Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharm Formulas > 9/1 cleanup > Flashcards

9/1 cleanup Flashcards

1
Q

Hyperchylomicronemia

A
  • LPL deficiency or CII deficiency
  • Increased cylomicrons, TG, cholesterol
  • Pancreatitis, hepatosplenomegaly, pruritic xanthomas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Familial hypercholesterolemia

A
  • Absent or defective LDL receptors
  • High cholesterol, accelerated atherosclerosis, tendon xanthomas, corneal arcus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Dysbetalipoproteinemia

A
  • Defective apo e
  • Absent chylomicrons and VLDL
  • Premature atherosclerosis, tuberoeruptice xanthomas, canthoma striatum palmare
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hypertryglyceridemia

A
  • Hypertriglyceridemia can cause acute pancreatitis
  • Hepatic overproduction of VLDL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Methionine synthase requires what vitamin? Wha about cystathionine?

A
  • Methionine:B12
  • Cystathionine: B6
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Posterior wall of the ventricle is supplied by

A

PDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Posterior wall of left ventricle is caused by

A

Left circumflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ventricular free wall rupture occurs when?

A

5-14 days after MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the main side effects of niacin

A

Flushing, hyperglycemia and hyperuricemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

cAMP horomones

A

FLAT ChAMP

  • F = FSH
  • L = LH
  • A = ACTH
  • T = TSH
  • C = CRH
  • h = beta HCG
  • A = ADH
  • M = MSH
  • P = PTH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

cGMP hormones

A

BNP, ANP, EDRF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

IP3 hormones

A

GOAT HAG

  • G = GnRH
  • O = Oxytocin
  • A = ADH (V1)
  • T = TRH
  • H = Histamine
  • A = Angiotensin II
  • G = Gastrin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Intracellular receptor

A

Progestrone, estrogen, testosterone, cortisol, aldosterone, T3 and T4, Vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

RTK hormones

A

Insulin, IGF1, FGF, PDGF, EGF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Nonreceptor Tyrosine Kinase

A

PIGGlET

  • Prolactin
  • Immunomodulators
  • GH
  • G-CSF
  • Erythropoietin
  • Thrombopoietin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The ampulla of vater is derived from what part of the pancreas?

A

Ventral bud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What things are secreted from the body of the stomach

A
  • Parietal cells: HCl, Intrinsic factor
  • Chief cells: Pepsinogen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hormones released from the antrum

A
  • D cells: Somatostatin
  • Mucous cells: Mucus
  • G cells: Gastrin to circulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Vagus nerve stimulates what cells

A
  • Parietal cells
  • G cells
  • D cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What hormones are released in the duodenum?

A
  • I cell: CCK
  • S: Secretin
  • K: GIP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the pathogenesis of calculous cholecystitis?

A

Most common type and is caused by gallstone impaction in cystic duct resulting in inflammation; can cause secondary infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is acalculous cholecystitis?

A

Due to gallbladder stasis, hypoperfusion or infection(CMV); seen in critically ill patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the H2 blockers

A

Cimetidine, ranitidine, famotidine, nizatidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Proton pump inhibitors

A

Omeprazole, lansoprazole, esomeprazole, pantoprazole, dexlansoprazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is fibromyalgia

A

Chronic widespread musculoskeletal pain aassociated with tender points, stiffness, parethesias, poor sleep, fatigue, cognitive disturbance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is some illness anxiety disorder?

A

Excessive preoccupation with acquiring or having an illness, despite reassurance and eval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Treatments for narcolepsy

A

Daytime stimulants, nighttime sodium oxybate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Potency of estrogen types in order

A

Estradiol>estrone>estriol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the types of androgens and where are they produced?

A

DHT and testosterone (Both in the testes), Androstenedione (ADrenal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Number 1 risk factor for cervical invasive carcinoma

A

Multiple sexual partners……. hten smoking, early intercourse, HIV infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Fibrocystic changes of the breast?

