8. Nitrogen Metabolism Flashcards

1
Q

What is the key enzyme and the rate limiting step to take out nitrogen from urea?

A

carbamoyl phosphate synthase I (CPSI) (converts ammonia to carbamoyl phosphate)

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2
Q

What are the 3 mains sources of nitrogen and where do they come from?

A

glutamate from the liver
glutamine from outside the liver
Alanine from muscle

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3
Q

What is the first step of nitrogen removal?

A

oxidative deamination

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4
Q

Glomerular filtration is the process by which the kidneys filter the blood removing excess wastes and fluids. What is associated with hartnups disease and cystinuria?

A

hartnups is a defect in reabsorption of nonpolar AA
cystinuria is a defect in the reabsorption of dibasic AA
this can occur in both the small intestine and kidney

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5
Q

Where does rabsorption of AA and glucose occur?

A

in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)

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6
Q

hartnups diesase is characterized by a defective transport of neutral/nonpolar AAs. What is the most common one?

A

tryptophan

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7
Q

Cystinuria is the defective transport of dibasic aminos acids such as?

A

cystine, lysine, agrinine and ornithine

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8
Q

Hartnups is an AR disorder, affecting TRP*, Ala, ser, thr, val, leu, ile, phe, tyr, gln, and asn. Trp is a precursor for serotonin, melatonin and _____ which is a precursor for NAD.

A

NIACIN

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9
Q

What are some presentations of Hartnups and what is the common treatment plan?

A

presents with failure to thrive, eye movement, photosensistivity triggered by sunlight (period of poor nutrition)
commonly treated withniacin repletion an high protein diet

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10
Q

What is niacin (made from Trp) a coenzyme for?

A

NAD/NADP

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11
Q

What is the most common treatment for hartnups disease?

A

supplementing with niacin (nicaotinic acid/VitB3)

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12
Q

Cystinuria is the defect in the uptake system of dibasic/dimeric amino acid cystine, along with Arg Lyz and ornithine (COAL) which is AR. What does it result in and what forms?

A

results in partient presenting with renal colic and cystine crystals forming in the kidneys (+nitroprusside test)

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13
Q

Phenylketonuria (PKU), the classic form is caused by a deficiency in phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH). While secondary non-classical PKU is caused by a deficiency/defect in?

A

tertahydrobiopterin (THB) which is the cofactor to make phenyalanine into tyrosine

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14
Q

Phenylketonuria can be tested via guthrie test and will have a musty odor in the urine due to phenylacetate. What is the most concerning problem with this?

A

leads to brain damage

can avoid symptoms by limiting Phe consumption in diet

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15
Q

So neurological affects of PKU do not occur, the babe should be tested before the child is 2 weeks, and the levels should not be greater than 360umol/L. Some mild forms are treated with?

A

THB 5-20mg per day

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16
Q

There are three types of tyrosinemias, type 1 2 and 3. What does a tyrosinemia mean?

A

elevated blood levels of tyrosine

17
Q

Tyrosinemia type 1 (most common) occurs due to a deficiency in fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase which converts fumarylacetoacetate into? what side effects are seen?

A

fumarate

severe liver failure

18
Q

Tyrosinemia type II occurs due to a defect in tyrosine aminotransferease which converts Tyrosine into? what side effects are seen?

A

glutamate and p-hydroxyphenylpyruvate

photophobia and skin lesions on palms

19
Q

Tyrosinemia type III occurs due to defect p-hydroxyphenylpyruvate oxidase which coverts p-hydroxyphenylpyruvate into? what side effects are seen?

A

homogentisate

intermitent ataxia

20
Q

Alkaptonuria is due to defective homogentisate oxidase which is an enzyme involved in converting homogentisate into? what side effects are seen?

A

maleylacetoacetate

black urine, black spots on eyes, black skin lesions

21
Q

Gout is characterized as high levels of uric acid in the blood. primary is overproduction and secondary hyperuricemia is under excretion of uric acid. Diets rich in what can trigger this? (4)

A

purines such as beans spinach lentils
alcohol
meats
seafood

22
Q

What is the main treatment for gout?

A

allopurinol which inhibits xanthine oxidase so uric acid will not form and accumulate

23
Q

Hyperammonemia can occur with any of the 6 enzymes (such as NAG synthase) or the 3 transporters that are associated with?

A

the urea cycle

24
Q

Defects in mitochondrial trasnporters results in severe hyperammonemia. Which enzyme is Xlinked recessive?

A

ornithine transcarbamoylase

25
Q

ornithin transcarbamoylase is xlinked recessive mutation which cause orotic aciduria. It causes what?

A

excess carbamoyl phosphate, which is processed by the pyrimidine synthesis to orotic acid and accumulates to orotic aciduria and hyperammonemia
(treat w low protein and promoting excretion)

26
Q

carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II, which is different from the mitochondrial isoform that functions in the urea cycle. It is involved in the first step of pyrimidine synthesis which is stimulated by PrPP and inhibited by?

A

UTP

An AR defect in UMP synthase can lead to accumulation of orotic acid and lead to orotic aciduria, not accompanied with hyperammonemia

27
Q

What are the three characteristics of CPSase I?

A

in urea cycle
mitochondiral location
NAG-activated

28
Q

What are the three charcteristics of CPSase II?

A

In pyrimidine synthesis
cytosolic location
PRPP-activated

29
Q

What is the enzyme used to go from unconjugated to conjugated bilirubin?

A

UDP glucuronyl transferase

30
Q

Why does a baby usually have fetal jaundice?

A

because the mother conjugates for the baby via fetal placenta and when it is born it has to conjugate with its own liver, so takes time (7-10 days)

31
Q

unconjugated bilirubin is fairly water insoluble while conjugated bilirubin is?

A

water soluble

32
Q

Normal bilirubin in infants is 1-12mg/dL. severe jaundice may occur if there is an increase need to replace the number of RBCs such as sickle cell anemia, hemolysis, and what other problems?

A

cephalohematoma, high levels of RBCs, infection, premature birth, and hemolytic anemias