8. Cardiothoracic Flashcards
(42 cards)
Regarding the measurement of blood pressure in an adult with a sphygmomanometer, the systolic and diastolic pressures respectively are best indicated by which Korotkov sounds?
A. I and II
B. I and IV
C. I and V
D. II and IV
E. II and V
C. I and V
.
Phase I is the first appearance of sound which indicates the systolic.
Phase IV is the abrupt muffling of sounds that was previously used for estimation of the diastolic.
More recently there has been a
move towards using phase V (silence) instead to indicate the diastolic as this is more reproducible
and less amenable to interobserver variation
A 62- year- old man is managed in cardiac intensive care with cardiogenic shock following acute myocardial infarction. He has oliguria, raised
lactate, and altered mental status. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to the use of an intra- aortic balloon pump?
A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Uncontrolled sepsis
C. Tachyarrhythmia
D. Peripheral vascular disease
E. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
A. Aortic regurgitation
C/I to IABP
Aortic regurgitation is the only absolute contraindication as the presence of the IABP worsens the
magnitude of regurgitation, particularly undesirable when the left ventricle is failing
The most accurate means of measuring cardiac output
is
A. Pulse contour analysis LiDCO
B. Echocardiography
C. Thoracic bio-
impedance
D. Oesophageal Doppler
E. Pulmonary artery catheter
E. Pulmonary artery catheter
Gold standard for CO
A pulmonary artery catheter (PAC) with
thermodilution is the gold standard monitor
to measure cardiac output.
It is currently out of favour outside
specialist centres due to the skill required for
correct positioning and the increased risk of major complications.
Other ways measure CO issues
A search for less or non- invasive
cardiac output monitoring has led to the advent of many new devices.
However they are subject to varied areas of error/
estimation leading to potential problems with accuracy.
A PAC remains the standard against which other less invasive monitors are measured
Regarding paravertebral block, the most common complication is:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Hypotension
C. Vascular puncture
D. Dural puncture
E. Block failure
E. Block failure
Complications PVB
The failure rate of paravertebral block in
experienced hands is
quoted between 6.8% and 10%
which his broadly similar to epidural failure rates.
Specifically reported complications include
hypotension 4.6%,
vascular puncture 3.8%,
pleural puncture 1.1%,
and pneumothorax 5.5%.
The risk of complications resulting in long-
term morbidity are exceedingly low
A 68- year-old lady presents for an emergency laparotomy for a suspected viscus perforation.
She has chronic moderate mitral
regurgitation.
What is the most important haemodynamic goal in her
perioperative management?
A. Keep pulmonary vascular resistance as low as possible
B. Maintain forward flow through the
heart
C. Aim to reduce preload to the
heart
D. Aim for a slow normal heart
rate
E. Use vasoconstrictors to increase systemic vascular resistance
B. Maintain forward flow through the
heart
Goal for regurgitant lesion
For regurgitant lesions the haemodynamic goals are ‘full, fast, and forward’.
Keeping pulmonary vascular resistance as low as possible will help this but can only be achieved by
avoiding hypoxia, hypercarbia, and acidosis
How to Rx problems for regurg lesion
HR Goals
Decreased arterial pressure should be treated with fluids and elevating the heart rate.
A high normal heart rate of 80–100 reduces filling time of left ventricle reducing ventricular overload and
encouraging forward flow.
Keeping the patient well filled also promotes forward
flow.
Vasoconstrictors can be used with
care.
You anaesthetize a 61 year- old lady for a coronary artery bypass graft.
She is on aspirin and clopidogrel following a myocardial infarction three months ago.
You intend to monitor her coagulation status using
thromboelastography.
Which of these statements most accurately
describes the use of a viscoelastic point-
of care device?
A.
It will reflect the effects of hypothermia
B.
It will demonstrate the effects of aspirin
C.
It will demonstrate the effects of clopidogrel
D.
It can guide the administration of specific blood products
E.
It is more cost effective than conventional laboratory
tests
D.