A

Premenopausal women over 35 which presents with premenstrual breast pain or lumps; often bilateral and multifocal. Nonproliferative lesions include papillary apocrine change/metaplasia, stromal fibrosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Sclerosin adenosis

A

Acini and stromal fibrosis, associated with calcifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Epithelial hyperplasia

A

Cells in terminal ductal or lobular epithelium causing increased risk of carcinoma with atypical cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the pathophysiology of inflammatory breast cancer

A

Dermal lymphatic invasion by breast carcinoma leading to peau d’orange; neoplastic cells block lymphoatic drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Methemoglobin treatment

A

Methemoglobinemia can be treated with methylene blue and vitamin C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Carboxygemoglobin

A

Hb bound with CO leading to decreased oxygen binding capacity with left shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Adenocarcinoma mutations

A

KRAS, EGFR, ALK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Define lead time bias

A

Early detection is confused with increased survival

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What do alcohols do for disenfection?

A

Denature proteins and disrupt cell membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What things are sporicidal

A

Hydrogen peroxide, iodine and iodophores, autoclave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What robertsonian translocation occurs that causes down syndrome

A

Between 14 and 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta featuers

A
  • Multiple fractures with minimal trauma; may occur during the birth process
  • Blue sclera due to translucent connective tissue over choroidal veins
  • Some forms have tooth abnormalities including opalescent teeth that wear easily due to lack of dentin
  • Hearing loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Ehlers Danlos features

A
  • Hyperextensible skin, tendency to bleed and hypermobile joints
  • Classical type: caused by a mutation in type V collagen
  • Vascular type: Type 3 collagen deficiency
  • Hypermobility type: Most common
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

RET gene disorders

A

Men2a and Men2b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Pringle maneuver

A

Ligament may be compressed between thumb and index finger placed in omental foramen to control bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the cause of physiologic neonatal jaundice

A

UDP-glucuronosyltransferase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Busulfan

A
  • Cross link DNA
  • CML also used to ablate patients bone marrow before bone marrow transplantation
  • Severe myelosuppression, pulmonary fibrosis, hyperpigmentation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Person has noise induced hearing loss, what sounds should come back first

A

High frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the issues afoot with klinefelter syndrome

A
  • Dysgenesis of seminiferous tubules leading to decreased inhibin B and increased FSH
  • Abnormal leydig cell function leads to decreased testosterone and increased LH and increased estrogen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the risks of blood transfusion

A
  • Possible infection transmission
  • Transfusion reactions
  • Secondary hemochromatosis
  • Hypocalcemia (citrate chelates Ca2+)
  • Hyperkalemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is produced by eosinophils?

A
  • Histaminase
  • MBP
  • Eosinophil peroxidase
  • Eosinophil cationic protein
  • Eosinophil derived neurotoxin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Specific granueles of neutrophils

A
  • Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase
  • collagenase
  • lysozyme
  • lactoferrin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Azurophillic granules

A
  • Proteinases
  • Acid phosphatase
  • myeloperoxidase
  • beta-glucuronidase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the major cause of neuronal death in huntington disease

A

NMDA=R binding and glutamate excitotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Difference between metachromatic leukodystrophy and adrenoleukodystrophy

A
  • Metachromatic leukodystrophy - AR lysosomal storage disease where formed myelin is destroyed by buildup of sulfatides
  • Adrenoleukodystrophy - VLCFA leading to build up in nervous system, adrenal gland, testes, leading to progressive disease leading to long term coma/death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Mirabegron

A

Beta3 agonist for urinary urge incontinence and overactive bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

D1 vs D2 receptors

A
  • D1 = relaxes renal vascular smooth muscle, activates direct striatum
  • D2 = Modulates transmitter release in the brain, inhibits direct striatum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

General side effects of vancomycin

A

NOT trouble free

  • Nephrotoxicity
  • Ototoxicity
  • Thrombophlebitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which is the only NRTI that is a nucleotide rather than a nucleoside

A

Tenofovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

NRTIs

A

Abacavir, Didanosine, emtricitabine, lamivudine, stavudine, tenofovir, zodovudine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Integrase inhibitors have what toxicity

A

Creatinine kinase increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Chloroquine adverse effects

A

Retinopathy, pruritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Drugs used for mite therapy

A

Permethrin, malathion, lindane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Mech of sofosbuvir

A
  • HCV RNA dependent RNA polymerase acting as a chain terminator
  • Can cause fatigue, headache, nausea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Mech of ribavirin

A
  • HepC Inhibit synthesis of guanine nucleotides
  • Hemolyric anemia, teratogenic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Simeprevir mech

