9. EMERGENCY PROCEDURES AND INCIDENTS

Question 1

What are the conditions of emergency and how are they defined?

Answer 1

There are 2 conditions of emergency, they are:

a. DISTRESS. A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance.
b. URGENCY. A condition concerning the safety of an AS or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight, but does not require immediate assistance.

Question 2

What are the 2 parts of an emergency transmission and what information should be passed?

Answer 2

a. Preliminary emergency call:
(1) DISTRESS = MAYDAY x 3, callsign once.
(2) URGENCY = PAN PAN x 3, callsign once.
b. The emergency message shall contain the following information (time and circumstance permitting) and, whenever possible, should be passed in the following order:
(1) MAYDAY/MAYDAY/MAYDAY or PAN PAN/PAN PAN/PAN PAN
(2) Name of the station addressed (when appropriate and time and circumstance permitting)
(3) Callsign
(4) Type of AS
(5) Nature of the emergency
(6) Intention of the person in command
(7) Present or last known position, level and heading
(8) Pilot qualifications (such as: student pilot; no instrument qualification; IMC Rating; Full Instrument Rating)
(9) Any other useful information (e.g: endurance, POB, AS colour/markings, survival aids)

Question 3

What are the states of readiness for AS emergencies?

Answer 3

a. State 1. AS Accident: A crash on, or seen from an aerodrome.
b. State 2. Full Emergency: An incident on the aerodrome where doubt exists about the safety of the AS its occupants, or to anticipate a “State 1”. The ARFF vehicles and emergency medical services are deployed to the incident or to pre-arranged positions on the aerodrome.
c. State 3. Local Standby: A precautionary measure to cater for a possible incident on the aerodrome or when an AS has crashed off the aerodrome but the position is unknown. ARRF vehicles are crewed with engines running at their normal locations.

Question 4

What is the standard emergency message format as passed by controllers to the emergency services?

Answer 4

a. “STATE 1, STATE 1, STATE 1”, “Emergency State 2” or
“Emergency State 3” as appropriate.

b. Type of AS and nature of emergency (e.g. Hawk crash; Typhoon left-hand utilities failure).
c. Location.
d. POB - whether they have ejected/bailed out.
e. Any complications (e.g. crash on to buildings or vehicles).
f. Whether AS is armed or carrying hazardous cargo.
g. Any additional information of use to emergency services.

Question 5

What should be considered when releasing Airfield Rescue Fire Fighting (ARFF) assets to incidents other than support to flying Ops.

Answer 5

ARFF assets are to respond to all incidents (both airfield and structural) across the MOD estate where local conditions allow, as a priority, when life may be at risk. Any consequent effect on stn operations through a reduction or total loss of Cx Cat, should be considered secondary to the saving of life.

The Supervisor/ATCO IC will ultimately be responsible for the tactical decision to release ARFF assets; therefore the Stn is to have guidance in place in the form of Local Orders, which clearly define unit priorities and support the decision making process at that unit.

Question 6

What are the 2 types of Emergency Control?

Answer 6

a. Executive Control. Vested in the D&D controller for the supervision of the ATC handling of an emergency incident.
b. Operational Control. Delegated by the D&D controller to one or more other ATC agencies in respect of the procedural and control instructions to be passed to the pilot in emergency.

Question 7

What is the definition of an AIRPROX?

Answer 7

An AIRPROX is a situation in which, in the opinion of the pilot or air traffic services personnel, the distance between AS as well as their relative positions and speed, have been such that the safety of the AS involved was or may have been compromised.

Question 8

What details should the pilot include in an initial report of an AIRPROX?

Answer 8

a. Callsign and type of AS.
b. Time of AIRPROX.
c. Position of AIRPROX.
d. Height/Altitude/Flight Level and AS attitude.
e. Heading and true airspeed.
f. Whether IMC/VMC and estimated visibility.
g. Details of the AIRPROX and, if possible, a description of the other AS including type, markings, nationality, callsign and any other information.
h. Overseas – The control agency providing the ATC service if applicable.

Question 9

When is a fixed-wing AS overdue?

Answer 9

If it fails to arrive at or is not in RT communication with the destination aerodrome at the earliest of the following:

(1) ETA radar entry or other specified terminal calling point.
(2) ETA overhead or landing.

Note: Controllers should initiate overdue action outwith the criteria stated above if there are any doubts regarding the safety of an AS.

Question 10

When is a rotary-wing AS overdue?

Answer 10

If it fails to arrive at or is not in RT communication with its destination aerodrome:

(1) For flights over water - at the end of its notified endurance.
(2) For flights over land - one hour after the end of its notified endurance.

Note: Controllers should initiate overdue action outwith the criteria stated above if there are any doubts regarding the safety of an AS.

Question 11

What does “SAROPS ON FULL RESTRICTIONS/NO RESTRICTIONS” indicate?

Answer 11

a. SAROPS ON FULL RESTRICTIONS. 243.00 MHz and 121.5 MHz are being used for homing; practice emergencies cannot be accepted on these frequencies.
b. SAROPS ON NO RESTRICTIONS. Although SAROPs are in progress, practice emergencies can be accepted.

Question 12

What is a safety signal?

Answer 12

The safety signal, which does not indicate an emergency within an AS, indicates that the Stn is about to transmit a message concerning the safety of navigation, (e.g. loose balloon), or providing important meteorological warnings, (e.g. severe icing conditions). The call is preceded by the word “SECURITE” 3 times on RT, or TTT 3 times on WT.

Question 13

Who may originate an AS diversion?

