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Animal Course Physiology Exam > 7. Skeleton and Joints > Flashcards

7. Skeleton and Joints Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a bone of the axial skeleton?
    A. Deltoid
    B. Ethmoid
    C. Sphenoid
    D. Hyoid
A

Answer is A: The “deltoid” bone does not exist. Choice D, the hyoid does not articulate with any bone, but being in the neck is considered part of the axial skeleton.

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?
    A. Haemopoiesis
    B. Haemostasis
    C. Peristalsis
    D. Glycogenolysis
A

Answer is A: New red and white blood cells are made in the bone marrow (haemopoiesis). Haemostasis refers to stopping bleeding.

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3
Q
  1. In which of the following bone structures do osteocytes live?
    A. Osteons
    B. Canaliculi
    C. Lacunae D. Lamellae
A

Answer is C: Lacunae are the spaces within the lamellae of an osteon which enclose a bone cell (osteocyte). These cells extend their processes into the canaliculi.

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4
Q
  1. Which bone is most superior?
    A. Manubrium
    B. Occipital bone
    C. Cervical vertebra #3
    D. Patella
A

Answer is B: The occipital bone forms the base of the skull and so is above (superior) to all the others when the body is in the anatomical position.

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5
Q
  1. What is a “trochanter”?
    A. Part of a femur
    B. A feature of the pelvis
    C. A projection that forms part of an articulation
    D. A groove in which lies a tendon
A

Answer is A: the “greater” trochanter is a bone marking (a bump) that lies on the lateral surface of the proximal femur, while the “lesser” trochanter lies on the medial surface of the proximal femur.

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6
Q
  1. One of the functions of bones is to make red blood cells. What is this process known as?
    A. Haemolysis
    B. Haemopoiesis
    C. Haematuria
    D. Haemostasis
A

Answer is B: Haemopoiesis (or haematopoiesis) refers to making all of cellular components of blood. The other (wrong) choices are, respectively, the rupturing (lysis) of RBC, blood in the urine and the process by which we cause bleeding to stop.

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7
Q
  1. Where do osteocytes reside?
    A. In lamellae
    B. In endosteum
    C. In trabeculae
    D. In lacunae
A
  1. Where do osteocytes reside?
    A. In lamellae
    B. In endosteum
    C. In trabeculae
    D. In lacunae
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8
Q
  1. Which of the following describes the movements known as pronation and supination?
    A. The flexing of the arm with respect to the forearm around the elbow.
    B. The swivelling of the foot to the medial and lateral directions.
    C. The twisting of the wrist while the elbow is held motionless.
    D. The rotation at the shoulder that causes the arm to describe a cone shape.
A

Answer is C: Pronation occurs when the radius is moved from a position parallel to the ulna to one where it crosses over the ulna, and supination is the return motion (may be thought of as the action we perform when turning off a wall-mounted tap).

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a “long” bone?
    A. The humerus
    B. The tibia
    C. A carpal
    D. A metacarpal
A

Answer is C: A “long bone” has a length that is significantly longer than its width. A carpal (a bone of the wrist) is a short bone.

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10
Q
  1. Which one of the following is a bone that is embedded within a tendon?
    A. Sphenoid
    B. Hyoid
    C. Ethmoid
    D. Sesamoid
A

Answer is D: Sesamoid refers to like a sesame seed. Many are normal parts of anatomy that ossify within tendons (patella, fabella, hallux sesamoid).

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11
Q
  1. In which one of the following structures do osteocytes reside? In the
    A. Haversian canals
    B. Lacunae
    C. Trabeculae
    D. Endosteum
A

Answer is B: Lacuna refers to a hole, pit, “lake” or cavity within a bone.

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12
Q
  1. Which bone of the head has a synovial joint?
    A. The sphenoid
    B. The maxilla
    C. The mandible
    D. The hyoid
A

Answer is C: The ramus of the mandible articulates with the temporal bone at the mandibular fossa. The joint is freely moveable, allowing us to chew and speak.

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13
Q
  1. What are the bones of the fingers known as?
    A. Short bones B. Metacarpals C. Carpals
    D. Phalanges
A

Answer is D: Phalanges (singular phalanx) are the bones of the fingers or toes. Metacarpals are the bones of the hand.