A
  • HVC protease inhibitor preventing replication
  • Photosensitivity, rash
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

HLAb5701

A

Abacavir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Use of amoxicillin, ampicillin, aminopenicillins

A

HHELPSS

  • H flu
  • H pylori
  • E coli
  • Listeria
  • Proteus
  • Salmonella
  • Shigella
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Daptinomycin mech and AE

A
  • Disrupts cell membrane of gram + cocci with transmembrane channels
  • Causes myopathy and rhabdomyolysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Prophylaxis for endocarditis for surgical or dental procedures

A

Amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Prophylaxis for gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Pregnant woman carrying group B strep prophylaxis

A

Penicillin g or amp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Isoniazid adverse effects

A
  • Hepatotoxicity
  • Druge induced SLE
  • Anion gap acidosis
  • Vitamin B6 deficiency
  • ALWAYS ADMINISTER WITH B6
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Amphotericin adverse effects

A

Hypotension, nephrotoxicity, arrythmias, anemia, IV phlebitis ALWAYS HYDRATE WITH AMPHO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Second generation cephalosporins

A

Fake Fox Fur, cefaclor, cefoxitin, cefuroxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

First line for absense seizures

A
  • Ethosuximide, but lamotrigine can work
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

First line for status epilepticus

A
  • Acute: Benzos
  • Prophylaxis: Phenytoin, fosphenytoin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Tonic clonic seizures first line

A
  • Phenytoin, fosphoymcin or Valproic acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Partial seizure first line

A

Carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Topirimate side effects

A

Sedation, mental dulling, kidney stones, weight loss, glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Vigabatrin mechanism and AE

A

Gaba increase by inihibiting transaminase, leading to permanent visual loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Order type 1 antiarrythmics in terms of Na+ channel affinity

A

1C, 1A, 1B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Dihydropryidines treat what

A

Hypertension, angina (including prinzmetal) raynaud phenomenon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

NImodipine is for….

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Nicardipine, clevidipine:

A

Hypertensive urgency and emerghency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Non-Dhps treat

A

Hypertension, angina, atrial fibrilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

PCSK9 inhibitors use

A

Decreased LDL by inactivation of LDL receptor degradation

Can cause myalgias, delirium, dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Acute treatment of serotonin syndrome

A

Cyproheptadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Within 2 weeks of MI, what are the major complications occur?

A
  • Free wall rupture, tamponade
  • Papillary muscle rupture leading to mitral regurg
  • LV pseudoaneurysm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Cilostazol and dipyridamole

A
  • PDE inhibitors in platelets leading to inhibition of aggregation and vasodilation
  • Causes nausea, headache, facial flushing, hypotension, abdominal pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Ticlopidine AE

A

Neutropenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are some indications of familial forms of alzheimer disease

A

Presenilin1 and 2, APP

94
Q

Clozapine mechanism

A

Agranulocytosis, seizures

95
Q

Risperidone mechanism

A

Hyperprolactinemia

96
Q

Terbutaline and ritodrine

A

Beta 2 agonists to relax th uterus and used for contraction decrease frequency for women in labor

97
Q

Icosahedral virus parts

A

Surface protein, lipid bilayer, capsid, nucleic acid

98
Q

Enveloped helical capsid components

A

Lipid bilayer, surface protein, helical nucleocapsid with inegrated RNA

99
Q

Teriperatide

A
  • Recombinant PTH to increase osteoblast activity
  • Increased risk of osteosarcoma and transient hypercalcemia
100
Q

Smoked foods lead to what cancer

A

Gastric cancer

101
Q

Cincalcet

A

Causes increased sensitivity of the calcium sensing receptor of the parathyroid gland to help in hyperparathyroidism

102
Q

TTP pathogenesis

A

ADAMTS13 inhibition leading to vWF multimers and resultant shistocytes

103
Q

Dactinomycin mechanism

A

Intercalates into DNA to deal with wilms tumor, ewings sarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma childhood tumors

104
Q

Bleomycin

A
  • Free radical formation
  • Testicular cancer and hodgkin lymphoma
  • Fibrosis, hyperpigmentation, minimal myelosuppression
105
Q

Erysipelas

A

Infection of the upper dermis and superficial lymphatics, usually from Strep pyogenes

