10. Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q
1. Assess 2 day old baby 
Surgery testicular Torsion
39/40 After uneventful pregnancy / Delivery
Baby is average weight
Correct Dose of IV paracetamol
A. 3.5 mg
B. 10 mg 
C. 15 mg
D. 26 mg
E. 53 mg
A

D. 26 mg

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2
Q

Average neonate weight

A

3.5 kg

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3
Q

Paed dose IV paracetamol

A

Paediatric dose IV Paracetamol
15mg/kg 10-33kg

<10kg
Dose reduction to 7.5mg/kg

Increased risk toxicity
Altered PK of developing organs

MHRA Guidance & Safe Anaesthesia Liaison Group

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4
Q

Anaesthetise 4yo exploration groin
No relevant PMH
No Prev GA

IV induction
LMA 2
SV - O2/Air/ Sevo on Ayre’s T piece.

Give 2mg IV mophine

30 min into operation
Rising FiCO2
Other parameters normal range

Cause:

A. Hypoventilation 2nd to Opioid
B. MH
C. Soda lime exhaustion
D. FGF low
E. FGF hih
A

D, FGF too low

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5
Q

Answer to 2

A

The question asks about rising fractional inspired CO2

Answers A and B would cause a rise in the
end tidal CO 2 only.

The weight of a four-
year- old child can be estimated at 7 or 8 kg.

The correct dose of morphine is 0.1–0.2 mg/
kg so in this case an appropriate dose has been
given.

Soda lime is not used with an Ayre’s T
piece.

The fresh gas flow (FGF) when using this breathing system must be at least two or three times the
minute ventilation of the patient to prevent rebreathing and a rise of inspired CO 2

. Having a gas
flow that is higher than required is safe with no detrimental side effects for the patient but cost/
waste/
air pollution become relevant

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6
Q

FGF when using Ayres T Piece

A

The fresh gas flow (FGF) when using this breathing system must be at least two or three times the
minute ventilation of the patient to prevent rebreathing and a rise of inspired CO 2

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7
Q

3.
You anaesthetize a seven-
year- old boy for manipulation of forearm
fracture. On attaching the electrocardiogram (ECG) you notice multiple round bruises of different ages all over his torso. You are concerned the child may have suffered non-
accidental injury. It is 10 pm. The best action you should take is:

A. Notify your Consultant
B. Phone the on- call social worker
C. Phone the police
D. Phone the court
E. Notify the hospital- designated child protection doctor
A

E. Notify the hospital- designated child protection doctor

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8
Q

Answer to 3

A

The anaesthetist has a duty of care to act upon any concerns they have regarding child safety and
should ensure they are familiar with the local child protection policies within their organization.

Every organization has designated child protection doctors, nurses, and midwives with whom
serious concerns can be raised and discussed either formally or informally.

This is commonly the Consultant Paediatrician on call who can ensure the issue is managed by the child protection team if deemed necessary

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9
Q

You perform an inguinal nerve block on a seven-
year- old child for operative management of undescended testis on the same side. The safest way to avoid inadvertent intravascular injection
is:

A. Monitor closely with ECG, non- invasive blood pressure (NIBP), and pulse oximetry
B. Using local anaesthetic with adrenaline (epinephrine)
C. Regular aspiration during injection
D. Using a nerve stimulator to guide placement
E. Observing the maximum safe dosage as per the child’s weight

A

C. Regular aspiration during injection

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10
Q

Answer to 4

A

Note this is not a question about local anaesthetic toxicity, it is specifically about accidental
intravascular injection, which is only one of the causes of local anaesthetic toxicity

Regular aspiration during injection (answer C) is the only one which allows early detection of accidental intravascular injection.

Monitoring as in option A would detect it but not avoid it; adrenaline (epinephrine) would increase the safe dosage and show a tachycardia but not protect
against IV injection.

D and E may prevent toxicity resulting from an excessive dose of local anaesthetic but not specifically due to intravenous injection

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11
Q

5.
Lidocaine 2% spray to the vocal cords may reduce the incidence of laryngospasm following tonsillectomy. Which best describes the pharmacodynamics of this?

A. It blocks the recurrent laryngeal nerves bilaterally
B. It blocks sympathetic efferents
C. It blocks parasympathetic afferents
D. It paralyses the smooth muscle of the
larynx
E. It blocks superior recurrent laryngeal
nerve

A

C.