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following comprise seven bones?
    A. Cervical vertebrae
    B. Carpals
    C. Cranial bones
    D. Lumbar vertebrae
A

Answer is A: C1 to C7. There are eight carpals in each wrist. There are eight cranial bones. There are five lumbar vertebrae.

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15
Q
  1. Which term below refers to a depression in a bone?
    A. Tuberosity
    B. Fossa
    C. Tubercle
    D. Condyle
A

Answer is B: Fossa is a depression reminiscent of a (small) dinner table plate. A tuberosity is a roughening on a bone surface. The other two choices are projections above a bone surface.

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16
Q
  1. What body part is able to perform pronation and supination?
    A. The forearm
    B. The foot
    C. The thigh
    D. The wrist
A

Answer is A: It is the radius and ulna bones whose movement relative to each other produce pronation and supination

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17
Q
  1. Where are blood vessels in compact bone found?
    A. In the canaliculi
    B. In the periosteum
    C. In the lacunae
    D. In the central canal
A

Answer is D: The central canal (or Haversian canal) of an osteon houses blood vessels.

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a depression or cavity on a bone?
    A. Tuberosity
    B. Facet
    C. Meatus
    D. Sinus
A

Answer is A: A tuberosity is a rough area on the surface of a bone to which a muscle’s tendon attaches.

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19
Q
  1. One of the following lists contains only bones in the appendicular skeleton. Which one?
    A. Patella, ethmoid, femur, coccyx, tibia
    B. Clavicle, fibula, metatarsal, phalange, radius
    C. Humerus, scapula, occipital, metacarpal, sternum
    D. Ulna, radius, phalange, mandible, coxal
A

Answer is B: The coccyx, occipital, sternum and mandible are parts of the axial skeleton.

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20
Q
  1. A synovial joint is also known as one of the following, which one?
    A. Synarthrosis
    B. Immovable joint
    C. Slightly moveable joint D. Freely moveable joint
A

Answer is D: Synovial fluid is the lubricant that allows friction-free joint movement. A synarthrosis is an immovable joint.

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21
Q
  1. What is contained within the medullary canal of a long bone?
    A. Trabeculae
    B. Lamellae
    C. Marrow
    D. Osteoblasts and osteoclasts
A

Answer is C: Red (and/or yellow) marrow fills the medullary canal (or cavity).

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22
Q
  1. Where in the skeleton is the scapula located?
    A. In the axial skeleton
    B. In the appendicular skeleton
    C. In the carpal region
    D. In the shoulder girdle
A

Answer is D: The scapula (shoulder blade) is part of the shoulder girdle. It is also part of the appendicular skeleton, but choice D is the more specific answer.

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following bone markings forms part of an articulation?
    A. The deltoid tuberosity of the humerus
    B. The lateral condyle of the femur
    C. The greater trochanter of the femur
    D. The greater tubercle of the humerus
A

Answer is B: The lateral condyle of the femur articulates with the lateral facet of the superior articular surface of the tibia, in the knee joint.

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24
Q
  1. Where is the epiphyseal plate of a long bone located?
    A. In the diaphysis
    B. Between the diaphysis and the epiphysis
    C. In the epiphysis
    D. In the medullary canal
A

Answer is B: The “plate” is the hyaline cartilage between the shaft (diaphysis) and end (epiphysis) of a long bone in children and adolescents. In adults it is replaced by an ossified “epiphyseal line”.

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25
Q
  1. In which structure are osteoclasts and osteoblasts found?
    A. In the periosteum
    B. In the Haversian canals
    C. In the lacunae of osteons
    D. In the trabeculae of osteons
A

Answer is A: The membrane around bones houses the bone-forming cells (osteo-blasts) and the bone-resorbing cells (osteoclasts).

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following is a NOT a projection from a bone surface?
    A. Trochanter
    B. Tubercle
    C. Trabeculum
    D. Tuberosity
A

Answer is C: A trabeculum (plural trabeculae) is the internal bony structure of spongy (cancellous) bone.

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27
Q
  1. Which of the listed bones is superior to the rest?
    A. Manubrium
    B. Xiphoid process
    C. Coccyx
    D. Femur
A

Answer is A: The manubrium is the upper part of the sternum. The xiphoid process is the lower part.

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28
Q
  1. Choose the correct sentence. Compact bone contains
    A. Lamellae and osteocytes but no osteons.
    B. Trabeculae, canaliculi and osteons.
    C. Haversian systems and canaliculi but no osteons.
    D. Osteons and lamellae but no trabeculae.
A

Answer is D: Compact bone does contain osteons, but not trabeculae (which occur in cancellous bone).