106
Q

Pyruvate carboxylase activators

A

Biotin, ATP, acetyl-CoA

107
Q

PEP carboxykinase activator

A

GTP

108
Q

Fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase activators and inhibitors

A
    • Citrate
    • AMP, F26BP
109
Q

Regulators of hexo/glukokinase

A
  • Inhibited by glucose 6 p: Hexokinase
  • Inhibited by Fructose 6 p: Glucokinase
110
Q

Glycogenesis activation

A
  • G6Phosphate
  • Insulin
  • Cortisol
111
Q

Glycogenesis inhibition

A

Epinephirine and glucagon

112
Q

Glycogenolysis activation

A

Epi, glucagon, AMP

113
Q

Glycogenolysis inhibiition

A

G6P, insulin, ATP

114
Q

FA synthesis activators and inihibitors

A
  • Activation: Insulin, citrate
  • Inhibition: Glucagon, palmytoil CoA
115
Q

ATP and GTP play what role in protein synthesis

A

ATP activates but GTP translocates

116
Q

Areas that have both Aldose reductase and sorbitol dehydrogenase

A

Liver ovaries and seminal vesicles

117
Q

Cimetidine adverse effects

A

Inhibit P450, antiandrogenic effects (prolactin release, gynecomastia ,impotence, decreased libido in males), crosses blood brain barrier and causes confusion and headaches, and crosses the placenta, decreases creatinine

118
Q

Aluminum hydroxide side effects

A

Proximal muscle weakness, osteodystrophy, seizures

119
Q

Magnesium hydroxide

A

Diarrhea, hyporeflexia, hypotension, cardiac arrest (from excess magnesium)

120
Q

Metoclopramide

A
  • D2 antagonist leading to increased resting tone, contractility, LES tone, motiliy, promotes gastric emptying
  • AE: Parkinsonian effects, tardive dyskinesia, restlessness, drowsiness, fatigue, depression, diarrhea
121
Q

Doxorubicin and danorubicin mech and AE

A
  • Free radicals and DNA intercolation
  • Solid tumors, leukemias and lymphomas
  • AE: Cardiotoxicity, myelosuppression, alopecia
122
Q

How do you treat the cardiotoxicity in Doxorubicin and daunorubicin

A

Dexrazoxane

123
Q

What is the presentation of langerhans histiocytosis

A
  • Childhood presentation of lytic bone lesions and skin rash
  • Recurrent otitis media with mass in mastoid bone
124
Q

What is the pathogenesis of langerhans histiocytosis

A

Cells are funcitonally immature and do not effectively stimulate primary T cells via androgen presentation. Birbeck granules are characteristic

125
Q

Markers for langerhans histiocytosis

A

S100, CD1a, Birbeck granules

126
Q

Neurologic side effects of phenytoin and fosphenytoin

A
  • Nystagmus
  • diplopia
  • ataxia
  • sedation
  • peripheral neuropathy
127
Q

Dermatologic side effects of phenytoin and fosphenytoin

A
  • hirsutism
  • DRESS syndrome
128
Q

Reproductive side effects of phenytoin and fosphenytoin

A
  • Teratogenesis
  • P450 induction
129
Q

What is the order of appearance of EPS

A

ADAPT

  • Acute dystonia
  • Akasthesia, Parkinsonism
  • Tardive dyskinesia
130
Q

What are the major side effects of SSRIs

A

GI distress, SIADH, sexual dysfunction

131
Q

P450 inducers

A
  • Chronic alcohol
  • St Johns wort
  • Phenytoin
  • Phenobarbital
  • Nevirapine
  • Rifampin
  • Griseofulvin
  • Carbamazepine
132
Q

P450 inhibitors

A
  • Sodium valproate
  • Isoniazid
  • Cimetidine
  • Ketoconazole
  • Fluconazole
  • Acute alcohol
  • Chloramphenicol
  • Erythromycin
  • Sulfonamides
  • Cipro
  • Omeprazole
  • Metronidazole
133
Q

Montelukast and zafirlukast mechansim

A

Antagonism of LTC4, LTD4, LTE4 receptors

134
Q

Zileuton mechanism

A

5LOX inhibition

135
Q

Purkinje cells function

A

Output from deep nuclei of cerebellum to contralateral cortex via superior cerebellar pedunkle