It blocks parasympathetic afferents

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12
Q

How + Why Does Laryngospasm occur

A

Laryngospasm occurs by

contraction of the intrinsic muscles
of the larynx,

specifically the adductors.

It is usually triggered by a peri- glottic stimulus mediated via the Vagus nerve.

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13
Q

How does Lidocaine prevent laryngospasm

What is the supply to the Larynx

A

Lidocaine will block the afferent pathway
to prevent the reflex efferent response of glottic closure.

The larynx is supplied by the
superior laryngeal nerve
above the vocal cords

and the recurrent laryngeal nerve
below the vocal cords.

Both are branches of the vagal nerve
and both would need to be
blocked to prevent the efferent arc of the reflex

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14
Q
  1. A ten-month- old infant presents for elective herniotomies under GA. He appears well though routine examination reveals a soft systolic murmur; the rest of the examination is normal. The most appropriate action to take is:

A. Postpone surgery and obtain an urgent cardiac echocardiogram
B. Postpone surgery and refer the child cardiologist for investigation
C. Assume this is an innocent murmur and proceed
D. Proceed with anaesthesia giving antibiotic
cover
E. Proceed with surgery under local anaesthesia

A

B. Postpone surgery and refer the child cardiologist for investigation

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15
Q

Investigation of murmurs

A

The surgery is elective and non- urgent. Most murmurs are innocent murmurs, with less than 1%signifying congenital heart disease and most congenital heart disease is diagnosed before the age of three months.

But, any child who is less than one year old should be thoroughly investigated by Paediatric Cardiologists as presentation may be slower and/ or later.

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16
Q

You are in a restaurant when a mother frantically calls for assistance with her three- year- old daughter who appears to be choking. The child is conscious, and appears to be coughing but no noise is made. What is
the most appropriate immediate action?
A. Continue to encourage coughing
B. Deliver five back blows
C. Call for help (999) and deliver five abdominal thrusts
D. Perform a finger sweep under direct vision to dislodge the object
E. Place the child in the recovery position

A

B. Deliver five back blows

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17
Q

BLS choking

A

From the 2015 Paediatric BLS choking guidelines,
if there is an ineffective cough in a conscious
child (no noise, cannot vocalize, cyanosed) then five back blows should be immediately delivered
followed by five abdominal thrusts (use chest thrusts in an infant to avoid solid organ damage).

If the child were to become unconscious, the airway should be opened and anything visible could be
removed, followed by commencing basic life support

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18
Q

You anaesthetize a 6- year- old child for adenotonsillectomy. After the Boyle– Davis gag has been positioned, you notice the patient’s abdomen
moving excessively. You diagnose partial airway obstruction, confirmed by capnography. What is most likely to be the cause of this?

A. The LMA has moved
B. The LMA is too small
C. The Boyle– Davis gag is too small
D. The depth of anaesthesia is insufficient
E. The child has aspirated gastric contents

A

A. The LMA has moved

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19
Q

LMA answer

A

The LMA is most likely to have moved:
this is common during the move from anaesthetic room to theatre plus transfer of patient onto table.

If not in the correct position the LMA will be obstructed
when the Boyle– Davis gag is fully opened.

Insertion of the gag is a time when vigilance is specifically required to confirm the airway remains patent post insertion.

An LMA which is too small should not cause obstruction in this way (although may not establish the
best airway) and the Boyle– Davis gag used should the smallest possible to do the job

Depth of anaesthesia can be reduced during transfer but should be confirmed as adequate before
giving the surgeon permission to begin. Aspiration is less likely in a fasted child for an elective
procedure

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20
Q

A nine- year- old boy with mild learning difficulties and an incarcerated inguinal hernia requires surgical repair. He is refusing medication and topical local anaesthetic. The parents are hyper- anxious. Which of the following is the most appropriate action?

A. Wait until child is calm before anaesthetizing
him
B. Restrain with parental consent and attempt gas induction
C. Restrain with parental consent, give midazolam 0.5 mg/ kg orally and wait 20 min
D. Give IM ketamine 5 mg/ kg and wait 5 min
E. Restrain with parental consent and apply topical local anaesthetic cream to
hands

A

D. Give IM ketamine 5 mg/ kg and wait 5 min

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21
Q

Sedating combative child who needs a procedures

A

There is risk of surgical sequelae if he refuses to proceed.

The child is nine years old and older children will remember an unpleasant experience. This could
persist into adulthood and the child may continue to be very anxious. Gas induction could prolong
the experience and be difficult especially if regurgitation risk.