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29
Q
  1. Which of the following bone markings is NOT a projection for muscle attachment?
    A. Fossa
    B. Tuberosity C. Tubercle D. Trochanter
A

Answer is A: A fossa is a depression into which fits a projecting part of another bone when the two bones form a joint.

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30
Q
  1. Which of the list below is a cell that reabsorbs bone?
    A. Osteon
    B. Osteoblast
    C. Osteocyte
    D. Osteoclast
A

Answer is D: The suffix “-blast” refers to an immature cell. In this case it develops into an osteocyte after it has secreted bone matrix around itself.

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31
Q
  1. The formula for the inorganic salts in bone is
    A. NH6C3COOH
    B. C6H12O6
    C. Ca10(PO4)6(OH)2
    D.CH3(CH2)7CH=CH(CH2)7COOH
A

Answer is C: This is hydroxyapatite. It is the only one with calcium and phosphorus. All the others are organic molecules.

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32
Q
  1. Freely moveable joints are also known as
    A. Fibrous joints
    B. Cartilaginous joints
    C. Amphiarthroses
    D. Synovial joints
A

Answer is D: Synovial joints have synovial fluid between the articulating bones. Fibrous joints have fibre between the articulating bones. Cartilaginous joints have cartilage between the bones. Amphiarthroses are “slightly moveable” joints.

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33
Q
  1. Which of the following is a projection from a bone surface?
    A. Fossa
    B. Fissure
    C. Foramen
    D. Facet
A

Answer is D: Facet is an articular surface that projects from a bone surface. A fossa is a shallow basin-like depression in a bone, often serving as articular surface.

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34
Q
  1. Which of the listed bones is the most inferior?
    A. Ethmoid
    B. Sphenoid
    C. Femoid
    D. Hyoid
A

Answer is D: Hyoid is in the neck. Choice A and B are in the skull. Femoid is not a bone.

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35
Q
  1. Choose the correct sentence. Cancellous bone contains
    A. Lamellae and osteocytes but no trabeculae.
    B. Trabeculae, canaliculi and osteons.
    C. Haversian systems and canaliculi but no osteons.
    D. Trabeculae and lamellae but no osteons.
A

Answer is D: Cancellous (spongy) bone does not contain osteons but does contain the little beams known as trabeculae.

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36
Q
  1. Which of the following bones is part of the cranium?
    A. Occipital
    B. Mandible
    C. Hyoid
    D. Carpal
A

Answer is A: The occipital bone forms the floor of the cranium.

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37
Q
  1. The appendicular skeleton includes all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one?
    A. The pectoral girdle
    B. The thoracic cage
    C. The phalanges
    D. The lower limbs
A

Answer is B: The thoracic cage (the ribs) is part of the axial skeleton.

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38
Q
  1. What is the name given to the central tunnel of an osteon that contains blood vessels?
    A. Canaliculus
    B. Endosteum
    C. Haversian canal
    D. Medullary canal
A

Answer is C: Also known as the central canal. The medullary canal is a macroscopic structure within the diaphysis (shaft) of a long bone.

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39
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a synovial joint? The joint between the:
    A. Tibia and fibula
    B. Sternum and rib number 1
    C. Thoracic vertebrae 4 and 5
    D. Proximal ends of the radius and ulna
A

Answer is D: The radius and ulna are freely moving at the elbow joint.

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40
Q
  1. Which list contains the bones of the pelvic and pectoral girdles?
    A. Coxal, scapulae, manubrium, ilium
    B. Clavicles, cervical, coccyx, innominate
    C. Clavicles, scapulae, coxal
    D. Clavicles, scapulae, sacrum, coxal
A

Answer is C: The manubrium, coccyx and sacrum are within the axial skeleton.

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41
Q
  1. Synovial joints have all of the following features EXCEPT one. Which one?
    A. Are surrounded by an articular capsule
    B. Have synovial fluid filling the space between articulating bones
    C. Have synovial membrane covering the articulating bone surfaces
    D. Are supported by reinforcing ligaments
A

Answer is C: Articulating bone surfaces are covered by hyaline cartilage. Synovial membranes cover all other internal joint surfaces.