136
Q

Cerebellar input

A
  • Contralateral cortex via middle cerebellar peduncle input
  • Ipsilateral proprioceptive information via inferior cerebellar peduncle from spinal cord
137
Q

Why does the pupil blow out when you injure cranial nerve III

A

Parasympathetic output goes through this nerve

138
Q

What is the major use of aminoglycosides

A

Gram negative rod infections, synergistic with beta lactams

Neomycin for bowel surgery

139
Q

What are some adverse effects of cephalosporins

A
  • Hypersensitivity
  • Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
  • Disulfiram reaction
  • vitamin K deficiency
140
Q

Adverse effects of azoles

A

Testosterone synthesis inhibition, liver dysfunction

141
Q

What is the mech of azoles

A

Inhibit ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting the P450 enzyme that converts lanosterol to ergosterol

142
Q

Terbinafine mechanism

A

Inhibit fungal enzyme squaline epoxidase

143
Q

Echinocandin mechanism

A

Inhibit cell wall synthesis by inhibiting beta glucan

144
Q

Griseofulvin mech

A

Interfere with microtubule funciton to distrupt mitosis, depositing in keratin containing tissues

145
Q

Number needed to treat

A

NNT = 1/ARR

146
Q

Number needed to harm

A

NNH = 1/AR

147
Q

Attributable risk

A

difference in risk between the exposed and unexposed groups

148
Q

Relative risk

A

Used in cohort studies. RIsk of developing disease in exposed divided by the risk of developing disease in unexposed group

149
Q

Hair differences in hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism

A
  • Hypo: Cool skin and coarse brittle hair (hippos are thick)
    • Hyper: Warm moist skin with fine hair (not enough time to get thick)
150
Q

What is the feature that gives away a thyroid CARCINOMA

A

Capsular invasion C = Carcinoma

151
Q

What nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  • Median nerve leading to paresthesia, pain and numbness in distribtion of median nerve
152
Q

Fall on outstretched hand brakes what bone

A

Scaphoid

153
Q

Dislocation of what bone can cause carpal tunnel

A

Lunate

154
Q

What is the cause of ape hand?

A

Damage to the recurrent branch of the median nerve usually from palmar laceration meaning that there is loss of thenar muscle group, opposition, abduction, and flexion of the thumb

155
Q

Why is the syncytiotrophoblast at particular risk for attack by the maternal immune system

A

It lacks MHC1 expression

156
Q

Rock hard mass with sharp margins and small glandular cells

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma

157
Q

What stones can you see on X ray?

A
  • Calcium
  • Ammonium magnesium phosphate
158
Q

MUDPILES

A
  • Methanol
  • Uremia
  • DKA
  • Propylene glycol
  • Iron tablets or INH
  • Lactic acidosis
  • Ethylene glycol
  • Salicylates (late)
159
Q

HARDASS

A
  • Hyperalimentation
  • Addison
  • RTA
  • Diarrhea
  • Acetazolamide
  • Spironolactone
  • Saline infusion
160
Q

ATII receptor blockers

A

Lostartan SARTANS

161
Q

Competitive antagonists of aldosterone receptors

A

Spinronolactone and eplerenone

162
Q

Blockers of Na+ channels in the cortical collecting tubule

A

Tramterene and amilioride

163
Q

Features of transcortical motor aphasia

A

Nonfluent speech but intact comprehension

164
Q

Transcortical sensory aphasia features

A

Fluent speech but impaired comprehension

165
Q

Transcortical mixed aphaisa features

A

Nonfluent speech and impaired and comprehension impaired

166
Q

How long does it take for glycogen to be depleted

A

1 day

167
Q

What reactions take place in the mitochondria

A

Fatty acid oxidation

AcetylcoA production

TCA cycle

Oxidative phosphorylation

Ketogenesis

168
Q

What reactions take pace in the cytoplasm

A

Glycolysis, HMP shunt, steroid synthesis, proteins, fatty acids, cholesterol, and nucleotides