The dose of midazolam is usually 0.5 mg/
kg and effect peaks at 20– 30 min and then wears off.

Timing is crucial. The child will probably spit out medicine and still require restraint and cannula.

This ketamine dose is correct for sedation.

Duration of restraint is very brief to deliver IM injection
and will work within 5 min effectively in 93–
100% of children. Rapid action means the anaesthetist
can observe effects and time cannulation for IV induction.

Topical LA will probably be peeled off, takes 30 min to work, and still need cooperation for cannula
afterwards.

22
Q

Ketamine dose for sedation and effectiveness

A

Give IM ketamine 5 mg/ kg and wait 5 min

Duration of restraint is very brief to deliver IM injection
and will work within 5 min effectively in 93–
100% of children. Rapid action means the anaesthetist
can observe effects and time cannulation for IV induction.

23
Q

A three- year- old child has presented with coughing and mild stridor. The child is anaesthetized for investigation of the cause of these symptoms
and a STORZ ventilating bronchoscope is inserted. What is the most correct statement regarding the use of a ventilating bronchoscope?

A. Oxygenation is usually maintained by jet ventilation
B. It can only be used for diagnostic procedures
C. Correctly sized scope for the child will allow an audible leak at a 20 cmH 2 O pressure
D. It is a fibreoptic scope
E. No ventilation of the contralateral lung will occur if it is inserted endobronchially

A

C. Correctly sized scope for the child will allow an audible leak at a 20 cm H2O pressure

24
Q

How does ventilation occur with a STORZ bronchoscope

A

Ventilation occurs by attaching a breathing system, usually the Jackson- Rees T- piece to its distal end. It can be used for diagnostic and therapeutic procedures.

It is a rigid scope with an optical telescope sealing the distal end of the scope. Correct sizing allows a leak at a pressure of 20 cmH2O.

It has hole in its wall around 5 cm from the tip to allow ventilation of contralateral lung if inserted endobronchially

25
Q

A five- year- old boy of African origin presents for an elective hernia surgery.

His full blood count reveals his haemoglobin is 80 g/ L.

Which of the following is the best test to diagnose sickle cell disease?
A. Coagulation screen
B. Sickledex test
C. Reticulocyte count 
D. Haemoglobin electrophoresis
E. Serum lactate dehydrogenase
A

Haemoglobin electrophoresis

26
Q

Definitive test sickle cell

Screening test

A

Haemoglobin electrophoresis is the definitive test.

The Sickledex test can be useful in emergencies
as it is a rapid easily performed bedside test.

However, it only confirms the presence of HbS,
it does not differentiate between the heterozygous (sickle cell trait) and
the homozygous state
(sickle cell disease)

27
Q

You review a two- year- old boy in the emergency department with difficulty breathing.

He has had recent coryzal symptoms. No significant
medical history. His breathing is noisy on inspiration with tracheal tug and accessory muscle use. His saturations are 94% on air, RR 40 breaths/
min.

His temperature is 37.5°C. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Epiglottitis
B. Bacterial tracheitis
C. Laryngomalacia
D. Croup
E. Asthma
A

D. Croup

28
Q

Croup

A

This child has inspiratory stridor and is systemically fairly well with a mild pyrexia.

Croup is a common cause of stridor
in children of this age
and is viral in origin.
A classic sign is a seal- like barking cough.

29
Q

Epiglottitis

A

Epiglottitis is less common following
Haemophilus Influenza B vaccination programmes and usually results in a
child who is toxic/ systemically unwell
with prominent drooling and difficulty swallowing.

It presents acutely in otherwise healthy children with a fever as high as 40°C.

Epiglottic inflammation occurs quickly with the child sitting forward to use the accessory muscles of respiration and pain in the throat.

Salivation is prominent with difficulty swallowing.

Bacterial tracheitis is rare. Asthma would usually have a longer past history in an older child with
expiratory obstruction. Laryngomalacia may also have a more chronic history and is rarer than
croup in an otherwise well child (Table 0.).

