9.0 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) II

Question 1

<div>Concerning severe iron deficiency</div>

<div>A. red blood cells are enlarged</div>

<div>B. only erythropoiesis is affected</div>

<div>C. iron in vegetable produce is absorbed more efficiently than iron in animal produce</div>

<div>D. men and women are equally effected commonly</div>

<div>E. disease worsens in pregnancy</div>

Answer 1

<div>Concerning severe iron deficiency</div>

<div>A. red blood cells are enlarged (FALSE)</div>

<div>B. only erythropoiesis is affected (FALSE)</div>

<div>C. iron in vegetable produce is absorbed more efficiently than iron in animal produce (FALSE)</div>

<div>D. men and women are equally effected commonly (FALSE)</div>

<div>E. disease worsens in pregnancy (TRUE)</div>

Question 2

<div>The following are pro-thrombotic</div>

<div>A. Microparticles</div>

<div>B. plasminogen activator inhibitors</div>

<div>C. nitric oxide</div>

<div>D. fibrin</div>

E. Von Willebrand factor

Answer 2

<div>The following are pro-thrombotic</div>

<div>A. Microparticles (TRUE)</div>

<div>B. plasminogen activator inhibitors (TRUE)</div>

<div>C. nitric oxide (FALSE)</div>

<div>D. fibrin (TRUE)</div>

E. Von Willebrand factor (TRUE)

Question 3

<div>In the development of an atherosclerotic plaque</div>

<div>A. endothelial cells are injured by oxidised lipoproteins</div>

<div>B. smooth muscle cells secrete collagen</div>

<div>C. endothelial cells are injured by laminar blood flow</div>

<div>D. smooth muscle cells secrete collagenase</div>

<div>E. endothelial cell injury only occurs at arterial branch points</div>

Answer 3

<div>In the development of an atherosclerotic plaque</div>

<div>A. endothelial cells are injured by oxidised lipoproteins (TRUE)</div>

<div>B. smooth muscle cells secrete collagen (TRUE)</div>

<div>C. endothelial cells are injured by laminar blood flow (FALSE)</div>

<div>D. smooth muscle cells secrete collagenase (TRUE)</div>

<div>E. endothelial cell injury only occurs at arterial branch points (FALSE)</div>

Question 4

<div>The following statements are true</div>

<div>A. Bcl2 is a pro-survival protein</div>

<div>B. P53 inactivates p21</div>

<div>C. the APC gene is often mutated by frameshift mutations</div>

<div>D. Bcr-Abl is formed as the consequence of a chromosomal inversion</div>

<div>E. Ras proteins are activated by GTP hydrolysis</div>

Answer 4

<div>The following statements are true</div>

<div>A. Bcl2 is a pro-survival protein (TRUE)</div>

<div>B. P53 inactivates p21 (FALSE)</div>

<div>C. the APC gene is often mutated by frameshift mutations (FALSE)</div>

<div>D. Bcr-Abl is formed as the consequence of a chromosomal inversion (TRUE)</div>

<div>E. Ras proteins are activated by GTP hydrolysis (FALSE)</div>

Question 5

<div>Concerning neoplasia</div>

<div>A. leiomyosarcoma is a benign tumour arising from muscle</div>

<div>B. an adenoma is a benign tumour of glandular epithelium</div>

<div>C. leukemia is a malignancy</div>

<div>D. adenocarcinoma of the cervix is a benign neoplasm</div>

<div>E. benign tumours are never fatal</div>

Answer 5

<div>Concerning neoplasia</div>

<div>A. leiomyosarcoma is a benign tumour arising from muscle (FALSE)</div>

<div>B. an adenoma is a benign tumour of glandular epithelium (TRUE)</div>

<div>C. leukemia is a malignancy (TRUE)</div>

<div>D. adenocarcinoma of the cervix is a benign neoplasm (FALSE)</div>

<div>E. benign tumours are never fatal (FALSE)</div>

Question 6

<div>Concerning oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes</div>

<div>A. silencing of tumour suppressor genes can occur via RNA methylation</div>

<div>B. inactivation of Rb often occurs via chromosomal rearrangements</div>

<div>C. in general, oncogenes require bi-allelic activation</div>

<div>D. mutations in DNA polymerases are an occasional source of genetic instability</div>

<div>E. the p53 gene is mutated in Li-Fraumeni Syndrome</div>

Answer 6

<div>Concerning oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes</div>

<div>A. silencing of tumour suppressor genes can occur via RNA methylation (FALSE)</div>

<div>B. inactivation of Rb often occurs via chromosomal rearrangements (FALSE)</div>