169
Q

What takes place in both mitochondria and cytoplasm

A

Heme synthesis, urea cycle, gluconeogenesis

170
Q

Superinfection of Hep B and D vs Coinfection in terms of incubation time

A

B and D superinfection has a much shorter incubation period

171
Q
A
172
Q

NNRTIs

A

Delavirdine, efavirenz, nevirapine

173
Q

Octreotide

A
  • Somatostatin analog; inhibits secretion of various splanchnic vasodilatory hormones
  • Acute vericeal bleeds, acromegaly, VIPoma, carcinoid tumors
  • Nausea cramps steatorrhea, increased risk of cholelithiasis due to CK inhibition
174
Q

Which kind of herniation leads to CNIII

A

Uncal herniation

175
Q

Leuprolide

A

GnRH analog with agonist properties when used in pulsatile fashion and antagonist properties when used in continuous fashion

176
Q

Tuberus sclerosis symptoms

A

HARMARTOMAS

  • H: Hamartomas in CNS and skin
  • Angiofibromas
  • Mitral regurg
  • Ash leaf spots
  • Rhabdomyoma
  • Tuberous sclerosis
  • autosomal dOminant
  • Mental retardation
  • renal Angiomyolipoma
  • Seizures
  • Shagreen patches
177
Q

NF2

A

AD, bilateral acousic schwannomas, juvenile cataracts, meningiomas, ependymomas

178
Q

5 alpha reductase deficiency

A

46 XY

  • female external genitalia with scant axillary and pubic hair, rudimentary vagina; uterus and fallopian tubes absent
  • Normal functioning testes
  • Internal genitalia are normal
179
Q

Ethambutol mechanism

A

Decreased carbohydrate polymerization of mycobacterium cell wal by blocking arabinosyltransferase

180
Q

Rifampin mechanism

A

inhibit DNA dependent RNA polymerase

181
Q

IOU what does this mean

A

Inferior oblique tested looking UP

182
Q

Direct thrombin inhibitors

A

Bivalrudin, argatroban, dabigatran

183
Q

Use of direct thrombin inhibitors

A

Venous thromboembolism, atrial fibrillation, possibly heparin induced thrombocytopenia

184
Q
A
185
Q

Difference between first and second generation sulfonylureas

A
  • First: disulfiram like reactions
  • Second: Hypoglycemia
186
Q

GLP1 analogs

A

Exenatide, liraglutide

187
Q

Colorectal cancer presentation areas

A

Rectosigmoid more than ascending more than descending

188
Q

Orlistat

A
  • INhibitor of pancreatic and gastric lipase
  • Causes steatorrhea and decreases absorption of fat soluble vitamins
189
Q

What is indicated by suppression via high dose dexamethasone

A

Cushing disease

190
Q

Things that cause warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

SLE and CLL and with certain drugs

191
Q
A
192
Q

Intravenous anesthetics

A

Thiopental, midazolam, ketamine, propofol, opioids

193
Q

Inhaled anesthetic that causes:

  • Hepatotoxicity:
  • Nephrotoxicity
  • Convulsions:
A
  • Hepatotoxicity: Halothane
  • Nephro: Methoxyflurane
  • Proconvulsant: Enflurane
194
Q

Side effects of low potency antipsychotics

A

Anticholinergic, antihistamine, anti alpha 1

195
Q

Which atypical antipsychotic causes obesity

A

Olanzapine

196
Q

Side effects of atypical antipsychotics

A

Prolonged QT, fewer EPS and anticholinergic side effects

197
Q

Anti louse antibiotics mech

A

PML (permethrin, malathion, lindane) NAG (Na, Ache, GABA, blockade)

198
Q

Odansetron mech

A
  • 5HT3 antagonist, decrease vagal stim to be an antiemetic
  • AE: Headache, constipation, QT prolongation, serotonin syndrome
199
Q

Vancomycin use

A

Gram + only, including MRSA

200
Q

Aztreonam uses

A

Gram - rods, no activity against gram +

201
Q

Carbapenems use

A

Gram + cocci and gram - rods as well as anaerobes

202
Q

1st gen cephalosporins use

A

PEcK

Proteus, e coli, klebsiella

203
Q

2nd gen cephalosporin uses

A

HENS PEck

  • H flu
  • Enterobacter aerogenes
  • Neisseria
  • Serratia
  • Proteus
  • E coli
  • Klebsiella
204
Q