Answer 13

a. The AS Operating Authority.
b. ATC.
c. The AS Commander.

Question 14

What is a Grade 1 Diversion?

Answer 14

A Grade One Diversion is mandatory and should only be originated by the AS Operating Authority. It can be passed to the Commander either through ATC or on the channels of communication of the AS Operating Authority. If the Commander considers he cannot comply he should inform the appropriate authority of his reasons and indicate his intentions, or request other instructions.

Question 15

What is a Grade 2 Diversion?

Answer 15

A Grade 2 Diversion is advisory and should be originated by the AS Operating Authority or ATC. When originated by ATC personnel they should, when possible, obtain the approval of the AS Operating Authority. When it is not possible to obtain authority from the Operating Authority, ATC should inform the AS Operating Authority at the earliest opportunity. A Commander who decides to continue to his original destination after receiving a Grade 2 diversion should inform the AS operating authority through ATC of his intention.

Question 16

Describe the Radar Actual/Practice Forced Landing Procedure.

Answer 16

The procedure permits recovery from above a cloud layer or in conditions of poor visibility following an engine failure, as follows:

a. The pilot is given a steer for the airfield corrected as necessary, to permit a homing to overhead.
b. The pilot may have lost some instruments, including navigation displays, and therefore may not be able to give an accurate position report. Identification should be as expeditious as possible by whatever means available. The pilot should be able to squawk SSR Code 7700 in an actual emergency.
c. Once identified the pilot is given ranges from the overhead at one nm intervals. While gliding towards the overhead, the pilot compares range with height in thousands of feet and adjusts the glide to ultimately achieve a one in one glideslope. If the AS is positioned particularly high in relation to the distance to run, the pilot may elect to ‘arc’ or circle in order to achieve the required range/height relationship. Once the AS has established in the glide ranges information is required at ½ nm intervals.
d. When visual with the airfield (lowest altitude is the circling minima) the pilot uses excess speed to position for the most suitable runway at Low Key point, as for a visual A/PFL.

Question 17

Describe the Hawk T2 Straight-In Forced Landing (SIFL) Procedure.

Answer 17

The Hawk T2 does not fly the traditional Radar Forced Landing profile; instead the AS is self-navigated to a point 5-6nm from touchdown at approximately 6-7000ft from where a straight-in approach is made on a 13 degree glide angle. The procedure can be flown in IMC or VMC, but is always conducted under IFR. When a pilot requests a SIFL, the TC(RA) controller will:

a. Instruct the pilot to squawk emergency, identify the AS and provide the requested ATS.
b. Inform the pilot of the circuit state – controllers will endeavour to clear the circuit as this is an emergency procedure and the AS will be unable to deconflict from any other traffic.
c. Pass Aerodrome details and instruct pilot to set the QFE. Own navigation can then be given and ‘taking own terrain clearance, descent approved’ subject to the pilot not being in receipt of Deconfliction Service.
d. Warn the TC(ADC) controller that a SIFL is inbound.
e. Ensure safe integration with other instrument traffic – this may mean breaking off other traffic to allow the emergency AS priority.
f. At 5nm from touchdown, request a joining clearance from ADC.
g. Instruct the emergency AS to continue with ADC. This should be not earlier than the join clearance and no later than 2nm from touchdown.

The TC(ADC) controller will:

a. Ensure that the circuit traffic is positioned appropriately to allow the emergency AS to make a landing; ideally, the circuit should be cleared.
b. Ensure a QFE and gear check are obtained.
c. Issue a clearance to land.

Question 18

What is the procedure to be followed prior to landing for an AS in, or joining the visual circuit indicating it has suffered a RT or total electric failure?

Answer 18

The presence of an AS with radio or total electrics failure in the visual circuit is to be acknowledged by the use of a green pyrotechnic as the AS proceeds downwind accompanied by an RT transmission “RT failure/total electrics turning downwind”. Landing instructions should be given to such AS on finals using lamp or pyrotechnic signals. When an AS with total electrics failure requires an undercarriage status check prior to landing, the procedure should be as follows:

a. A port to starboard sequence for indicating the undercarriage status.
b. Green pyros to indicate undercarriage down, red to indicate position other than locked down.
c. ASs with outriggers will receive a total of 4 pyros indicating undercarriage position in order left outrigger, nosewheel, right outrigger and mainwheels.
d. Hook fitted ASs should receive a green (4th pyro) for the hook only if it is down
e. Pyro indications should be given when the AS is downwind other than those at Aerodromes with special requirements.

Question 19

What actions should a controller take on suspecting hypoxia in aircrew?

Answer 19

a. If a controller suspects that a pilot of an AS under their control is suffering from the effects of hypoxia, they are to attempt to make the pilot aware of their condition and take action to remedy it by transmitting, with appropriate urgency:

‘Oxygen!, Oxygen!, Oxygen! Descend below 10,000ft’.

b. This transmission should be repeated as often as necessary until the AS is observed to descend below 10,000ft. Controllers should note that hypoxic aircrew may not recognise the condition in themselves and may need repeated, urgent instructions from the controller before they respond appropriately.
c. Once the AS is below 10,000ft and the symptoms of hypoxia have subsided, the pilot should be instructed to level off at an appropriate level of the controller’s choosing and advised to make a precautionary RTB.
d. Irrespective of the pilot’s decision regarding an immediate RTB, the recovery airfield should be informed of the hypoxia event ASAP so that appropriate medical procedures can be put in place.

Question 20

Which squawks may D&D allocate to a Practise Pan?

Answer 20

3304-3306.