42
Q

42.The manubrium and the xiphoid process are located on which part of the skeleton?
A. The lower jaw
B. The sternum
C. The pelvis
D. The hand

A

Answer is B: The manubrium and xiphoid process (and the body) are all parts of the sternum.

43
Q
  1. Carpals refers to
    A. The points of attachment of ribs to vertebrae
    B. Bones of the wrist
    C. Bones that are embedded within a tendon
    D. The thumbs
A

Answer is B: Wrist bones are carpals; hand bones are metacarpals (ankle bones are tarsals).

44
Q
  1. Haemopoiesis refers to
    A. Blood cell formation in bone marrow
    B. The process of blood clotting
    C. The crenation of red blood cells in a hypotonic solution
    D. An excessively large proportion of red blood cells to plasma
A

Answer is A: While the prefix “haemo-” refers to blood, the “-poiesis” part means making (or forming).

45
Q
  1. Articulating bones are joined by
    A. Aponeuroses
    B. Tendons
    C. Fasciculi
    D. Ligaments
A

Answer is D: Ligaments join bone to bone. Tendons (and aponeuroses) join muscle to bone.

46
Q
  1. On which bone is the greater trochanter found?
    A. Pelvic
    B. Femur
    C. Radius
    D. Humerus
A

Answer is B: Only the femur has a structure named “trochanter”.

47
Q
  1. What does “articulation” refer to?
    A. The joining of a ligament to a bone
    B. The contact made between a tendon and a bone
    C. The contact between two bones
    D. The connection between a muscle and a bone
A

Answer is C: Articulation means joint between bones.

48
Q
  1. To which bones does the word phalanges apply? Those in the
    A. Fingers and toes
    B. Wrist and ankle
    C. Ankle and foot
    D. Fingers and hand
A

Answer is A: Choice B refers to carpals and tarsals. Choices C and D include meta-carpals and metatarsals.

49
Q
  1. The axial skeleton groups together which sets of bones?
    A. The arms and hands, the legs and feet, shoulder girdle and pelvic girdle
    B. The head, shoulder girdle, arms and hands
    C. The thoracic cage, vertebral column, shoulder girdle, the pelvic girdle, the
    skull and facial bones
    D. Bones of the skull and face, thoracic cage and vertebral column
A

Answer is D: Choice A describes the appendicular skeleton. Choices A and D are complementary.

50
Q
  1. How do synovial joints differ from the other types of bone articulation?
    A. They have a joint cavity.
    B. The bones are joined by fibrous tissue.
    C. The articulating bones are joined by cartilage.
    D. The articulating bone surfaces are covered by tendons.
A

Answer is A: And the cavity is filled with synovial fluid. Choice D is nonsense.

51
Q
  1. What are the cells that are found in the lacunae of compact bone called?
    A. Osteocytes
    B. Osteons
    C. Osteoblasts
    D. Osteoclasts
A

Answer is A: Osteocytes develop from osteoblasts.

52
Q
  1. The appendicular skeleton groups together which sets of bones?
    A. The arms and hands, the legs and feet, shoulder girdle and pelvic girdle
    B. The head, shoulder girdle, arms and hands
    C. The thoracic cage, vertebral column, shoulder girdle, the pelvic girdle, the
    skull and facial bones
    D. Bones of the skull and face, thoracic cage and vertebral column
A

Answer is A: The appendages (arms and legs) and the girdles form the appendicular skeleton.

53
Q
  1. Synovial joints differ from the other types of joint between bones in the body because
    A. They are immovable joints.
    B. They are slightly moveable.
    C. The bones are joined by cartilage.
    D. The ends of the articulating bones are covered by hyaline cartilage.
A

Answer is D: Hyaline cartilage is very smooth which (along with synovial fluid) makes the movement of the articulating bones almost friction-free.

54
Q
  1. What does the term “Haversian canal” refer to in bone?
    A. The larger examples of foramina
    B. A groove that receives a muscle’s tendon
    C. The centre of an osteon that contains blood capillaries
    D. The space within a long bone that contains marrow
A

Answer is C: It is named after the English physician Clopton Havers, also known as the central canal.

55
Q
  1. What is the structure that attaches one bone to another?
    A. Ligament
    B. Cartilage
    C. Tendon
    D. Diaphysis
A

Answer is A: A ligament is the fibrous connective tissue that ties articulating bones together.