Clindamycin uses

A

Anaerobes in aspiration mneumonia, lung abscesses, oral infections

205
Q

Anaerobic infections above and below the diaphragm

A

Metro = below, clinda = above

206
Q
A
207
Q

Glucose dependent insulinotropic peptide

A
  • K cells
  • Decreases H+ secretion, increases insulin
  • Increased by fatty acids, amino acids, oral glucose
  • Also known as GIP
208
Q

Trimethoprim mech and AE

A
  • Inhibit DHF reductase in bacteria
  • AE: Megaloblastic anemia, leukopenia, granulocytopenia
  • TREATS MARROW POORLY
209
Q

Sulfonimides mech and AE

A
  • Mech: Dihydropteroate synthase
  • AE: Photosensitivity, SJS, hemolysis if G6PD deficient, kernicterus
210
Q

Fenlodopam

A
  • D1 agonist leading to coronary peripheral, renal and splanchnic vasodilation
  • Increased natriuresis
  • Can cause hypotension and tachycardia
211
Q

Symptoms of kawasaki disease

A

CRASH and burn

  • Conjunctival injection
  • Rash
  • Adenopathy
  • Strawberry tongue
  • Hand foot changes
  • Fever
212
Q

Symptoms of giant cell arteritis

A

Usually elderly females having unilateral headach, jaw claudication leading to irreversible blindness due to opthalmic artery occlusion, associated with polymyalgia rheumatica

213
Q

Takayasu arteritis

A

Pulseless disease (weak upper extremity pulses), fever, night sweats, arthritis, myalgias, skin nodules, ocular disturbances. Granulomatous thickening and narrowing of aortic arch and proximal great vessels

214
Q

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

A

Triad of focal necrotizing vasculitis, necrotizing granulomas in the lung and upper airway, necrotizing glomerulonephritis. PR3-ANCA/cANCA. CXR shows nodular densities

215
Q

Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis

A

Asthma, sinusitis, skin nodules or purpura with peripheral neuropathy showing MPO-ANCA/p-ANCA, increased IgE, and granulomatous necrotizing vasculitis with eosinophilia

216
Q

Henoch shonlein purpura

A

Triad of skin (palpable purpura on buttocks/legs), arthralgias, GI (abdominal pain), caused by IgA immune complex deposition

217
Q

Primary hypertension treatment

A
  • Thiazide diuretics
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Angiontensin II blockers
  • DHP calcium channel blockers
218
Q

Hypertension with heart failure treatment

A
  • Diuretics
  • ACE inhibitors/ARBs
  • Beta blockers (compensated HF)
  • ALdosterone antagonists
219
Q

Hypertension with diabetes mellitus medications

A
  • ACE inhibitors/ARBs
  • Ca2+ channel blockers
  • Thiazide diuretics
  • Beta blockers
220
Q

Hypertension in pregnancy medications

A

Hydralazine, lebetalol, mehyldopa, nifedipine

221
Q

Amylin analogs action

A
  • Mech: decreased gastric emptying, decreased glucagon
  • Pramlintide
222
Q

Acarbose and miglitol

A

Inhibit brush border alpha glucosidases, decreased carbohydrate hydrolysis and glucose absorption leading to decreased postprandial hyperglycemia

223
Q

Gliptans

A

Inhibit DPP4 enzyme that deactivates GLP1

224
Q

GLP1 function

A

Increased glucose dependent insulin release, decreased glucagon release, decreased gastric emptying, increased satiety

225
Q

Sulfonylureas mech

A

Close K+ channel leading to insulin release

226
Q

Things that cause crescentig glomerulonephritis

A
  • Goodpasture syndrome: type II hypersensitivity reaction; antibodies to GBM and alveolar basement membrane
  • Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener): cANCA/PR3-ANCA
  • Microscopic polyangiitis: MPO-ANCA/p-ANCA
227
Q

Type I membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

A

secondary to hep B or C infection

228
Q

Membranous nephropathy

A

Most common cause of primary nephrotic syndrome. Can be caused by antibodies to phospholipase A2 receptor or secondary to drugs, infections, SLE, or solid tumors

229
Q

Diabetic glomerulonephropathy features

A
  • Nonenzymatic glycosylation of GBM leading to increased permeabilityt and thickening
  • Common cause of end-stage renal disease in the united states
230
Q
A
231
Q
A

Pharm Formulas (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions