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FedEx 767 Systems > 767 SYS Review > Flashcards

767 SYS Review Flashcards

1
Q

What are the steps of the 767 Fuel Jettison operation?

A
  1. The FUEL JETTISON selector is selected ON.
  2. The jettison transfer valves open.
  3. The jettison pumps operate.
  4. The FUEL JETTISON NOZZLE switches are selected ON.
  5. The nozzle valves open.
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2
Q

What is the rate of fuel jettison provided by the two dual pump units?

A

2600 lbs/min.

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3
Q

Each main tank capacity is?

A

Approx 40,000 lbs

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4
Q

The center tank capacity is?

A

Approx 80,000 lbs

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5
Q

Total fuel capacity for the 767 is?

A

Approx 160,000 lbs

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6
Q

Which fuel pump feeds the APU with no AC power on the airplane?

A

A dedicated left main tank DC fuel pump.

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7
Q

Which fuel pump feeds the APU with AC power on the airplane?

A

Any AC fuel pump supplying fuel to the left fuel manifold.

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8
Q

The Left Hydraulic System powers:

A

Left Hydraulic System powers:

  • Flight controls
  • Yaw damper - Right
  • Stab trim module
  • Trapped fluid used by PES
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9
Q

The Right Hydraulic System powers:

A

Right Hydraulic System powers:

  • Flight controls.
  • Normal brakes.
  • Pitch enhancement system motor
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10
Q

The Center Hydraulic System powers:

A

Center Hydraulic System Powers:

  • Flight controls.
  • Landing Gear
  • Yaw Damper - Left
  • Nose wheel steering.
  • Flaps and slats.
  • Alternate brakes.
  • Hydraulic driven generator.
  • Tail skid.
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11
Q

Gear doors open on taxi in =

A

Alternate gear extension

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12
Q

Alternate Action Switch =

A

In/out switch
Out/extended = shutter is closed = off and resets faults
In/flush (placard visible) = ON/ARMED for automatic operation

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13
Q

Momentary Action Switch =

A

Like a doorbell

Stays extended, cycles ON/OFF

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14
Q

(For the Test…). What is the fuel imbalance #?

A

1800

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15
Q

Emergency Lights battery pack will last how long?

A

15 minutes

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16
Q

(T/F) EMERGENCY LIGHTS system is independent of the aircraft battery…

A

True

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17
Q

LT OVRD switch does what?

A

Overrides switch position and turns on essential cockpit lighting

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18
Q

Which light is used as a taxi light?

A

Nose gear light.

This light is inhibited when not extended.

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19
Q

Where are the landing lights located?

A

On the wings

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20
Q

Oxygen preflight minimum psi?

Where is the oxygen indicator found?

A

1000 PSI

Indicator is found on the EICAS status page

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21
Q

What does a “CARGO DOOR” light mean when illuminated?

A

Door is not “closed, latched, and locked”

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22
Q

What two fuel pumps does the APU use?

A

A dedicated DC fuel pump.

The L FWD fuel pump when AC power is available.

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23
Q

Where can you find totalizer fuel?

Where else?

A

PROG page 2

Repeat info from the overhead fuel panel.

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24
Q

What’s the purpose of the cross feed valves?

A

Used to correct an imbalance

Enable any pump to feed any engine

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25
Q

Name three different FUEL CONFIG light conditions:

A

Fuel in the center tank with center pump switches off.

A difference between main tanks.

Low fuel in either main tank.

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26
Q

How long to completely jettison fuel from Center tank only?

A

30 minutes

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27
Q

How can you tell when the left forward AC fuel pump is feeding the APU?

A

The L FWD PUMP PRESS light will extinguish

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28
Q

What light is expected to flash during APU start up?

A

APU momentary fault light

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29
Q

Totalizer Fuel comes from?

A

Read directly from the probes

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30
Q

Calculated Fuel comes from?

A

Initial totalizer reading minus calculated fuel burn.

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31
Q

What can you determine if you have a disagreement between total and calculated fuel readings?

