767 SYS Review Flashcards

1
Q

What are the steps of the 767 Fuel Jettison operation?

A
  1. The FUEL JETTISON selector is selected ON.
  2. The jettison transfer valves open.
  3. The jettison pumps operate.
  4. The FUEL JETTISON NOZZLE switches are selected ON.
  5. The nozzle valves open.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the rate of fuel jettison provided by the two dual pump units?

A

2600 lbs/min.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Each main tank capacity is?

A

Approx 40,000 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The center tank capacity is?

A

Approx 80,000 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Total fuel capacity for the 767 is?

A

Approx 160,000 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which fuel pump feeds the APU with no AC power on the airplane?

A

A dedicated left main tank DC fuel pump.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which fuel pump feeds the APU with AC power on the airplane?

A

Any AC fuel pump supplying fuel to the left fuel manifold.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The Left Hydraulic System powers:

A

Left Hydraulic System powers:

  • Flight controls
  • Yaw damper - Right
  • Stab trim module
  • Trapped fluid used by PES
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The Right Hydraulic System powers:

A

Right Hydraulic System powers:

  • Flight controls.
  • Normal brakes.
  • Pitch enhancement system motor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The Center Hydraulic System powers:

A

Center Hydraulic System Powers:

  • Flight controls.
  • Landing Gear
  • Yaw Damper - Left
  • Nose wheel steering.
  • Flaps and slats.
  • Alternate brakes.
  • Hydraulic driven generator.
  • Tail skid.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Gear doors open on taxi in =

A

Alternate gear extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Alternate Action Switch =

A

In/out switch
Out/extended = shutter is closed = off and resets faults
In/flush (placard visible) = ON/ARMED for automatic operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Momentary Action Switch =

A

Like a doorbell

Stays extended, cycles ON/OFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

(For the Test…). What is the fuel imbalance #?

A

1800

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Emergency Lights battery pack will last how long?

A

15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

(T/F) EMERGENCY LIGHTS system is independent of the aircraft battery…

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

LT OVRD switch does what?

A

Overrides switch position and turns on essential cockpit lighting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which light is used as a taxi light?

A

Nose gear light.

This light is inhibited when not extended.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where are the landing lights located?

A

On the wings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Oxygen preflight minimum psi?

Where is the oxygen indicator found?

A

1000 PSI

Indicator is found on the EICAS status page

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does a “CARGO DOOR” light mean when illuminated?

A

Door is not “closed, latched, and locked”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What two fuel pumps does the APU use?

A

A dedicated DC fuel pump.

The L FWD fuel pump when AC power is available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where can you find totalizer fuel?

Where else?

A

PROG page 2

Repeat info from the overhead fuel panel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What’s the purpose of the cross feed valves?