It can guide the administration of specific blood products
TEG and ROTEM are
Thromboelastography (TEG) and
rotational thromboelastometry (ROTEM)
are visco-elastic point-of-care devices
providing rapid bedside assessment
of the overall coagulation status of the patient.
Derived parameters can guide the administration of specific blood products.
TEG and ROTEM insensitive to
Their tracings are insensitive to
aspirin and clopidogrel
and are poor at detecting conditions
affecting platelet adhesion
such as Von Willebrand’s disease.
It will not reflect the effects of hypothermia as the measurement is undertaken at 37°C.
It is currently more expensive that conventional testing
A 28- year- old man is in the Emergency Department resuscitation room.
He was the driver of a car involved in a head on collision at 40 mph.
He has no significant past medical history.
You carry out the primary survey.
Which potential injury on primary survey is the most
immediately life threatening?
A. Myocardial contusion
B. Pulmonary contusion
C. Massive haemothorax
D. Diaphragmatic rupture
E. Traumatic aortic
injury
C. Massive haemothorax
All of these injuries are severe and in keeping with major thoracic blunt force trauma.
The most immediate life- threatening injury is massive haemothorax requiring chest drain insertion and
thoracotomy if persistent
Management of high impact injuries principles
The brief description indicates a high energy impact which raises suspicion of significant injury.
Principles of management are in keeping with the advanced trauma life support doctrine of primary
and secondary surveys with definitive management.
The primary survey focuses on the airway,
breathing, circulation, disability, and exposure (ABCDE) principle.
This is conducted simultaneously with resuscitation of vital functions as set out in the Advanced Trauma Life Support Manual.
The immediately life- threatening injuries identified and treated on primary survey are indicated by the acronym ATOM- FC
Immediate life- threatening injuries
ATOM- FC
Airway obstruction
Tension pneumothorax
Open pneumothorax
Massive haemothorax
Flail
chest
Cardiac tamponade
Potentially life-threatening injuries
Traumatic aortic injury
Pulmonary contusion
Myocardial contusion
Diaphragmatic rupture
Oesophageal rupture
Tracheobronchial rupture
A 59- year- old man is in Intensive Care with severe cardiogenic shock following a massive myocardial infarction.
He has not responded to initial treatment with inotropes so an intra- aortic balloon pump (IABP)
is inserted. What is the most common side effect of IABP insertion?
A. Aortic dissection
B. Iliac dissection
C. Infective endocarditis
D. Aortic perforation
E. Limb ischaemia
E. Limb ischaemia
All of the above are possible complications but limb ischaemia is the most common. Limb ischaemia
can usually be resolved by repositioning or removal of the balloon
- A 72- year- old man presents for a coronary artery bypass graft. You use the EURO Score II to determine his operative risk during your pre- assessment. Which of these factors conveys the highest risk?
A. Emergency surgery
B. Ejection fraction <20%
C. Age >60
D. Chronic lung disease
E. A myocardial infarction 70 days
ago
B. Ejection fraction <20%
Blood flow balance in shunt
Blood flow to the lungs and body is a balance between systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and
pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR).
Examples of children with balanced circulation physiology who may present to local hospitals are infants with a large unrepaired atrioventricular septal defect or VSD.
ASD - VSD flow physiology
These infants have predominantly left- to- right shunt flow.
High concentrations of oxygen will
increase pulmonary blood flow (PBF) and reduce systemic perfusion;
conversely, large doses of induction agent
may reduce SVR so much that
shunt flow is reversed causing
reduced PBF, worsened shunt, and desaturation
Propofol affect on shunt dynamics in septal defects
Propofol profoundly decreases SVR and MAP,
which alters shunt dynamics to
favour right to left flow and cyanosis.
Hyperventilation reduces PVR by removing CO2
and phenylephrine increases SVR,
favouring a left to right shunt,
improving pulmonary blood flow
and reducing cyanosis.
PEEP increases PVR