A

There is a fuel leak

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32
Q

How many cargo doors?

A

Four

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33
Q

What are the four CONFIG warning indications for takeoff?

A

Parking brake - set

Stab trim - not in green band

Speed brakes - not stowed

Flaps - not in takeoff position

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34
Q

EICAS Warning, caution, and advisory colors and sounds?

A

WARNING - TIME CRITICAL: red
WARNING: Red
CAUTION: Amber, for beeps in one second
ADVISORY: Amber, no sound, indented

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35
Q

When do you get a CONFIG warning indication for landing?

A

Gear not down and:
- Thrust lever idol below 800 RA (can be
silenced)

  Or....

 -  landing flaps selected.
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36
Q

(T/F). The CABIN ALT warning siren can be silenced

A

True

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37
Q

CABIN ALT warning…

Illuminate at?
Extinguishers at?

A

10,000’

8,500’

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38
Q

What Kind of aural warning do you get for an OVSPD?

Can the warning Be silenced?

A

A clacker and a siren

The siren can be silenced

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39
Q

When does the Master caution light INHIBIT begin/end?

A

On takeoff from 80 kts until 400 feet or 20 seconds have passed.

The caution light and four caution beeps are inhibited.

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40
Q

When does the master warning light INHIBIT Begin/end?

A

A nose gear strut extension until 400 feet or 20 seconds have passed.

The master warning light and fire bell are inhibited.

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41
Q

What kind of aural warning for any fire?

A

A bell

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42
Q

What kind of aural warning for anything except a fire?

A

A siren

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43
Q

Where does a second EICAS warning or caution populate?

A

On top of any like warning or caution

or…

“Most recent EICAS message appears at the top of its respective level.”

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44
Q

How many IRUs to make one IRS?

A

Three IRUs to make one IRS

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45
Q

Describe the altitude alerts when approaching MCP selected altitude:

A

Approaching altitude from 900 feet to 300 feet:

  • A white box appears around the MCP
    selected altitude
  • The altitude box changes from white
    to amber
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46
Q

Describe the altitude alerts when deviating from MCP altitude:

A

Deviating from MCP altitude from 300 to 900 feet:

  • A white box appears around the MCP
    selected altitude
  • The altitude box changes from white
    to amber
  • Caution beeps
  • CAUTION light, an ALT ALERT light, and
    a altitude alert EICAS message appear
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47
Q

What are the windshear indications?

A
  • Aural “WINDSHEAR” Warning.
  • Master warning lights.
  • WINDSHEAR Displayed on both PFD‘s.
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48
Q

When is the predictive windshear system active?

A

On takeoff roll

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49
Q

How are RAs displayed?

A

Red squares, immediate threat

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50
Q

How are TAs displayed?

A

Amber circles, potential threat

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51
Q

How are PROXIMATE traffic displayed?

A

Filled white diamonds

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52
Q

How are other traffic displayed?

A

Hollow white diamonds

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53
Q

Memory jogger to avoid traffic on TCAS?

A

“Avoid the zoid”

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54
Q

(T/F): The direction given by TCAS overrides ATC…

A

True

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55
Q

Where does terrain info come from on the NAV display?

A

From the database

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56
Q

Can terrain and weather be overlaid?

A

No

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57
Q

Name the four common fire indications:

A
  • Fire bell
  • Master warning light
  • Discrete fire light
  • EICAS warning message
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58
Q

How can you silence the fire bell?

A
  • Pressing the master WARNING light.
  • Arming the fire switch.
  • Extinguishing the fire
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59
Q

Additional ground indications for an APU fire?

A
  • Nose gear fire light.

- intermittent horn.

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60
Q

What kind of Annunciation do you get for an engine OVHT?

A

A caution

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61
Q

Pulling the fire switch does what?

A
  • arms bottles.
  • silences bell.
  • shuts off everything
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62
Q

When would you use the engine fire handle override switch?

