)
  • Type IIIA: diffuse tendon swelling with uniform tendon degeneration
  • Type IIIB: complete rupture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name the trauma classification:

Talar neck

A

Hawkins

  • Type I: non-displaced vertical fracture of the talar neck, body of the talus retains its normal position in the STJ and ankle joint
  • Type II: vertical fracture of talar neck with STJ subluxation or dislocation
  • Type III: vertical fracture of the talar neck with STJ and ankle joint dislocation. All three sources of blood supply are disrupted
  • Type IV: vertical fracture of the talar neck with STJ, ankle and talonavicular joint dislocation. All three sources of blood supply are disrupted.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Name the trauma classification:

Talar body

A

Sneppen

  • GROUP I - Transchondral or compression fractures of the talar dome
  • GROUP II - Coronal, sagittal or horizontal shearing fractures involving the entire talar body
    • Type I: Coronal or Sagittal Fracture
      • A: Non-displaced fracture
      • B: Displacement ONLY at the trochlear articular surface
      • C: Displacement at the trochlear surface w/ dislocation of the subtalar joint
      • D: Talar body fragments are dislocated from the subtalar and ankle joints
    • Type II: Horizontal Shearing Fracture
      • A: Non-displaced fracture
      • B: Displaced fracture
  • GROUP III - Fractures of the posterior tubercle of the talus
  • GROUP IV - Fracture of the lateral process of the talus
  • GROUP V - Crush fractures of the talar body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name the trauma classification(s):

Talar dome

A

Berndt-Hardy,

Fallot & Wy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the following trauma classification:

Berndt-Hardy

A

For TALAR DOME fractures: four stages of osteochondral talar dome
fractures.

  • STAGE I - Small area of compressed subchondral bone
  • STAGE II - Partially detached fragment of an osteochondral fracture
  • STAGE III - Detached fragment of an osteochondral fracture remaining in the defect
  • STAGE IV - Osteochondral fracture fragment loose in joint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name the trauma classification(s):

Calcaneus

A
  • Rowe
  • Essex-Lopresti
  • Sanders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the following classification?

Rowe

A

Calcaneal fractures

  • Type I
    • Type IA: fracture of the medial tubercle
    • Type IB: fracture of sustentaculum tali
    • Type IC: fracture of the anterior process
  • Type II
    • Type IIA: beak fracture (no Achilles involvement)
    • Type IIB: tendo-Achilles avulsion fracture
  • Type III: extra-articular body fracture
  • Type IV: fracture involving the STJ (intra-articular) without joint depression
  • Type V
    • Type VA: comminuted, intra-articular fractures with central depression
    • Type VB: comminuted fractures with severe joint depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the following classification?

Essex-Lopresti

A

Calcaneal fracture

  • Type 1 – tongue fracture (vertical fracture line) without STJ involvement
  • Type 2 – joint depression fracture (horizontal fracture line) with STJ involvement
17
Q

What is the following classification?

SANDERS

A

Calcaneal fractures based on CT axial and coronal plane images

  • Type I: non-displaced
  • Type II: 2 part posterior facet fracture (one fracture line)
    • (A): fracture through lateral column
    • (B): fracture through central column
    • (C): fracture through medial column
  • Type III: 3 part posterior facet fracture with central depression (2 fracture lines)
    • (AB): fracture through the lateral and central columns
    • (AC): fracture through lateral and medial columns
    • (BC): fracture through central and medial columns
  • Type IV: 4 part posterior facet fracture
18
Q

Name the trauma classification:

Anterior process calcaneal fracture

A

Degan

  • Type I: non-displaced fracture usually involving only the tip of the process
  • Type II: displaced fracture that does not involve the articular surface
  • Type III: large displaced fragment that tends to involve the articular surface of the CC joint
19
Q

Name the trauma classification:

Ankle Sprains

A
  • Dias
  • O’Donoghue
  • Leach
  • Rasmussen
20
Q

What is the following classification?

O’Donoghue

A

Ankle sprain

  • Grade I: partial rupture of the CFL
  • Grade II: complete rupture of the ATFL
  • Grade III: complete rupture of the ATFL, CFL and/or PTFL
  • Grade IV: complete rupture of all 3 lateral collateral ligaments and partial rupture of the deltoid ligament
21
Q

Name the trauma classification:

Physeal ankle fracture

A

Dias & Tachdjian

  • Supination-inversion
  • Supination-plantarflexion
  • Supination-external rotation
  • Pronation/eversion-external rotation
  • Axial compression
22
Q

Name the trauma classification:

Epiphyseal ankle fracture

A

Salter-Harris

SMACK – Same, Metaphysis, Articulation, Continuous, Krush

SALTR - Same, Above, Lower, Through, Really bad

  1. fracture through physis
  2. fracture through physis into metaphysis
  3. intra-articular fracture through physis into epiphysis
  4. intra-articular fracture through epiphysis, physis, and metaphysis
  5. crush injury
23
Q

Name the trauma classification:

Ankle fracture

A

Lauge-Hansen

  • Supination Adduction
  • Pronation-Abduction
  • Supination-External rotation
  • Pronation-External rotation
24
Q

Name the trauma classification:

Pilon fracture

(*distal tibia metaphysis)

A
  • Reudi & Allgower
  • Dias & Tachdjian
25
Q

What is the following classification:

Ruedi & Allgower

A
  • Type I: fissure fracture without significant displacement
  • Type II: fissure fracture with significant articular incongruity and displacement
  • Type III: compression fracture with significant displacement of the WB cancellous segments of the metaphysis
26
Q

Name the trauma classification:

Achilles Rupture

A

Kuwada

  • Type I: partial rupture of tendon
  • Type II: complete rupture of tendon, < 3.0 cm gap
  • Type III: complete rupture, 3.0-6.0 cm gap
  • Type IV: complete rupture, > 6.0 cm gap
27
Q

Name the trauma classification:

Open Fractures

A

Gustillo Anderson

28
Q

Name classification system for:

Non-unions

A

Weber and Cech

  • Hypervascular (Hypertrophic) Non-unions:
    • Elephant foot
    • Horse hoof
    • Oligotrophic
  • Avascular (Atrophic) Non-unions:
    • Torsion wedge
    • Comminuted
    • Defect
    • Atrophic
29
Q

Name the trauma classification(s):

Frostbite

A
  • Orr & Fainer
  • Washburn
30
Q

What is the following trauma classification?

Orr & Fainer

A

A classification for frostbite developed after the Korean War that consisted of four degrees

31
Q

What is the following trauma classification:

Washburn

A

A frostbite classification developed after Orr&Fainer

  • Orr & Fainer classification was later challenged by Washburn, who believed that the former classification could only be applied retrospectively unless the patient was seen before re-warming took place
  • Washburn therefore devised a simpler two-part classification known as (1) superficial and (2) deep