30
Q

Croup v Epiglottitis

A

Aetiology

Parainfluenza virus vs Haemophilus influenza

Age
4 months to 2 years vs 2– 5 years

Onset

Subacute exacerbation of pre- existent URI

vs
Acute

Temperature

Low- grade fever vs High fever

Course
Usually mild, stridor may worsen at night

vs

Rapid progress of symptoms

Symptoms

Barky cough, stridor

vs

Dysphagia, sore throat, dysphonia, respiratory disease

31
Q

In the fetus, blood supplying the brain has a higher oxygen content than blood supplying the trunk and lower limbs. Which of the following statements is the best explanation for
this?
A. HbF has a higher oxygen affinity than adult haemoglobin

B. Metabolic autoregulation of the cerebral circulation

C. In the fetal circulation, blood with a higher oxygen content flows across the foramen ovale
and into the carotid arteries via the left ventricle

D. The ductus arteriosus ensures that blood from the pulmonary artery bypasses the collapsed fetal lungs

E. The ductus venosus ensures that most oxygenated blood from the umbilical vein bypasses
the portal circulation

A

C. In the fetal circulation, blood with a higher oxygen content flows across the foramen ovale
and into the carotid arteries via the left ventricle

32
Q

Answer 13

A

All the statements are true. However, only C answers the question directly. In D the ductus
arteriosus enter the aorta distal to the branching to the carotids

33
Q

4.
You attend the emergency department to review a six-
year- old child with sudden onset breathing difficulty. On your arrival the child appears unwell with lip and tongue swelling, expiratory wheeze, and widespread
erythematous rash. Saturations are 9% on oxygen. The child has no previous medical history. The most important drug treatment is:

A. Chlorphenamine
B. Salbutamol
C. Hydrocortisone
D. Magnesium
E. Adrenaline (epinephrine)
A

E. Adrenaline (epinephrine)

34
Q

Drugs to Rx Anaphylaxis

A

This patient has features of life- threatening anaphylaxis.

The rash, swelling, and lack of medical history point away from pure asthma.

The trigger is not clear from the history.

All the medications can be used to treat anaphylaxis. Antihistamines are second- line drugs and unlikely to influence rapid recovery although their use is logical. Steroids will help shorten episodes and prevent further flares although will not have an immediate action. Magnesium is indicated in asthma— intravenous magnesium is a vasodilator and can cause hot flushes and make hypotension worse.

Adrenaline (epinephrine) is the most important drug for the treatment of an anaphylactic reaction and should be given to all patients with life- threatening features. It works quickly to alter the course of the condition. As an alpha- receptor agonist, it reverses peripheral vasodilation and reduces oedema. Its beta- receptor agonist activity dilates the bronchial airways, increases the force of myocardial contraction, and suppresses
histamine and leukotriene release.

There are also beta- 2 adrenergic receptors on mast cells that inhibit activation. Early adrenaline (epinephrine) reduces the severity of allergic reaction

35
Q

An eight-year-old boy requires circumcision under general anaesthesia.

He is of normal weight and height for age. The best first choice of laryngeal mask size is:

A.1
B. 1½
C. 2
D. 2½
E.3
A

D.

36
Q

Average weight based on age

Formula

Valid till when

A

Average weight may be estimated by Weight =

Age + 4) × 2 (1–10 years

37
Q

LMA Size by weight

A

1— <6.5 kg

LMA

38
Q

You review a four- year- old boy in the emergency department with difficulty breathing. He has no significant medical history. His breathing is noisy on inspiration with tracheal tug and accessory muscle use.

He is sitting upright and drooling.
His saturations are 92% on air, RR 60 breaths/ min.
His temperature is 39.3°C.
The most appropriate immediate management
is:

A. Nebulized budesonide
B. IM dexamethasone
C. Heliox
D. Nebulized adrenaline (epinephrine)
E. IM antibiotics
A

D. Nebulized adrenaline (epinephrine)

39
Q

Rx upper airway swelling

A

The clinical signs indicate an airway concern with elements of respiratory distress. This is most
likely due to swelling in the upper airway probably of infective origin. Nebulized drugs are generally
not distressing to a child presenting with an airway emergency. Parenteral administration could
precipitate airway obstruction.

Adrenaline (epinephrine) nebulized is likely to be effective quickly.

0.25-5ml racemic adrenaline
3ml NaCl 0.9%w/v neb over 15min

40
Q
  1. You perform gas induction of anaesthesia in an uncooperative three-
    year old child following failed attempt at IV cannulation.
    The child develops laryngospasm which does not resolve with simple measures.