56
Q
  1. Which of the following describes what an “epiphysis” is?
    A. The shaft of a long bone
    B. The line that separates the shaft from the end of a long bone
    C. The membrane that surrounds a bone
    D. The end of a long bone
A

Answer is D: The similar terms “epiphyseal plate” refers to the region between the diaphysis and the epiphysis where growth of a long bone takes place. The “epiphyseal line” replaces the plate in adults, when the long bone has ceased to grow.

57
Q
  1. To what does the term “osteon” refer in bone?
    A. The bone cells (osteocytes) in lacunae
    B. A small rounded projection on a bone
    C. Concentric cylinders of calcified bone matrix D. The membrane covering the outside of a bone
A

Answer is C: These concentric cylinders surround a central canal (Haversian canal) and occur in compact bone.

58
Q
  1. Blood cell formation (haemopoiesis) occurs in which of the following structures?
    A. Red marrow
    B. Yellow marrow
    C. Medullary cavity
    D. Epiphyseal plate
A

Answer is A: Red marrow is “active” marrow, in that blood cells are being formed there. Red marrow occurs in the medullary cavity as well as in the cancellous bone of the epiphyses.

59
Q
  1. Compact bone differs from spongy (cancellous) bone because compact bone
    A. Does not contain osteons
    B. Is used to form short bones
    C. Contains marrow
    D. Has Haversian canals
A

Answer is D: Osteons are the structural units of compact bone, and each one surrounds a channel, called a Haversion canal, which contains blood vessels.

60
Q
  1. What is the role of hyaline cartilage in the body?
    A. It attaches muscle to bone.
    B. It reinforces joints by tying one bone to another.
    C. It covers articulating bone surfaces.
    D. It produces synovial fluid.
A

Answer is C: Hyaline cartilage is very smooth and, by covering the articulating surfaces of bones, ensures that the joint moves without noticeable friction.

61
Q
  1. What are bone-forming cells called?
    A. Osteons
    B. Osteocytes
    C. Osteoclasts
    D. Osteoblasts
A

Answer is D: Osteoblasts secrete bone around themselves, eventually isolating themselves within lacunae, whereupon they mature into osteocytes.

62
Q
  1. Where does the increase in the length of a long bone take place? At the:
    A. Diaphysis ossification centres
    B. Epiphyseal plates
    C. Cartilaginous plates
    D. Medullary canal
A

Answer is B: Bone is deposited on the side of the plate that is distal to the epiphysis, while bone is removed from the proximal side. In this way the diaphysis increases in length (and is remodelled).

63
Q
  1. The human skeleton consists of which of the following?
    A. Pectoral girdle, the hip girdle and the bones of the limbs
    B. Axial skeleton and the appendicular skeleton
    C. Cranial bones, the thoracic cage, the two girdles and the limb bones
    D. Appendicular skeleton, skull bones and the vertebral skeleton
A

Answer is B: Choice A omits the axial skeleton. Choice C omits the facial bones and lumbar vertebrae. Choice D omits the ribs.

64
Q
  1. The functions of bones may be stated as
    A. Fat storage, movement, mineral storage, protection, blood cell formation
    B. Mineral storage, haemopoiesis, movement, leverage, protection
    C. Blood cell formation, hormone production, movement, support, protection
    D. Support, storage, movement, haemopoiesis, protection
A

Answer is D: Each choice includes protection, movement and blood cell formation (haemopoiesis), so these terms cannot be used to choose the answer. Bones do not produce hormones, so choice C is eliminated. Bones do provide support to the body; hence only choice D is a complete list of functions.

65
Q
  1. What is true of synovial joints? They
    A. Are also known as amphiarthroses
    B. All have an articular disc to aid shock absorption
    C. Have a fluid-filled space between the articulating bones
    D. Have articulating bones held together by cartilage
A

Answer is C: The fluid is synovial fluid. Amphiarthroses are “slightly moveable” joints whereas synovial joints are freely moveable.

66
Q
  1. The tibia articulates distally with which one of the following?
    A. Tarsals
    B. Metatarsals
    C. Phalanges
    D. Femur
A

Answer is A: Distal refers to the end that is further away from the trunk. Hence the ankle bone (tarsals) is the correct choice.

67
Q
  1. Which of the following is an amphiarthrotic joint?
    A. Symphysis pubis
    B. Suture in the skull
    C. Elbow
    D. Shoulder
A

Answer is A: Choice B is an immovable joint, while choices C and D are freely moveable synovial (diarthrotic) joints.