A

Used to correct an imbalance

Enable any pump to feed any engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Name three different FUEL CONFIG light conditions:
Fuel in the center tank with center pump switches off. A difference between main tanks. Low fuel in either main tank.
26
How long to completely jettison fuel from Center tank only?
30 minutes
27
How can you tell when the left forward AC fuel pump is feeding the APU?
The L FWD PUMP PRESS light will extinguish
28
What light is expected to flash during APU start up?
APU momentary fault light
29
Totalizer Fuel comes from?
Read directly from the probes
30
Calculated Fuel comes from?
Initial totalizer reading minus calculated fuel burn.
31
What can you determine if you have a disagreement between total and calculated fuel readings?
There is a fuel leak
32
How many cargo doors?
Four
33
What are the four CONFIG warning indications for takeoff?
Parking brake - set Stab trim - not in green band Speed brakes - not stowed Flaps - not in takeoff position
34
EICAS Warning, caution, and advisory colors and sounds?
WARNING - TIME CRITICAL: red WARNING: Red CAUTION: Amber, for beeps in one second ADVISORY: Amber, no sound, indented
35
When do you get a CONFIG warning indication for landing?
Gear not down and: - Thrust lever idol below 800 RA (can be silenced) Or.... - landing flaps selected.
36
(T/F). The CABIN ALT warning siren can be silenced
True
37
CABIN ALT warning... Illuminate at? Extinguishers at?
10,000’ 8,500’
38
What Kind of aural warning do you get for an OVSPD? Can the warning Be silenced?
A clacker and a siren The siren can be silenced
39
When does the Master caution light INHIBIT begin/end?
On takeoff from 80 kts until 400 feet or 20 seconds have passed. The caution light and four caution beeps are inhibited.
40
When does the master warning light INHIBIT Begin/end?
A nose gear strut extension until 400 feet or 20 seconds have passed. The master warning light and fire bell are inhibited.
41
What kind of aural warning for any fire?
A bell
42
What kind of aural warning for anything except a fire?
A siren
43
Where does a second EICAS warning or caution populate?
On top of any like warning or caution or... “Most recent EICAS message appears at the top of its respective level.”
44
How many IRUs to make one IRS?
Three IRUs to make one IRS
45
Describe the altitude alerts when approaching MCP selected altitude:
Approaching altitude from 900 feet to 300 feet: - A white box appears around the MCP selected altitude - The altitude box changes from white to amber
46
Describe the altitude alerts when deviating from MCP altitude:
Deviating from MCP altitude from 300 to 900 feet: - A white box appears around the MCP selected altitude - The altitude box changes from white to amber - Caution beeps - CAUTION light, an ALT ALERT light, and a altitude alert EICAS message appear
47
What are the windshear indications?
- Aural “WINDSHEAR” Warning. - Master warning lights. - WINDSHEAR Displayed on both PFD‘s.
48
When is the predictive windshear system active?
On takeoff roll
49
How are RAs displayed?
Red squares, immediate threat
50
How are TAs displayed?
Amber circles, potential threat
51
How are PROXIMATE traffic displayed?
Filled white diamonds
52
How are other traffic displayed?
Hollow white diamonds
53
Memory jogger to avoid traffic on TCAS?
“Avoid the zoid”
54
(T/F): The direction given by TCAS overrides ATC...
True
55
Where does terrain info come from on the NAV display?
From the database
56
Can terrain and weather be overlaid?
No
57
Name the four common fire indications:
- Fire bell - Master warning light - Discrete fire light - EICAS warning message
58
How can you silence the fire bell?
- Pressing the master WARNING light. - Arming the fire switch. - Extinguishing the fire
59
Additional ground indications for an APU fire?
- Nose gear fire light. | - intermittent horn.
60
What kind of Annunciation do you get for an engine OVHT?
A caution
61
Pulling the fire switch does what?
- arms bottles. - silences bell. - shuts off everything
62
When would you use the engine fire handle override switch?
In evacuation
63
How long will the metering bottle last on a lower cargo fire?
180 minutes
64
Pressing the DEPR/DISCH switch for a lower cargo fire does what?
- Discharges bottle number one first. - then discharge is the metering bottle. - Discharges bottle number two as needed
65
Pulling the APU fire switch does what?
- arms bottle. - silences bell - shuts off everything
66
Where can you discharge the bottle for a APU Fire?
The flight deck and the nose gear
67
When will the APU fire bottle auto discharge?
IF both fuel control switches are in CUTOFF.
68
What type of wheel well fire system do we have on the 767?
A single loop system
69
How do you operate the inter-phone switch?
“push it down to the ground.” | “ push it up and out“
70
How many VOR’s?
Two
71
How many ILSs?
Three
72
How are the thrust reversers powered?
By air
73
How is the max certified N1 setting indicated?
Amber radial.
74
Which switch adds additional headphone jacks for maintenance only and introduces static in-flight which may make it unusable? Where is the switch located?
SERVICE INTPH switch. On the P61 panel.
75
Amber REV Indicates what?
A reverser is in transit
76
Green REV indicates what?
And reverser is fully deployed
77
Reference N1 (bug) displayed in green is calculated by___?
TMC
78
Reference N1 (bug) displayed in magenta is calculated by___?
FMS/FMC
79
How many VHF radio‘s? Which one is dedicated to the ACARS with DATA?
Three Center VHF radio.
80
Max exceedance numbers on the engine gauges are displayed in what color?
White
81
Caution ranges on the engine gauges are displayed in white color?
Amber
82
When is the EGT caution range inhibited? For how long?
On takeoff and go around. Five minutes
83
Where is Max continuous thrust on the EGT?
The amber range
84
What automatically activates the standby engine indicator?
EICAS System failure
85
What is the purpose of the OIL PRESS lights to the left of the EICAS?
Provide a crosscheck to EICAS oil pressure indications.
86
“BB” on the VIB Indicator indicates ___?
Broad Band
87
How does the EEC operate?
Trims the fuel
88
What happens to the EEC in “hard mode?”
Over speed protection is lost
89
What should you do to the thrust levers before pressing either EEC switch?
Pull the thrust levers back slightly to avoid overspeed.
90
Climb 1 is a ___ Reduction for takeoff and climb?
10%
91
Climb 2 is a ___ Reduction for takeoff and climb?
20%
92
TO-1 is a fixed ____ take off power de-rate.
10%
93
TO-2 is a fixed ____ take off power de-rate.
20%
94
Max take off power de-rate is ___?
25%
95
Start Selector position GND:
- Opens start valve. | - arms selected ignitors.
96
Start Selector position AUTO:
- closes start valve. - provides automatic ignition when slats or anti-ice are selected.
97
Start Selector position CONT:
- operates selected ignitors | continuously.
98
Start Selector position FLT:
- Operates both ignitors continuously
99
What does “OIL Q FULL” On the status page mean?
The oil is full
100
Engine starter duty cycle?
- Max five minutes on. - N2 to zero. - 30 seconds cooling per minute of starter operation.
101
Abnormal engine start indications:
- No EGT within 25 seconds of selecting RUN. - EGT quickly nears or exceeds start limit. - Oil pressure not normal at idle. - no N1 rotation by 30 seconds after N2 is stabilized at idle.
102
APU starter duty cycle?
Three attempts in 60 minutes. (“3-60”)
103
How long is the AP cool down?
90 seconds.
104
Can you start the APU during the shut down sequence
Yes
105
What does the APU “FAULT” light indicate? What happens after the fault light?
A fuel valve is out of position. The APU shuts down without a cool down. Period
106
What happens if the main battery turns off on the ground with the APU running?
Causes aAPU shut down... With cool down... Without fire protection.
107
What can you do to interrupt a stab trim signal?
Apply opposite yolk force.
108
STAB TRIM CUTOUT switches remove hydraulic power from what systems?
L and C
109
Trimming will disengage how many auto pilots?
It will disengage 1 active autopilot. It will not disengage 2 or 3. (Is: appch tile engaged)
110