A

In evacuation

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63
Q

How long will the metering bottle last on a lower cargo fire?

A

180 minutes

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64
Q

Pressing the DEPR/DISCH switch for a lower cargo fire does what?

A
  • Discharges bottle number one first.
  • then discharge is the metering bottle.
  • Discharges bottle number two as needed
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65
Q

Pulling the APU fire switch does what?

A
  • arms bottle.
  • silences bell
  • shuts off everything
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66
Q

Where can you discharge the bottle for a APU Fire?

A

The flight deck and the nose gear

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67
Q

When will the APU fire bottle auto discharge?

A

IF both fuel control switches are in CUTOFF.

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68
Q

What type of wheel well fire system do we have on the 767?

A

A single loop system

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69
Q

How do you operate the inter-phone switch?

A

“push it down to the ground.”

“ push it up and out“

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70
Q

How many VOR’s?

A

Two

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71
Q

How many ILSs?

A

Three

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72
Q

How are the thrust reversers powered?

A

By air

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73
Q

How is the max certified N1 setting indicated?

A

Amber radial.

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74
Q

Which switch adds additional headphone jacks for maintenance only and introduces static in-flight which may make it unusable?

Where is the switch located?

A

SERVICE INTPH switch.

On the P61 panel.

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75
Q

Amber REV Indicates what?

A

A reverser is in transit

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76
Q

Green REV indicates what?

A

And reverser is fully deployed

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77
Q

Reference N1 (bug) displayed in green is calculated by___?

A

TMC

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78
Q

Reference N1 (bug) displayed in magenta is calculated by___?

A

FMS/FMC

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79
Q

How many VHF radio‘s?

Which one is dedicated to the ACARS with DATA?

A

Three

Center VHF radio.

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80
Q

Max exceedance numbers on the engine gauges are displayed in what color?

A

White

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81
Q

Caution ranges on the engine gauges are displayed in white color?

A

Amber

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82
Q

When is the EGT caution range inhibited?

For how long?

A

On takeoff and go around.

Five minutes

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83
Q

Where is Max continuous thrust on the EGT?

A

The amber range

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84
Q

What automatically activates the standby engine indicator?

A

EICAS System failure

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85
Q

What is the purpose of the OIL PRESS lights to the left of the EICAS?

A

Provide a crosscheck to EICAS oil pressure indications.

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86
Q

“BB” on the VIB Indicator indicates ___?

A

Broad Band

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87
Q

How does the EEC operate?

A

Trims the fuel

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88
Q

What happens to the EEC in “hard mode?”

A

Over speed protection is lost

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89
Q

What should you do to the thrust levers before pressing either EEC switch?

A

Pull the thrust levers back slightly to avoid overspeed.

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90
Q

Climb 1 is a ___ Reduction for takeoff and climb?

A

10%

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91
Q

Climb 2 is a ___ Reduction for takeoff and climb?

A

20%

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92
Q

TO-1 is a fixed ____ take off power de-rate.

A

10%

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93
Q

TO-2 is a fixed ____ take off power de-rate.

A

20%

94
Q

Max take off power de-rate is ___?

A

25%

95
Q

Start Selector position GND:

A
  • Opens start valve.

- arms selected ignitors.

96
Q

Start Selector position AUTO:

A
  • closes start valve.
  • provides automatic ignition when slats
    or anti-ice are selected.
97
Q

Start Selector position CONT:

A
  • operates selected ignitors

continuously.

98
Q

Start Selector position FLT:

A
  • Operates both ignitors continuously
99
Q

What does “OIL Q FULL” On the status page mean?

A

The oil is full

100
Q

Engine starter duty cycle?

A
  • Max five minutes on.
  • N2 to zero.
  • 30 seconds cooling per minute of
    starter operation.
101
Q

Abnormal engine start indications:

A
  • No EGT within 25 seconds of selecting
    RUN.
  • EGT quickly nears or exceeds start limit.
  • Oil pressure not normal at idle.
  • no N1 rotation by 30 seconds after N2
    is stabilized at idle.
102
Q

APU starter duty cycle?

A

Three attempts in 60 minutes. (“3-60”)

103
Q

How long is the AP cool down?

A

90 seconds.

104
Q

Can you start the APU during the shut down sequence

A

Yes

105
Q

What does the APU “FAULT” light indicate?

What happens after the fault light?

A

A fuel valve is out of position.

The APU shuts down without a cool down. Period

106
Q

What happens if the main battery turns off on the ground with the APU running?

A

Causes aAPU shut down…
With cool down…
Without fire protection.

107
Q

What can you do to interrupt a stab trim signal?

A

Apply opposite yolk force.

108
Q

STAB TRIM CUTOUT switches remove hydraulic power from what systems?

A

L and C

109
Q

Trimming will disengage how many auto pilots?

A

It will disengage 1 active autopilot.

It will not disengage 2 or 3. (Is: appch tile engaged)

110
Q

“OFF” flag on the trim indicator means___?

A

Trim indicator is off.

111
Q

On landing, when will speedbrakes extend from ARMED position?

A
  • Trucks are not tilted (and…)

- Both thrust levers are at idle.

112
Q

On Landing, when will speed breaks extend from DOWN position?

A
  • Trucks are not tilted (and…)
  • Both thrust levers are at idle (and…)
  • “Either” thrust lever is deployed.
113
Q

What is the result of selecting flaps 1…?

A

Slats moved to the mid range position.

114
Q

What is the result of selecting flaps 5, 15, or 20?

A
  • Flaps move to the selected position.

- Inboard aileron droop occurs.

115
Q

What is the result of selecting flaps 25 or 30?

A
  • Slats fully extend
  • Inboard aileron group is removed
  • Flaps moved to the selected position
116
Q

What is the takeoff flap Range?

A

5 - 20

117
Q

Describe flap load relief?

A

Flaps move from 30 or 25 to flaps 20 In overspeed. Flaps automatically return to 25 or 30 after speed is reduced.

118
Q

What does a LEADING or TRAILING EDGE light cause to happen?

A
  • Leading and trailing edge lift devices stop.

- Flap handle is rendered in operative

119
Q

Arming either LE or TE switch does what?

A
  • removes hydraulic pressure from both
    leading and trailing edge lift devices.
  • selected electrical motor is armed to
    operate according to alternate flaps
    selector position.
120
Q

After touchdown and speedbreak up, what Will automatically bring the speedbreak down?

A

Moving either thrust lever forward.

121
Q

Annunciations light: STAB TRIM…

A

1/2 normal switch rate

122
Q

Annunciations light: UNSCHEDULED STAB TRIM…

A

Uncommanded STAB motion.

Wrong way…

123
Q

Annunciations light: SPOILERS…

A

One or more pair inop.

124
Q

Annunciations light: RUDDER RATIO…

A

Fault

125
Q

Annunciations light: AUTO SPDBRK…

A

Fault

126
Q

Annunciations light: ANTISKID

A

Fault

127
Q

Annunciations light: AIL LOCK

A

Fault

128
Q

Yaw Damper INOP, means…?

A

Fault, Off, or IRS not aligned.

129
Q

SPEEDBRAKES light happens when?

A
  • SPEEDBRAKES extended and:—Below 800 RA
    or…
    —Landing flaps.
130
Q

What hydraulic fluid does the RAT use?

A

Reserve fluid off of the #2 hydraulic system.

131
Q

When does the PES operate?

A

Any time L and C hydraulic system pressure is low.

132
Q

What does the green RAT pressure light indicate?

A

Good pressure to the C hydraulic flight controls.

133
Q

Min RAT Air speed?

A

130 kts

134
Q

What is accomplished with the gear handle in the 0FF position?

A

Depressurizes the system

135
Q

How are the NOSE/LEFT/RIGHT Gear annunciators illuminated?

A

One AC light and one DC light

136
Q

DOORS light indicates?

A

Any gear door is not closed.