<div>C. in general, oncogenes require bi-allelic activation (FALSE)</div>

<div>D. mutations in DNA polymerases are an occasional source of genetic instability (TRUE)</div>

<div>E. the p53 gene is mutated in Li-Fraumeni Syndrome (TRUE)</div>

Question 7

<div>In cell cycle control</div>

<div>A. P16INK4a is a tumour suppressor gene</div>

<div>B. Rb promotes G1/S transition</div>

<div>C. phosphorylation of Rb is mediated by CDK4</div>

<div>D. overactivation of cyclin D1 inhibits cell cycle progression</div>

<div>E. P21 inhibits the cyclinD1/CDK4 complex</div>

Answer 7

<div>In cell cycle control</div>

<div>A. P16INK4a is a tumour suppressor gene (TRUE)</div>

<div>B. Rb promotes G1/S transition (FALSE)</div>

<div>C. phosphorylation of Rb is mediated by CDK4 (TRUE)</div>

<div>D. overactivation of cyclin D1 inhibits cell cycle progression (FALSE)</div>

<div>E. P21 inhibits the cyclinD1/CDK4 complex (TRUE)</div>

Question 8

<div>Regarding DNA damage repair</div>

<div>A. failure of mismatch repair/microsatellite instability occurs in some sporadic colon cancers</div>

<div>B. inactivation of MLH1 is often via methylation of its promoter</div>

<div>C. BRACA1 prepares single strand ends for base paring to the other helix</div>

<div>D. defects in cell cycle checkpoints can contribute to genetic instability</div>

<div>E. DNA breaks are repaired by the homologous recombination or mismatch repair pathway</div>

Answer 8

<div>Regarding DNA damage repair</div>

<div>A. failure of mismatch repair/microsatellite instability occurs in some sporadic colon cancers (TRUE)</div>

<div>B. inactivation of MLH1 is often via methylation of its promoter (TRUE)</div>

<div>C. BRACA1 prepares single strand ends for base paring to the other helix (FALSE)</div>

<div>D. defects in cell cycle checkpoints can contribute to genetic instability (TRUE)</div>

<div>E. DNA breaks are repaired by the homologous recombination or mismatch repair pathway (FALSE)</div>

Question 9

<div>Concerning carcinogenic agents</div>

<div>A. they can be identified by an Ames test</div>

<div>B. all carcinogens are also mutagens</div>

<div>C. naphthylamine exposure is associated with an increased risk of bladder cancer</div>

<div>D. asbestos exposure is linked to the development of mesothelioma, a cancer of adrenal tissue</div>

<div>E. UV light causes C to A transitions</div>

Answer 9

<div>Concerning carcinogenic agents</div>

<div>A. they can be identified by an Ames test (TRUE)</div>

<div>B. all carcinogens are also mutagens (FALSE)</div>

<div>C. naphthylamine exposure is associated with an increased risk of bladder cancer (TRUE)</div>

<div>D. asbestos exposure is linked to the development of mesothelioma, a cancer of adrenal tissue (FALSE)</div>

<div>E. UV light causes C to A transitions (FALSE)</div>

Question 10

<div>With respect to infectious agents and cancer</div>

<div>A. Helicobacter pylori induces genomic instability</div>

<div>B. vaccination against HPV16/18 prevents cervical cancer</div>

<div>C. EBV is associated with the development of cancer in immunosuppressed individuals</div>

<div>D. Schistosoma haematobium is associated with colon cancer in humans</div>

<div>E. Kaposi’s sarcoma is a common problem in AIDS/HIV patients and is caused by HTLV-1</div>

Answer 10

<div>With respect to infectious agents and cancer</div>

<div>A. Helicobacter pylori induces genomic instability (TRUE)</div>

<div>B. vaccination against HPV16/18 prevents cervical cancer (TRUE)</div>

<div>C. EBV is associated with the development of cancer in immunosuppressed individuals (TRUE)</div>

<div>D. Schistosoma haematobium is associated with colon cancer in humans (FALSE)</div>

<div>E. Kaposi’s sarcoma is a common problem in AIDS/HIV patients and is caused by HTLV-1 (FALSE)</div>

Question 11

<div>Which statement is TRUE?</div>

<div>A. Only malignant, rather than benign tumours can cause death</div>

<div>B. Dysplasia is the change from one cell type to another in response to a stimulus </div>

<div>C. A key feature of benign tumours is their ability to metastasise </div>

<div>D. A lipoma is a benign tumour<br></br> E. Leiomyosarcoma is a benign tumour</div>