“OFF” flag on the trim indicator means___?
Trim indicator is off.
111
On landing, when will speedbrakes extend from ARMED position?
- Trucks are not tilted (and...) | - Both thrust levers are at idle.
112
On Landing, when will speed breaks extend from DOWN position?
- Trucks are not tilted (and...) - Both thrust levers are at idle (and...) - “Either” thrust lever is deployed.
113
What is the result of selecting flaps 1...?
Slats moved to the mid range position.
114
What is the result of selecting flaps 5, 15, or 20?
- Flaps move to the selected position. | - Inboard aileron droop occurs.
115
What is the result of selecting flaps 25 or 30?
- Slats fully extend - Inboard aileron group is removed - Flaps moved to the selected position
116
What is the takeoff flap Range?
5 - 20
117
Describe flap load relief?
Flaps move from 30 or 25 to flaps 20 In overspeed. Flaps automatically return to 25 or 30 after speed is reduced.
118
What does a LEADING or TRAILING EDGE light cause to happen?
- Leading and trailing edge lift devices stop. | - Flap handle is rendered in operative
119
Arming either LE or TE switch does what?
- removes hydraulic pressure from both leading and trailing edge lift devices. - selected electrical motor is armed to operate according to alternate flaps selector position.
120
After touchdown and speedbreak up, what Will automatically bring the speedbreak down?
Moving either thrust lever forward.
121
Annunciations light: STAB TRIM...
1/2 normal switch rate
122
Annunciations light: UNSCHEDULED STAB TRIM...
Uncommanded STAB motion. | Wrong way...
123
Annunciations light: SPOILERS...
One or more pair inop.
124
Annunciations light: RUDDER RATIO...
Fault
125
Annunciations light: AUTO SPDBRK...
Fault
126
Annunciations light: ANTISKID
Fault
127
Annunciations light: AIL LOCK
Fault
128
Yaw Damper INOP, means...?
Fault, Off, or IRS not aligned.
129
SPEEDBRAKES light happens when?
- SPEEDBRAKES extended and: —Below 800 RA or... —Landing flaps.
130
What hydraulic fluid does the RAT use?
Reserve fluid off of the #2 hydraulic system.
131
When does the PES operate?
Any time L and C hydraulic system pressure is low.
132
What does the green RAT pressure light indicate?
Good pressure to the C hydraulic flight controls.
133
Min RAT Air speed?
130 kts
134
What is accomplished with the gear handle in the 0FF position?
Depressurizes the system
135
How are the NOSE/LEFT/RIGHT Gear annunciators illuminated?
One AC light and one DC light
136
DOORS light indicates?
Any gear door is not closed.
137
GEAR light indicates?
Disagreement between handle and gear.
138
How does the alternate gear extension release all door and gear uplocks?
Electrically through a dedicated DC motor
139
When are alternate breaks automatically selected?
With the loss of R Hydraulic SYS pressure (shuttle valve).
140
What is different about anti-skid with alternate brakes?
It occurs in lateral pairs.
141
When using alternate brakes, does the auto brake system function?.
No. Auto brakes are inop.
142
Which is more effective? RTO or Max Manual Breaking
RTO
143
Which is more effective? Max Manual Breaking or Max Auto
Max Manual Breaking
144
When does RTO activate?
- 80 kts. and. .. - Both thrust levers at IDLE.
145
Autobrakes deactivate for.....
“FSTOP” - Fault in system - Speedbrakes moved toward DOWN position - Thrust lever advanced - Off or disarmed selected - Pedal breaking
146
BTMS page, “Hot Brake” = ?
- 5 or greater - Number and box in white - BRAKE TEMP light illuminates.
147
What must be true before you can recharge the accumulator with the R hydraulic system?
- The Nitrogen pre-charge in the accumulator must be above the amber band.
148
PARK BRAKE light indicates?
Handle position only
149
BRAKE SOURCE light indicates?
Loss of normal and alternate breaking.
150
Pressing the RESERVE BRAKES switch...
- Activates the C1 electric hydraulic pump, regardless of switch position. - Uses C reserve fluid to power alternate brakes.
151
TAIL SKID indicates what, when displayed?
Disagreement light The tailskid position disagrees with the landing gear lever position.
152
