8. Adverse Drug Reactions Flashcards

1
Q

Why do dentists need to understand these?

A
  • need to fully understand potential for interactions of drugs
  • under-reported often as inability to recognise them or not seen
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2
Q

Define ‘adverse drug reaction’

A
  • harmful or seriously unpleasant event
  • occurring at a dose intended for therapeutic effect
  • calls for reduction of dose or withdrawal of drug
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3
Q

Historical events and dates of major issues

A
  • 1937 - sulphanilamide
  • 1961 - thalidomide
  • 1971 - diethylstilbestrol (uterine cancer in offspring)
  • 2006 - TGN1412 (excess cytokine release)
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4
Q

How does the iceberg theory link to clinical trial?

A
  • tip of the iceberg is what we know at the end of the clinical trial
  • below the sea is what happens when drug is in normal practice
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5
Q

Are any drugs fully harmless?

A
  • no
  • any drug which is pharmacologically effective carries some hazard
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6
Q

Drug safety is a relative concept and takes into account …

A
  • severity of adverse drug reaction
  • disease
  • therapeutic alternatives
  • individual perception and acceptance of risk
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7
Q

What suggests a cause and effect relationship between drug administration and adverse drug reaction?

A
  • time sequence between taking drug and adverse reaction
  • reaction corresponds to known pharmacology of drug
  • reaction stops on cessation of drug
  • reaction returns on restarting drug
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8
Q

After what is a causal relationship highly probable?

A
  • event has reasonable temporal association with drug
  • de-challenge from drug
  • observed event abated upon de-challenge
  • re-challenge
  • reaction reappeared upon re-challenge
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9
Q

What’s the yellow card?

A
  • from Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA)
  • filled in after reactions and filed
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10
Q

Define ‘side effect’

A
  • unavoidable consequence of drug administration
  • arising as unwanted action is just as integral as therapeutic effect to pharmacology of drug
  • can be of clinical benefit sometimes
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11
Q

Define ‘secondary adverse effect’

A
  • indirect causation
  • secondary to the drug
  • e.g opportunistic infections due to glucocorticoid therapy
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12
Q

How is age a risk factor for ADR?

A
  • 3 fold increase in ADR over 60 compared to under 30
  • can be due to increased medications or pharmacokinetic factors
  • neonates and children susceptible due to difference in pharmacokinetic factors
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13
Q

How is sex a risk factor for ADR?

A
  • females more likley
  • pharmacokinetics and hormone influence
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14
Q

How is medical history a risk factor for ADR?

A
  • if ADR to one drug, more likely to experience it with another
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15
Q

How is disease a risk factor for ADR?

A
  • pharmacokinetics
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16
Q

How is current medication a risk for ADR?

A
  • drug interactions
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17
Q

How is ethnicity a risk factor for ADR?

A
  • intrinsic ones (pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics)
  • pharmacokinetics - metabolism 90% japanese are fast acetylators, 50% of caucasians
  • pharmacodynamics - Ashkenazi Jews susceptible to agranulocytosis after clozapine (20% to 1% in normal pop), response to beta blockers (more in chinese than caucasian than african)
  • extrinsic is alcohol, diet, smoking
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18
Q

Classifications of ADRs

A
  • A to E
  • augmented pharmacological effect, bizzare effect, chronic effect, delayed effect, end of treatment effect
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19
Q

Define ‘augmented pharmocological effect’

A
  • adverse effect known to occur from primary pharmacology of drug
  • usually dose dependent
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20
Q

Define ‘bizarre effects’

A
  • adverse effects that are unpredictable from pharmacology of drug
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21
Q

Define ‘chronic effects’

A
  • due to chronic treatment with drug
22
Q

Define ‘delayed effects’

A
  • occur remote from treatment
  • either in children of treated patients or in patient themselves
23
Q

Define ‘end of treatment effects’

A
  • adverse effects occur as a result of stopping treatment
  • withdrawal effects
24
Q

Examples of Type A ADR

A
  • bradycardia from treatment with beta blocker - primary pharmacology is to decrease hard rate but is dose is too high, will be bradycardic
  • hypoglycaemia from insulin injection
  • tachycardia from muscarinic antagonist ipratropium
  • common/low mortality
25
Q

Parasympathetic activation normally

A
  • pupils constrict
  • lens of eye readjust for closer vision
  • airways in lungs constrict
  • heart rate decreases
  • blood vessels to limb muscles constrict
  • blood vessels to visceral organs more dilated
  • salivary secretions normalise
26
Q