137
Q

GEAR light indicates?

A

Disagreement between handle and gear.

138
Q

How does the alternate gear extension release all door and gear uplocks?

A

Electrically through a dedicated DC motor

139
Q

When are alternate breaks automatically selected?

A

With the loss of R Hydraulic SYS pressure (shuttle valve).

140
Q

What is different about anti-skid with alternate brakes?

A

It occurs in lateral pairs.

141
Q

When using alternate brakes, does the auto brake system function?.

A

No. Auto brakes are inop.

142
Q

Which is more effective?

RTO or Max Manual Breaking

A

RTO

143
Q

Which is more effective?

Max Manual Breaking or Max Auto

A

Max Manual Breaking

144
Q

When does RTO activate?

A
  • 80 kts.
    and. ..
  • Both thrust levers at IDLE.
145
Q

Autobrakes deactivate for…..

A

“FSTOP”

  • Fault in system
  • Speedbrakes moved toward DOWN
    position
  • Thrust lever advanced
  • Off or disarmed selected
  • Pedal breaking
146
Q

BTMS page, “Hot Brake” = ?

A
  • 5 or greater
  • Number and box in white
  • BRAKE TEMP light illuminates.
147
Q

What must be true before you can recharge the accumulator with the R hydraulic system?

A
  • The Nitrogen pre-charge in the
    accumulator must be above the
    amber band.
148
Q

PARK BRAKE light indicates?

A

Handle position only

149
Q

BRAKE SOURCE light indicates?

A

Loss of normal and alternate breaking.

150
Q

Pressing the RESERVE BRAKES switch…

A
  • Activates the C1 electric hydraulic pump,
    regardless of switch position.
  • Uses C reserve fluid to power alternate
    brakes.
151
Q

TAIL SKID indicates what, when displayed?

A

Disagreement light

The tailskid position disagrees with the landing gear lever position.

152
Q

How are APU bleed valves “controlled” and “actuated”..?

A

“Electrically” controlled and “Electrically” actuated.

153
Q

How are Engine Bleed Valves “controlled” and “actuated”..?

A

“Electronically” controlled and “Pneumatically” actuated.

154
Q

How are Isolation Valves “controlled” and “actuated”..?

A

“Electronically” controlled and “Electronically” actuated.

155
Q

APU switch with only a flow bar showing indicates…?

A

Armed for automatic operation.

156
Q

When do engine bleed valves open?

A

When pressure is sufficient to cause forward flow.

157
Q

Engine bleed switch with flow bar and OFF light indicates…?

A

Valve is armed and closed.
or…..
Has a fault.

158
Q

DUCT LEAK light indicates…?

A

Leak in the system

Heat detected outside of the ducting

159
Q

BLEED light indicates…?

A
  • Excessive bleed pressure.

- HPSOV or PRV problem.

160
Q

OVHT light indicates…?

A

Engine bleed over temperature.

– Engine bleed valve automatically closes.

161
Q

Pack Control Selector AUTO position - what does it do?

A

Sets pack output temp based upon coldest zone selection.

162
Q

STBY N delivers…?

A

“Constant, moderate” temp.

163
Q

STBY W delivers…?

A

Warm air.

164
Q

Can you reset a overheated pack?

A

Yes

165
Q

What four things cause a Zone Selector INOP light to illuminate?

A

“FOOT”…

F ault
O verheat
O ff
T rim air off.

166
Q

What happens when you get a Trim Air System “OFF” light?

A

Packs adjust to maintain an “average temp.”

167
Q

Equipment Cooling OVHT light indicates:

A
  • High temperature
    or. ..
  • Low air flow in the E/E cooling system.
168
Q

Equipment Cooling SMOKE light indicates:

A

Smoke in equipment cooling system.

169
Q

(Equipment Cooling panel) NO COOLING light indicates..?

A

Insufficient airflow after selecting OVRD.

170
Q

Elec Equipment will last how long with no cooling..?

A

90 minutes.

171
Q

Fwd Cargo Air Cond Syst:

  • “INOP” means….?
  • “FAULT” means….?
A
  • Failed system.

- Operating in Backup mode.

172
Q

Where are Fwd Cargo/Bulk Cargo temperatures displayed?

A

On the Status page.

173
Q

Cabin Alt Control panel:

AUTO RATE index gives you ____ climb and ____ descent?

A

500 fpm climb.

300 fpm descent.

174
Q

Cabin Alt Control Panel:

If AUTO 1 or 2 computer fails, how do you correct it?

A

Switching is automatic.

Status message appears.

175
Q

Cabin Alt Control Panel:

How do you know if AUTO 1 and 2 fail or if Manual DC controll is selected?

A

AUTO INOP light illuminates above the control switch.

176
Q

Autoland Wind Limits:

Max headwind:
Max Crosswind:
Max Tailwind:

A

25 kts
25 kts
15 kts

177
Q

Cabin Alt Control Panel:

How does the Auto Controller determine cruise altitude?

A

Logic sets higher of cruise or landing altitude.

178
Q

Cabin Alt Control Panel:

When does the CABIN ALT light illuminate?

When does the CABIN ALT light extinguish?

A

When cabin alt exceeds 10,000’.

When cabin altitude descends below 8,500’.

179
Q

At what altitude does the outflow valve close?

At what altitude does the outflow valve open?

A

When cabin altitude reaches 11,000’.

When cabin altitude descends below 9,500’.

180
Q

For Cat 2 and 3 approaches, how do we get three isolated systems providing redundancy?

A

C AC bus leaves the L AC bus and joins the Battery Bus.

The three systems: BATT/CAC, L AC, and R AC.

181
Q

What are the “Default Autoflight” modes?

A
  • Heading Hold

- Vertical Speed

182
Q

AUTOPILOT discrete light indicates..?

A

An engaged autopilot is in a “degraded mode.”

183
Q

Flight Mode annunciator (FMA) changes are indicated by…?

A

A green box around FMA mode for 10 seconds.

184
Q

How are “armed” and “active” modes displayed on the FMA..?

A

Armed: white
Active: green

185
Q

These modes can be used with autothrottles engaged:

A

THR, SPD, FLCH, VNAV and GA

the four around the IAS/Mach switch and GA.

186
Q

The Bus Tie switches in AUTO provide:

A
  • Power priority
  • Prevents paralleling
  • Detects and isolates faults
  • CA and FO instrument switching
  • DC Bus tie closes if we lose a Transformer Rectifier
187
Q

Electric “Power Priority:”

A
  • External Power powers everything
  • Oncoming generators power respective bus
  • Main buses prefer power from respective gen
  • Respective gen not available, bus powered by APU
  • APU power not available, bus go to opposite gen
188
Q

APU Gen Switch Indications:

Flow bar only:
Flow bar and off light:
No flow bar, OFF light only:

A
  • Breaker armed or closed.
  • Fault.
  • Breaker selected open.
189
Q

Engine Gen Switch Indications:

Flow bar only:
Flow bar and OFF light:
No flow bar, OFF light only:

A
  • Breaker closed.
  • Armed or Fault.
  • Breaker selected open.
190
Q

Bus Tie Switch Indications:

AUTO only:
AUTO and ISLN light:
No AUTO, ISLN light only:

A
  • Bus tie armed or closed.
  • Fault.
  • Bus tie selected open.
191
Q

(T/F) Everything DC is “behind the curtain.”

A

True

192
Q

When does Utility Bus Load Shedding occur?

A

“TOSS”…

T hrust levers advanced prior to start on APU power.
(requires reset of utility bus)
O verload.
S ingle generator operation source in flight.
S tarting an engine with APU providing power.

193
Q

What does it mean if you see a STBY POWER “OFF” light?

A

One of the buses (AC or DC) is not powered.

194
Q

What does the Ground Service Bus power?

