8.1 and 8.2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a gene mutation?

A

A change in the base sequence of DNA which can arise spontaneously during DNA replication

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2
Q

What is a mutagenic agent?

A

Factor that increases the rate of mutation e.g UV or alpha particles

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3
Q

Explain how a gene mutation can lead to the production of a non functional protein or enzyme:

A

Changes sequence of base triplets in DNA so changes sequence of codons on mRNA
So changes sequence of amino acids in the encoded polypeptide
So changes position of hydrogen/ionic/disulfide bonds
So changes tertiary structure
Enzymes- active site altered so substrates can’t bind and E-S complexes can’t form

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4
Q

Describe the 6 different types of mutation:

A

Substitution- a base is replaced by a different base in DNA
Addition- one or more bases are added to the DNA sequence
Deletion- one or more bases are lost from the DNA base sequence
Duplication- a sequence of DNA bases is repeated
Inversion- a sequence of DNA bases detaches from the DNA sequence and then rejoins at same position in reverse order
Translocation- a sequence of bases detaches and is inserted at a different location within the same or a different chromosome

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5
Q

Why do not all gene mutations affect the order of amino acids?

A

Some substitutions change only one triplet code which could still code for the same amino acid as genetic code is degenerate
Some occur in introns which do not code for amino acids

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6
Q

Explain why a change in amino acid sequence is not always harmful:

A

May not change tertiary structure of protein
May positively change the properties of the protein, giving organism a selective advantage

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7
Q

What is meant by a frameshift?

A

Occurs when mutations change the number of nucleotides/bases by a number not divisible by 3
Shifts the ways the genetic code is read from all the DNA triplets downstream from the mutation change

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8
Q

Explain how mutations lead to production of shorter polypeptides:

A

Deletion or translocation so codons missing so amino acids missing
Substitution, addition, deletion, duplication, inversion and translocation could cause premature stop codon so amino acids missing at end of polypeptide

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9
Q

What are stem cells?

A

Undifferentiated/unspecialised cells capable of
1. Dividing by mitosis to replace themselves indefinitely
2. Differentiating into other types of specialised cells

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10
Q

Describe how stem cells become specialised during development:

A

Stimuli lead to activation of some genes (due to transcription factors)
So mRNA is transcribed only from these genes and then translated to form proteins
These proteins modify cells permanently and determine cell structure/function

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11
Q

Describe totipotent cells:

A

Occur for a limited time in early mammalian embryos
Can divide and differentiate into any type of body cells

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12
Q

Describe pluripotent cells:

A

Found in mammalian embryos after first few cell divisions
Can divide and differentiate into most cell types (but not placental cells)

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13
Q

Describe multipotent cells:

A

Found in mature mammals
Can divide and differentiate into a limited number of cell types (e.g bone marrow cells can divide into different blood cells)

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14
Q

Describe unipotent cells:

A

Found in mature mammals
Can divide and differentiate into just one type of cell (e.g. cardiomyocytes)

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15
Q

Explain how stem cells can be used in treatment of humans:

A

Transplanted into patients to divide in unlimited numbers
Then differentiate into required healthy cells

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16
Q

Explain how induced pluripotent stem cells (iPS) are produced:

A

Obtain adult somatic cells from patient
Add specific protein transcription factors associated with pluripotency to cells so they express genes associated with pluripotency
-Transcription factors attach to promoter regions of DNA, stimulating or inhibiting transcription
Culture cells to allow them to divide by mitosis

17
Q

Evaluate the use of stem cells in treating human disorders:

A

Pro:
Can divide/differentiate into required healthy cells so could relieve human suffering by saving lives and improving quality of lives
Embryos are often left over from IVF and would otherwise be destroyed
iPS unlikely to be rejected by patient’s immune system as made with own cells
iPS cells can be made without destruction of embryo and adult can give permission

Against:
Ethical issues with embryonic stem cells as destruction of ‘potential life’
Immune system could reject cells and immunosuppressant drugs required
Cells could divide out of control, leading to tumours/cancer

18
Q

What are transcription factors?

A

Proteins which regulate transcription of specific target genes in eukaryotes
By binding to a specific DNA base sequence on a promoter region

19
Q

Describe how transcription can be regulated using transcription factors:

A

Transcription factors move from cytoplasm to nucleus
Bind to DNA at specific DNA base sequence on a promoter region
This stimulates or inhibits transcription of target genes by helping or preventing RNA polymerase binding

20
Q

How does oestrogen affect transcription?

A

Oestrogen is a lipid soluble hormone so diffuses into cell across the phospholipid bilayer
In cytoplasm, oestrogen binds to its receptor, an inactive transcription factor, forming an oestrogen-receptor complex
This changes the shape of the inactive transcription factor, forming an active transcription factor
The complex diffuses from the cytoplasm to the nucleus
Then binds to a specific DNA base sequence on the promoter region of the target gene
Stimulating transcription of target genes forming mRNA by helping RNA polymerase bind

21
Q

Why does oestrogen only affect target cells?

A

Other cells do not have oestrogen receptors

22
Q

What is meant by epigenetics?

A

Heritable changes in gene function/expression without changes to the base sequence of DNA
Caused by changes in the environment

23
Q

What is meant by epigenome?

A

All chemical modifications of DNA and histone proteins- methyl groups on DNA and acetyl groups on histones

24
Q

Summarise the epigenetic control of gene expression in eukaryotes:

A

Increased methylation of DNA inhibits transcription, whilst decreased methylation of DNA allows transcription

Decreased acetylation of histones inhibits transcription, whilst increased methylation of histones allows transcription

25
How does methylation inhibit transcription?
Increased methylation of DNA- methyl groups added to cytosine bases in DNA SO nucleosomes pack more tightly together together Preventing transcription factors and RNA polymerase binding to promoter
26
Explain how acetylation inhibits transcription:
Decreased acetylation of histones increases positive charge of histones So histones bind DNA more tightly Preventing transcription factors and RNA polymerase binding to promoter
27
Explain the relevance of epigenetics on disease development and treatment:
Environmental changes can lead to epigenetic changes These can stimulate/inhibit expression of certain genes that can lead to disease development Diagnostic tests can be developed to detect these epigenetic changes before symptoms present Drugs can be developed to reverse these epigenetic changes
28
What is RNAi?
Inhibition of translation of mRNA produced from from target genes, by RNA molecules (siRNA/miRNA) This inhibits expression of a target gene
29
Describe the regulation of translation by RNAi:
siRNA or miRNA is incorporated into a protein, forming an RNA-induced silencing complex (RISC) -siRNA synthesised as double stranded RNA with one strand being incorporated -miRNA synthesised as double stranded hairpin bend of RNA, with both strands being incorporated Single stranded miRNA/siRNA within RISC binds to target mRNA with a complementary base sequences This leads to hydrolysis of mRNA into fragments which are then degraded OR prevents ribosomes binding Reducing/preventing translation of target mRNA
30
How do tumours and cancers form?
Mutations in DNA/genes controlling mitosis leads to uncontrolled cell division Tumour formed if this results in mass of abnormal cells -Malignant= cancerous, spreads by metastasis -Benign= non-cancerous
31
Compare benign and malignant tumors
Benign: Grow slowly Well differentiated/specialised Normal/regular nuclei Well defined borders and often surrounded by capsule Don't spread by metastasis Can be removed by surgery and rarely return Malignant: Grow faster Poorly differentiated/specialised Irregular, larger/darker nuclei Poorly defined borders and not encapsulated so invade surrounding tissues Spread by metastasis Surgery+chemo/radiotherapy but often return
32
Describe the function of tumour suppressor gene:
Code for proteins that: Inhibit/slow cell cycle OR cause self destruction of potential tumour cells
33
Explain the role of tumour suppressor genes in the development of tumours:
Mutation in base sequence- production of non functional proteins Decreased histone acetylation OR increased DNA methylation so prevents production of protein Lead to uncontrolled cell division
34
Describe the function of (proto-)oncogenes:
Code for proteins that stimulate cell division
35
Explain the role of oncogenes in development of tumours:
Mutation in DNA base sequence- overproduction of protein or permanently activated protein Decreased DNA methylation or increased histone acetylation increases production of protein Both lead to uncontrolled cell division
36
Suggest why tumours require mutations in both alleles of tumour suppressor gene but only one allele of an oncogene:
One functional allele of a tumour suppressor gene can produce enough protein to slow the cell cycle OR cause self destruction of potential tumour cells One mutated oncogene allele can produce enough protein to lead to rapid/uncontrolled cell division
37
Explain the role of epigenetics in cancer treatment:
Increasing DNA methylation or decreasing histone acetylation of oncogene to inhibit transcription Decreasing DNA methylation or increasing histone acetylation of tumour suppressor gene to stimulate transcription
38
Explain the role of increase oestrogen concentrations in the development of some breast cancers:
Some breast cancers have oestrogen receptors which are inactive transcription factors If oestrogen conc. is increased, more oestrogen binds to oestrogen receptors, forming more oestrogen-receptor complexes which are active transcription factors These bind to promoter regions of genes that code for proteins stimulating cell division This increases transcription/expression of these genes, increasing the rate of cell division
39
Suggest how drugs that have a similar structure to oestrogen help treat oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancers:
Drygs bind to oestrogen receptors, preventing binding of oestrogen So no/fewer transcription factors bind to promoter regions of genes that stimulate cell cycle