The fastest route to break laryngospasm in this child
is:

A. Intravenous (IV) suxamethonium 1.5
mg/ kg
B. Intramuscular (IM) suxamethonium 3
mg/ kg
C. Intralingual (IL) suxamethonium 2
mg/ kg
D. Intramuscular suxamethonium 4
mg/ kg
E. Intraosseous (IO) suxamethonium 2
mg/ kg
A

C. Intralingual (IL) suxamethonium 2

mg/ kg

41
Q

Fastest way to break spasm with muscle relaxant

commonest way

A

The patient has no IV or IO access currently, which will require additional time to obtain and an
extra pair of skilled hands. IL succinylcholine is essentially an IM injection into the body of the
tongue.

An IL injection of succinylcholine of 2 mg/
kg has been studied in children. Full relaxation
occurs in 75 seconds, and, therefore, relaxation of laryngospasm will be quicker than an IM injection
in the skeletal muscles.

Practically, IL succinylcholine requires injection directly into/ around the airway which could potentially make an awkward airway even more difficult. While IL is the fastest onset route in this scenario, we suggest that most anaesthetists are likely to choose an IM injection
(e.g. in deltoid) first in preference.

The IM dose is 4 mg/ kg (suggested maximum dose 200 mg).

Although the time taken for full paralysis is 3–
4 min, the time taken to break laryngospasm will be
45 seconds to 1 min.

Studies have shown that relaxation of the laryngeal muscles occurs before skeletal muscles and thus IM succinylcholine is a reasonable option

42
Q

A four- year- old child presents for circumcision. He has a runny nose, temperature of 37.2°C, chest is clear on auscultation, and is otherwise well. His father is particularly keen the child gets his operation today.
You should:

A. Delay the operation two weeks until he is
better
B. Delay the operation six weeks until respiratory tract returns to
normal
C. Delay the operation to test for sickle cell anaemia
D. Proceed with the operation using GA and caudal analgesia
E. Proceed with the operation using GA and penile block analgesia

A

E.

Proceed with the operation using GA and penile block analgesia

43
Q

Runny noses

A

It is common for children to have runny noses and provided they are apyrexial and systemically well
it is safe to proceed but it is important to provide excellent analgesia.

For this operation the safest effective method would be by penile block with
a GA.

You would not postpone to test for sickle cell.

44
Q

How to Rx child with sickle

A

If there was a high index of suspicion you would
carry on as if the child had sickle cell in the appropriate manner.

You should keep them warm and well hydrated and avoid hypercarbia and hypoxia and tourniquets

45
Q
A nine-
year old child is fasting and requires maintenance fluid. They are of normal weight for age and have no history of significant fluid losses. What rate of maintenance intravenous fluid therapy would you estimate they require?
A. 66 mL/
hour
B. 104 mL/hour

C. 78 mL/hour

D.260 mL/ hour

E. 90 mL/hour

A

A.
66 mL/
hour

46
Q

Est weight

A

Estimated weight is (age + 4) × 2 = 26 kg

assuming normality. Using the 4:2:1 regimen it works out as 66 mL/ hour.

47
Q
20. A eight- year- old girl requires emergency appendicectomy. She
has normal height and weight for age. The best choice uncuffed endotracheal tube
is:
A. ID 5.0 mm tube, depth 6 cm at
lips
B. ID 6.0 mm tube, depth 6 cm at
lips
C. ID 5.5 mm tube, depth 4 cm at
lips
D. ID 5.0 mm tube, depth 4 cm at
lips
E. ID 6.0 mm tube, depth 16 cm at
lips
A

E. ID 6.0 mm tube, depth 16 cm at

lips

48
Q

ETT sizes

A

Formulas based on age and height may fail to reliably predict the proper endotracheal tube (ETT)
size in paediatric patients. Various equations are available although the individual patient should be
considered in each case.

Predicted internal diameter tube size = age/
4 + 4.5 is generally a better fit than age/
4 + 4 up to
10 years, although both are often quoted. Therefore a 6.0- mm or 6.5-
mm tube could be used
in this patient, though only a 6.0 mm answer is offered as an option

These formulas are typically applicable to children aged 1–12 years.

Above age 12, typically most adult sizes (6.5–
8.0) can be considered.

49
Q

Predicted internal tube size

A

Predicted internal diameter tube size =

age/ 4 + 4.5

is generally a better fit than

age/ 4 + 4

up to 10 years,
although both are often quoted.

50
Q

Guideline for tube depth

A

The Advanced Paediatric Life Support (APLS) guidelines recommend calculating tracheal tube
insertion depth for children older than one year according to the formula: insertion depth (cm) for
orotracheal intubation = age/ 2 + 12