Answer 11

D. A lipoma is a benign tumour

Question 12

<div>Which statement about bacterial cells is FALSE?</div>

<div>A. They do not undergo meiosis</div>

<div>B. They have unstable genomes</div>

<div>C. They divide by binary fission </div>

<div>D. They have an extensive cytoskeleton <br></br> E. They are often polycistronic</div>

Answer 12

D. They have an extensive cytoskeleton

Question 13

<div>Which statement is FALSE?</div>

<div>A. The outer membrane of bacterial cell walls contains porins </div>

<div>B. Haemophilus influenzae has a polysaccharide capsule </div>

<div>C. Transposons are carried by plasmids </div>

<div>D. Vibrio cholera has a curved rod shape <br></br> E. Lipid A is highly variable</div>

Answer 13

E. Lipid A is highly variable

Question 14

<div>What statement is TRUE?</div>

<div>A. Vancomycin binds the 30S ribosomal subunit </div>

<div>B. Tetracycline binds 50S ribosomal subunit </div>

<div>C. Trimethoprim inhibits dihydrofolate reductase </div>

<div>D. Chloramphenicol inhibits peptidyl transferase activity <br></br> E. Fluoroquinolones alter 16S rRNA in the 30S subunit</div>

Answer 14

C. Trimethoprim inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

Question 15

<div>Which statement about <i>Mycobacterium tuberculosis </i>is FALSE?</div>

<div>A. TB causes caseating granulomas</div>

<div>B. TB inhibits phagosome-lysosome fusion</div>

<div>C. TB secretes SMAD4 protein to downregulate reactive oxygen species </div>

D. The tuberculin skin test assesses CD4⁺ T-cell response <br></br> E. It is ‘acid-fast’ on gram staining

Answer 15

C. TB secretes SMAD4 protein to downregulate reactive oxygen species

Question 16

<div>Which state about bacteria toxins is INCORRECT?</div>

<div>A. Shiga toxin is an adenylate cyclase </div>

<div>B. C. difficile toxin glycosylates GTPases</div>

<div>C. Cytotoxic necrotising factors are deamidases </div>

<div>D. Botulinum toxin result in a flaccid paralysis <br></br> E. Superantigens bridge MHC Class II molecules</div>

Answer 16

A. Shiga toxin is an adenylate cyclase

Question 17

<div>Which statement about Chlamydia is TRUE?</div>

<div>A. Chlamydia in an extracellular bacteria </div>

<div>B. Its reticulate body cannot replicate </div>

<div>C. It can cause trachoma </div>

<div>D. Chlamydia has a larger genome than Salmonella <br></br> E. It’s elementary body has a high metabolic activity</div>

Answer 17

C. It can cause trachoma

Question 18

<div>Which statement about <i>Streptococcus pyogenes </i>is TRUE?</div>

<div>A. Its causes necrotising fasciitis </div>

<div>B. M protein binds C5a</div>

<div>C. It is Gram negative cocci </div>

<div>D. Streptolysins lyses clots <br></br> E. It is a Lancefield Group B pathogen</div>

Answer 18

A. Its causes necrotising fasciitis

Question 19

“<div>Which statement about Cholera is TRUE?</div> <div>A. The toxin structure is A₅B</div> <div>B. The toxin causes reduced levels of cAMP</div> <div>C. Cholera binds to Heparin-Binding Epidermal Growth Factor (HB-EGF) on the cell surface </div> <div>D. Cholera toxin acts on G-proteins (Gα_S)<br></br> E. Vibrio cholera colonises the colon</div>”

Answer 19

D. Cholera toxin acts on G-proteins (Gα_S)

Question 20

<div>What statement is INCORRECT? </div>

<div>A. Haemophilus influenzae is a gram positive rod </div>

<div>B. Helicobacter pylori is a gram negative and helically shaped </div>

<div>C. Neisseria meningitidis is a gram negative coccus</div>

<div>D. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a gram positive coccus <br></br> E. E.coli is a gram negative rod</div>

Answer 20

A. Haemophilus influenzae is a gram positive rod

Question 21

<div>Regarding <i>Toxoplasma gondii,</i> the following are correct, EXCEPT</div>

<div>A. The cat is the definitive host </div>

<div>B. They are unicellular organisms </div>

<div>C. It is an obligate intracellular parasite </div>

<div>D. Human are the only intermediate host <br></br> E. Produces flu-like symptoms in healthy individuals</div>

Answer 21

D. Human are the only intermediate host

Question 22

<div>Regarding Malaria, which statement is INCORRECT?</div>

<div>A. It is transmitted by <i>Anopheles </i>mosquito </div>

<div>B. <i>P. ovale</i> causes the greatest proportion of cases</div>

<div>C. Sporozoites infect hepatocytes </div>

<div>D. Merozoites infect red blood cells <br></br> E. The oocyst releases sporozoites</div>

Answer 22

B.<i>P. ovale</i>causes the greatest proportion of cases

Question 23

<div>Which of the following is NOT a feature of reversible cell injury?</div>

<div>A. Nuclear chromatin clumping </div>

<div>B. Loss of cristae</div>

<div>C. Lysosome rupture </div>

<div>D. Lipid vacuoles <br></br> E. Plasma membrane blebbing</div>

Answer 23

C. Lysosome rupture

Question 24

<div>Which of these is NOT a feature of infarcts?</div>

<div>A. Histological changes occur within 30 minutes </div>

<div>B. Myocardial infarcts are described as pale infarcts </div>

<div>C. The infarction is replaced by scar tissue </div>

<div>D. Haemorrhage can be an early feature of infarcts <br></br> E. The brain shows liquefactive necrosis</div>

Answer 24

A. Histological changes occur within 30 minutes

Question 25

Which of the following is CORRECT?

A. Poikilocytosis is never a feature of iron deficiency anaemia

B. Hereditary spherocytosis is an extravascular haemolytic anaemia

C. Erythrocytes are hypochromic in iron deficiency anaemia

D. A peptic ulcer classically results in megaloblastic anaemia
E. The intrinsic receptor is in the proximal duodenum

Answer 25

C. Erythrocytes are hypochromic in iron deficiency anaemia

Question 26

Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding atherosclerosis?

A. Collagenase is secreted to assist with matrix remodelling

B. Reactive oxygen species active vascular smooth muscle cells

C. Smooth muscle cells migrate but do not change their phenotype

D. Following activation, smooth muscle cells proliferate
E. Endothelial cell injury is the initiator of atherosclerosis 

Answer 26

C. Smooth muscle cells migrate but do not change their phenotype

Question 27

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A. Thrombi in veins contain Line of Zahn (laminations)

B. Cigarette smoking is not a risk factor for thrombosis

C. Immobilisation is not a risk factor for thrombosis

D. Monocytes/macrophages are involved in the organisation of thrombi
E. Thrombi are soft and jelly-like in substance

Answer 27

D. Monocytes/macrophages are involved in the organisation of thrombi

Question 28

Which definition is INCORRECT?

A. Poikilocytosis; abnormal variation in cell shape

B. Reticulocyte; nucleated red cell precursor

C. Normoblast; nucleated red cell precursor

D. Megaloblast; abnormally large red cell precursor
E. Anisocytosis; abnormal variations in size 

Answer 28

B. Reticulocyte; nucleated red cell precursor

Question 29

Regarding HIV, which statement is CORRECT?

A. The HIV capsid is spherical

B. HIV-1 is less virulent than HIV-2

C. A long terminal repeat is only present at the N-terminus of the provirus genome

D. gp120 is heavily glycosylated
E. Homozygotes with a 32bp deletion of CCR5 cannot be infected with HIV

Answer 29

D. gp120 is heavily glycosylated 

Question 30

Regarding the influenza virus, which statement is INCORRECT?

A. Antigenic drift refers to haemagglutinin amino acid mutations

B. The HA molecule is a trimer

C. The M2 protein is found in the virion core

D. Avian haemagglutinin prefers α 2’-3’ linkage between sialic acid and galactosidase
E. Neuraminidase cleaves sialic acid 

Answer 30

C. The M2 protein is found in the virion core

Question 31

Regarding hepatitis viruses, which statement is CORRECT?

A. The Hepatitis B virus, but not Hepatitis C virus, increases the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma

B. Hepatitis C most commonly causes an acute infection

C. The HBsAg gene encodes a reverse transcriptase

D. Hepatitis C is an RNA virus
E. Age of HBV infection does not affect the clinical outcome 

Answer 31

D. Hepatitis C is an RNA virus 

Question 32

Regarding prion disease, which statement is CORRECT?

A. The majority of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is familial

B. Normal PrP is a GPI-anchored protein

C. Normal prion protein is highly variable within mammalian species

D. Kuru is a prion disease of sheep
E. The body mounts an adaptive response to misfolded prion proteins 

Answer 32

B. Normal PrP is a GPI-anchored protein

Question 33

Regarding fungal infections, which statement is TRUE?