How are APU bleed valves "controlled" and "actuated"..?
"Electrically" controlled and "Electrically" actuated.
153
How are Engine Bleed Valves "controlled" and "actuated"..?
"Electronically" controlled and "Pneumatically" actuated.
154
How are Isolation Valves "controlled" and "actuated"..?
"Electronically" controlled and "Electronically" actuated.
155
APU switch with only a flow bar showing indicates...?
Armed for automatic operation.
156
When do engine bleed valves open?
When pressure is sufficient to cause forward flow.
157
Engine bleed switch with flow bar and OFF light indicates...?
Valve is armed and closed. or..... Has a fault.
158
DUCT LEAK light indicates...?
Leak in the system | Heat detected outside of the ducting
159
BLEED light indicates...?
- Excessive bleed pressure. | - HPSOV or PRV problem.
160
OVHT light indicates...?
Engine bleed over temperature. | -- Engine bleed valve automatically closes.
161
Pack Control Selector AUTO position - what does it do?
Sets pack output temp based upon coldest zone selection.
162
STBY N delivers...?
"Constant, moderate" temp.
163
STBY W delivers...?
Warm air.
164
Can you reset a overheated pack?
Yes
165
What four things cause a Zone Selector INOP light to illuminate?
"FOOT"... F ault O verheat O ff T rim air off.
166
What happens when you get a Trim Air System "OFF" light?
Packs adjust to maintain an "average temp."
167
Equipment Cooling OVHT light indicates:
- High temperature or. .. - Low air flow in the E/E cooling system.
168
Equipment Cooling SMOKE light indicates:
Smoke in equipment cooling system.
169
(Equipment Cooling panel) NO COOLING light indicates..?
Insufficient airflow after selecting OVRD.
170
Elec Equipment will last how long with no cooling..?
90 minutes.
171
Fwd Cargo Air Cond Syst: - "INOP" means....? - "FAULT" means....?
- Failed system. | - Operating in Backup mode.
172
Where are Fwd Cargo/Bulk Cargo temperatures displayed?
On the Status page.
173
Cabin Alt Control panel: AUTO RATE index gives you ____ climb and ____ descent?
500 fpm climb. | 300 fpm descent.
174
Cabin Alt Control Panel: If AUTO 1 or 2 computer fails, how do you correct it?
Switching is automatic. | Status message appears.
175
Cabin Alt Control Panel: How do you know if AUTO 1 and 2 fail or if Manual DC controll is selected?
AUTO INOP light illuminates above the control switch.
176
Autoland Wind Limits: Max headwind: Max Crosswind: Max Tailwind:
25 kts 25 kts 15 kts
177
Cabin Alt Control Panel: How does the Auto Controller determine cruise altitude?
Logic sets higher of cruise or landing altitude.
178
Cabin Alt Control Panel: When does the CABIN ALT light illuminate? When does the CABIN ALT light extinguish?
When cabin alt exceeds 10,000'. When cabin altitude descends below 8,500'.
179
At what altitude does the outflow valve close? At what altitude does the outflow valve open?
When cabin altitude reaches 11,000'. When cabin altitude descends below 9,500'.
180
For Cat 2 and 3 approaches, how do we get three isolated systems providing redundancy?
C AC bus leaves the L AC bus and joins the Battery Bus. The three systems: BATT/CAC, L AC, and R AC.
181
What are the "Default Autoflight" modes?
- Heading Hold | - Vertical Speed
182
AUTOPILOT discrete light indicates..?
An engaged autopilot is in a "degraded mode."
183
Flight Mode annunciator (FMA) changes are indicated by...?
A green box around FMA mode for 10 seconds.
184
How are "armed" and "active" modes displayed on the FMA..?
Armed: white Active: green
185
These modes can be used with autothrottles engaged:
THR, SPD, FLCH, VNAV and GA | the four around the IAS/Mach switch and GA.
186
The Bus Tie switches in AUTO provide:
- Power priority - Prevents paralleling - Detects and isolates faults - CA and FO instrument switching - DC Bus tie closes if we lose a Transformer Rectifier
187
Electric "Power Priority:"
- External Power powers everything - Oncoming generators power respective bus - Main buses prefer power from respective gen - Respective gen not available, bus powered by APU - APU power not available, bus go to opposite gen
188