A
  • Main battery charger.
  • APU battery charger.
  • Misc cabin and system loads.
195
Q

What normally powers the Ground Service Bus?

A

Right AC bus.

196
Q

What does the Ground Handling Bus power?

A
  • Lower cargo doors

- Fueling panel.

197
Q

what powers the Ground Handling Bus?

A
  • External power
    or. ….
  • APU
198
Q

Standby Bus power sources:

A
  • Left AC Bus (normally)
  • If left AC Bus fails:
      • Battery powers the standby busses
      • DC BUS tie closes.
      • Right AC BUS powers the standby busses.
199
Q

What does the Hot Battery Bus power?

A
  • Fire Switches
  • Fuel
  • Parking Brake
200
Q

How does the Hydraulic Driven Generator (HDG) operate?

A
  • “Automatically” turns on when both AC buses are
    unpowered.
  • HDG is powered by the C Hyd Syst, Air Driven
    Demand Pump.
  • HDG powers battery, stby busses, and Capts
    Instruments.
201
Q

What does the Hydraulic Driven Generator (HDG) power?

A
  • Battery
  • Standby busses
  • Captain’s instruments
202
Q

What’s another name for the three main displays?

A

Symbol Generators

203
Q

What ILS will the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) display?

A

Center ILS

204
Q

Pressing the “APCH” tile activates how many autopilots?

A

All three

205
Q

ILS expanded range… each square = ___?

A

1/2 dot

206
Q

What does Wing Anti Ice heat?

A

Three outboard slats

207
Q

Can you use Wind Anti Ice on the ground?

A

No… prohibited.

208
Q

When should you use Wing Anti Ice in the air?

A
  • Icing conditions exist

- Airframe icing is “present”

209
Q

When should you use Engine Anti Ice?

A
  • Icing conditions exist

- Icing is “anticipated”

210
Q

Anti Ice “VALVE” light means…?

A

valve not in commanded position.

211
Q

Window Heat “INOP” lights indicate?

A

Window not being electrically heated.

212
Q

When do you need to do a engine run up for takeoff?

A
  • Engine anti ice required.
  • OAT =/< 3 degrees C
  • Run up 60% N1 for 30 seconds
  • Within 30 minute intervals
213
Q

When are probes heated?

A

When an engine is running.

214
Q

Probe annunciator light means?

A

Probe is not being heated.

215
Q

When is the TAT probe heated?

A

Once airborne (TAT light inhibited on the ground)

216
Q

What ice protection is provided to front windows?

A

Anti Ice and Anti Fog

217
Q

What ice protection is provided to side windows?

A

Anti Fog

218
Q

What does “TAI” below the N1 guage mean?

A

Thermal Anti Ice is on.

219
Q

How many ILSs are controlled through the MCDU?

A

Three

220
Q

How many Flight Management Computers?

Which is Primary? Backup?

A

Two FMCs

Left FMC is primary. Right is backup

221
Q

Where do you find the allignment countdown?

A

IRU box… Select “HDG” on switch.

Countdown will begin to display when > 7 minutes left.

222
Q

How long is the IRS allignment process?

A

10 minutes

223
Q

IRS “ON DC” light…..

A

Lost AC power to IRS

    • L & C IRU will last 5 minutes
    • Then only Right IRU
224
Q

IRS “DC FAIL” light…

A 
NO backup power for the IRU.  (DC backup has failed)
Still works (runs off of AC system)
225
Q

IRS “FAULT” light…

A

IRS System fault

226
Q

IRS flashing “ALIGN” lights…

A

“NO BAD MOVES”…

  • No position
  • Bad position
  • Moved airplane
227
Q

IRS steady “ALIGN” lights…

A
  • Align mode
    or. ….
  • Shutdown cycle
228
Q

(T/F): During Startup, ON DC light displays as IRU tests DC power source.

A

True

229
Q

ANP vs RNP….

A

ANP should never be higher than RNP.

230
Q

Where is ANP located?

A

On teh POS REF page.

FedEx 767 Systems (3 decks)

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