A. Filamentous moulds are a normal part of human flora

B. Histoplasma has pH-dependant dimorphism regulating gene expression

C. Candida albicans causes pityriasis versicolor

D. Cryptococcus neoformans typical causes pneumonia in patients
E. Pneumocystis is treated with co-trimoxazole

Answer 33

E. Pneumocystis is treated with co-trimoxazole

Question 34

Regarding fungi, which statement is CORRECT?

A. Fluconazole acts on fungal microtubules

B. Nystatin inhibits ergosterol function

C. Candida is a septate filamentous mould

D. Aspergillus is an aseptate filamentous mould
E. The fungal wall has an outer layer of chitin microfibrils

Answer 34

C. Candida is a septate filamentous mould

Question 35

Which of the following statements are TRUE?

A. Neutrophils act as sentinel cells 

B. Innate Lymphoid Cells 1 assist in immunity against viruses 

C. Basophils have phagocytic activity 

D. IFN-γ activates macrophages 
E. Innate Lymphoid Cells 2 protect against fungi 

Answer 35

Which of the following statements are TRUE?

A. Neutrophils act as sentinel cells (FALSE)

B. Innate Lymphoid Cells 1 assist in immunity against viruses (TRUE)

C. Basophils have phagocytic activity (FALSE)

D. IFN-γ activates macrophages (TRUE)
E. Innate Lymphoid Cells 2 protect against fungi (FALSE)

Question 36

Which statement about soluble components of the innate system is FALSE?

A. Leukotrienes are formed through the lipoxygenase pathway

B. Platelet activating factor activates neutrophils

C. Plasmin cleaves C3

D. Thromboxane is derived from cell membrane phospholipids
E. Bradykinin actives C3

Answer 36

C. Plasmin cleaves C3

Question 37

Select the INCORRECT statement

A. Neutrophils secrete CXCL8

B. Endothelial cells express CD31

C. E-Selectin binds Sialyl-Lewis X

D. Monocytes express VLA-4
E. Neutrophils express LFA-1

Answer 37

C. E-Selectin binds Sialyl-Lewis X

Question 38

Select the CORRECT statement

A. Complement receptor 1 (CR1) binds C3a

B. Properdin is a negative regulator of the alternative pathway

C. Deficiency in Decay-accelerating factor (DAF) leads to autoimmune-like conditions

D. The classical complement pathway is the first to act
E. The alternative pathway involves antibody-antigen interactions 

Answer 38

C. Deficiency in Decay-accelerating factor (DAF) leads to autoimmune-like conditions

Question 39

Which antibody is most prevalent in serum?

A. IgM

B. IgD

C. IgE

D. IgG
E. IgA

Answer 39

D. IgG

Question 40

Which statement about MHC Class II molecules is INCORRECT?

A. They are processes via the endoplasmic reticulum

B. The peptide binding groove is closed

C. HLA-DR is an isotype of MHC Class II molecules

D. The peptide binding groove binds peptides 13-25 amino acids in length
E. They are made from two transmembrane chains 

Answer 40

B. The peptide binding groove is closed

Question 41

Which statement about T cells is CORRECT?

A. CDR1 is the most variable region in the T cell receptor

B. T cell receptors have a secreted component

C. The T_H2 signature transcription factor is T-BET

D. The T cell receptor undergoes somatic hypermutation
E. CD28 on the T cell receptor binds B7 on antigen presenting cells

Answer 41

E. CD28 on the T cell receptor binds B7 on antigen presenting cells

Question 42

Which pairing is the odd one out?

A. Type 1 diabetes and pancreatic cell antigen

B. Myasthenia gravis and acetylcholine receptor

C. Graves’ disease and TSH receptor

D. Mixed essential cryoglobulinemia and myelin basic protein
E. Goodpastures’ syndrome and collagen type IV 

Answer 42

D. Mixed essential cryoglobulinemia and myelin basic protein 

Question 43

Which statement is CORRECT?

A. In ABO blood grouping A allele adds a terminal galactose

B. The Arthus reaction is a type II hypersensitivity reaction

C. In type I hypersensitivity reactions, the mast cells release serotonin

D. Immune complex mediated hypersensitivity is mediated within 24-72 hours
E. Pigeon fanciers lung is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction 

Answer 43

C. In type I hypersensitivity reactions, the mast cells release serotonin

Question 44

Cytokine expression helps determine the T cell lineage. Which cytokine and T cell pairing is INCORRECT?

A. IL-6 stimulates T_FH differentiation

B. IL-12 stimulates T_H1 differentiation

C. IFN-γ stimulates T_H­2 differentiation

D. IL-23 stimulates T_H17 differentiation
E. IL-4 stimulates T_H2 differentiation 

Answer 44

C. IFN-γ stimulates T_H­2 differentiation