APU Gen Switch Indications: Flow bar only: Flow bar and off light: No flow bar, OFF light only:
- Breaker armed or closed. - Fault. - Breaker selected open.
189
Engine Gen Switch Indications: Flow bar only: Flow bar and OFF light: No flow bar, OFF light only:
- Breaker closed. - Armed or Fault. - Breaker selected open.
190
Bus Tie Switch Indications: AUTO only: AUTO and ISLN light: No AUTO, ISLN light only:
- Bus tie armed or closed. - Fault. - Bus tie selected open.
191
(T/F) Everything DC is "behind the curtain."
True
192
When does Utility Bus Load Shedding occur?
"TOSS"... T hrust levers advanced prior to start on APU power. (requires reset of utility bus) O verload. S ingle generator operation source in flight. S tarting an engine with APU providing power.
193
What does it mean if you see a STBY POWER "OFF" light?
One of the buses (AC or DC) is not powered.
194
What does the Ground Service Bus power?
- Main battery charger. - APU battery charger. - Misc cabin and system loads.
195
What normally powers the Ground Service Bus?
Right AC bus.
196
What does the Ground Handling Bus power?
- Lower cargo doors | - Fueling panel.
197
what powers the Ground Handling Bus?
- External power or. .... - APU
198
Standby Bus power sources:
- Left AC Bus (normally) - If left AC Bus fails: - - Battery powers the standby busses - - DC BUS tie closes. - - Right AC BUS powers the standby busses.
199
What does the Hot Battery Bus power?
- Fire Switches - Fuel - Parking Brake
200
How does the Hydraulic Driven Generator (HDG) operate?
- "Automatically" turns on when both AC buses are unpowered. - HDG is powered by the C Hyd Syst, Air Driven Demand Pump. - HDG powers battery, stby busses, and Capts Instruments.
201
What does the Hydraulic Driven Generator (HDG) power?
- Battery - Standby busses - Captain's instruments
202
What's another name for the three main displays?
Symbol Generators
203
What ILS will the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) display?
Center ILS
204
Pressing the "APCH" tile activates how many autopilots?
All three
205
ILS expanded range... each square = ___?
1/2 dot
206
What does Wing Anti Ice heat?
Three outboard slats
207
Can you use Wind Anti Ice on the ground?
No... prohibited.
208
When should you use Wing Anti Ice in the air?
- Icing conditions exist | - Airframe icing is "present"
209
When should you use Engine Anti Ice?
- Icing conditions exist | - Icing is "anticipated"
210
Anti Ice "VALVE" light means...?
valve not in commanded position.
211
Window Heat "INOP" lights indicate?
Window not being electrically heated.
212
When do you need to do a engine run up for takeoff?
- Engine anti ice required. - OAT =/< 3 degrees C - Run up 60% N1 for 30 seconds - Within 30 minute intervals
213
When are probes heated?
When an engine is running.
214
Probe annunciator light means?
Probe is not being heated.
215
When is the TAT probe heated?
Once airborne (TAT light inhibited on the ground)
216
What ice protection is provided to front windows?
Anti Ice and Anti Fog
217
What ice protection is provided to side windows?
Anti Fog
218
What does "TAI" below the N1 guage mean?
Thermal Anti Ice is on.
219
How many ILSs are controlled through the MCDU?
Three
220
How many Flight Management Computers? Which is Primary? Backup?
Two FMCs Left FMC is primary. Right is backup
221
Where do you find the allignment countdown?
IRU box... Select "HDG" on switch. | Countdown will begin to display when > 7 minutes left.
222
How long is the IRS allignment process?
10 minutes
223
IRS "ON DC" light.....
Lost AC power to IRS - - L & C IRU will last 5 minutes - - Then only Right IRU
224
IRS "DC FAIL" light...
``` NO backup power for the IRU. (DC backup has failed) Still works (runs off of AC system) ```
225
IRS "FAULT" light...
IRS System fault
226
IRS flashing "ALIGN" lights...
"NO BAD MOVES"... - No position - Bad position - Moved airplane
227
IRS steady "ALIGN" lights...
- Align mode or. .... - Shutdown cycle
228
(T/F): During Startup, ON DC light displays as IRU tests DC power source.
True
229
ANP vs RNP....
ANP should never be higher than RNP.
230
Where is ANP located?
On teh POS REF page.