Effect of a muscarinic antagonist on parasympathetic activation

A
  • pupils dilate (relaxation of constrictor pupillary muscle/blurred vision)
  • increased focal length of lens (relaxed ciliary muscle)
  • bronchodilation
  • increased cardiac output (rate and force)
  • decreased GI motility
  • decreased exocrine grand secretion (dry mouth, decreased sweating)
27
Q

Muscarinic antagonists are known as …

A

parasympatholytic

28
Q

Pupil dilation can be an ADR to … and a therapeutic effect to …

A
  • atropine
  • tropicamide
29
Q

Bronchodilation can be an ADR to … and a therapeutic effect to …

A
  • nothing
  • ipratropium
30
Q

Increased heart rate can be an ADR to … and a therapeutic effect to …

A
  • ipratropium
  • nothing
31
Q

Decreased gut motility can be an ADR to … and a therapeutic effect to …

A
  • nothing
  • hyoscine
32
Q

Decreased exocrine secretions/dry mouth can be an ADR to … and a therapeutic effect to …

A
  • iprapropium
  • atropine
33
Q

Examples of bizarre type B reactions

A
  • anaphylaxis due to penicillin
  • bone marrow suppression due to chloramphenicol
  • uncommon so often have high mortality
34
Q

Explain the TGN1412 Clinical trial

A
  • phase 1 clinical trial - autoimmune/leukaemia treatment
  • ADRs included decreased blood pressure, nausea, pain, soft tissue damage and multi-organ failure
  • caused excess cytokine release (cytokine storm) and indiscriminate immune response
35
Q

Example of type 3 chronic ADR

A
  • iatrogenic Cushing syndrome from chronic glucocorticoid therapy
36
Q

Explain hypercortisolaemia

A
  • Cushing’s syndrome
  • caused by adrenal/pituitary tumour (Cushing’s disease)
  • side effect of chronic glucocorticoid therapy
37
Q

Examples of delayed type D ADRs

A
  • diethylstilbestrol given to pregnant mother (causes high incidence of avginal cancer in offspring in 20s)
  • isotretinoin (accutane) causes birth defects
  • second cancers in response to Hodgkin’s disease treatment
38
Q

Example of type E end of treatment ADR

A
  • adrenal insufficiency after glucocorticoid therapy
39
Q

Regulation of metabolism by corticosteroids

A
  • hypothalamic nuclei
  • with CRH goes to anterior pituitary
  • with ACTH and negative feedback goes to adrenal cortex
  • produces cortisol
40
Q

Explain adrenal atrophy in response to glucocorticoid treatment

A
  • exogenous glucocorticoids used for anti-inflammatory or immunosuppressive therapy
  • act of HPA axis negative feedback system and over time adrenal atrophy
  • on termination of treatment, atrophied adrenals cannot produce enough cortisol so results in adrenal insuffiency
41
Q

Symptoms of adrenal insufficiency

A
  • general weakness
  • weight loss
  • nausea
  • Addinson’s disease
42
Q

When one drug modifies the action of another, the modification can be … or …

A
  • potentiation
  • attenuation
43
Q

What are the pharmacodynamic interactions of drugs?

A
  • similar of opposing pharmacological effects
  • ethanol increasing sedative effect of antihistamine drugs or some antidepressants
44
Q

What are the pharmacokinetic interactions of drugs?

A
  • one drug interferes with disposition (e.g metabolism or excretion) of other
  • monoamine oxidase inhibitors blocking metabolism of dietary amine
  • many drugs inhibit CYP450 (like fluvoxamine) so can interfere with metabolism of other drugs
45
Q

CBZ is what?

A

carbamazepine

46
Q

Stages of carbamazepine metabolism?

A
  • CBZ is the parent drug (active)
  • with CYP3A3/4 becomes CBZ-Epoxide (an epoxide metabolite which is also active)
  • with epoxide hydrolase, becomes CBZ-diol (a diol metabolite - inactive)
47
Q

What increases metabolism of CBZ?

A
  • carbamazepine
  • phenobarb
  • phenytoin
  • primidone
48
Q

Things that decrease CBZ metabolism

A
  • cimetidine
  • danazol
  • fluozetine
  • verapamil
  • diltazem
  • antiretrovirals
49
Q

Things that increase CBZ-E to CBZ-diol stage

A
  • SAME AS CBZ TO CBZ-E
  • carbamazepine
  • phenobarb
  • phenytoin
  • primidone
50
Q

Things that decrease CBZ-E to CBZ-diol

A
  • lamotrigine
  • valproate