68
Q
  1. What is the term “osteon” used for?
    A. A bone cell
    B. An Haversian system in compact bone
    C. The bony structure in spongy bone
    D. The space in a bone where a bone cell lives
A

Answer is B: Osteon and Haversian system are synonyms. A Haversian canal (central canal) is at the centre of the Haversian system.

69
Q
  1. In a long bone, which of the following parts are involved in an articulation?
    A. Epiphysis
    B. Metaphysis
    C. Diaphysis
    D. Symphysis
A

Answer is A: Epiphysis refers to the end of a long bone. The ends articulate with adjacent bones.

70
Q
  1. Hypochondriac refers to which of the following?
    A. Someone who complains chronically of ill health
    B. The abdominal region inferior to your ribs
    C. An abnormally low level of chondria in the body
    D. That part of your head surrounding your chin
A

Answer is B: “Hypo-” refers to below (or inferior to), while “chondral” refers to cartilage – specifically the costal cartilages that join ribs 7 to 10 to the sternum. Hypochondriac refers to the abdomen immediately inferior to the rib cage. Choices C and D are nonsense. While choice A is true in layman’s terms, we are dealing with anatomical terminology here.

71
Q
  1. Where are the bones known as the humerus and radius located?
    A. In the axial skeleton
    B. In the arm
    C. In the leg
    D. In the arm and leg respectively
A

Answer is B: This is a better answer than the also true choice A.

72
Q
  1. Where does blood cell formation occur? In the
    A. Blood
    B. Endosteum
    C. Haversian canal
    D. Red marrow
A

Answer is D: Red marrow is actively forming blood cells. Yellow marrow is inactive.

73
Q
  1. On what bone does the acetabulum occur?
    A. Occipital
    B. Humerus
    C. Pelvis
    D. Tibia
A

Answer is C: The acetabulum is the “socket” into which fits the ball of the femur.

74
Q
  1. Where is the xiphoid process?
    A. On the sternum
    B. On the humerus
    C. On the temporal bone D. On the tibia
A

Answer is A: At the inferior end of the body of the sternum. The temporal bone has a mastoid and a styloid process.

75
Q
  1. What is the metaphysis?
    A. The shaft of a long bone
    B. The region that separates the narrow shaft of a long bone from its end
    C. The end of a long bone
    D. The canal inside a long bone that contains marrow
A

Answer is B: The metaphysis is the bony remnant of the growth plate. The cartilaginous component of the growth plate is the epiphyseal plate.

76
Q
  1. What is a distinguishing feature of synovial joints?
    A. There is fluid between the articulating bones.
    B. They are immovable joints.
    C. The articulating bones are held together by tendons.
    D. They involve a “ball and socket” articulation.
A

Answer is A: The fluid is synovial fluid. Ball and socket joints are synovial, but are only one type of synovial joint.

77
Q
  1. What term is applied to moving the thigh laterally away from the midline of the body?
    A. Extension
    B. Adduction
    C. Abduction
    D. Flexion
A

Answer is C: “Abduct” is to take away (from the midline).

78
Q
  1. Where is the hyoid bone?
    A. In the sternum
    B. In the wrist
    C. In the knee
    D. In the neck
A

Answer is D: It is just superior to the cricoid cartilage, inferior to the mandible and superficial to the pharynx, also known as the lingual (tongue) bone.

79
Q
  1. What is the occipital bone?
    A. It is one of the carpals.
    B. It is a bone of the cranium.
    C. It is one of the vertebrae.
    D. It is a facial bone.
A

Answer is B: The occipital bone forms the base of the cranium.

80
Q
  1. What is a “foramen”?
    A. A basin-like depression serving as an articular surface
    B. A raised roughening which is a site for muscle attachment C. A hole through a bone for a nerve or blood vessel
    D. A sharp slender projection of bone
A

Answer is C: Nerves and blood vessels penetrate through bone via these spaces.

81
Q
  1. Which statement correctly defines an osteon?
    A. The arrangement of trabeculae and osteocytes that make up spongy bone
    B. The membrane that lines the medullary cavity
    C. Concentric cylinders of calcified bone matrix
    D. The distal or proximal end of a long bone
A

Answer is C: In two dimensions osteons appear as circles or ovals under the micro- scope, while in three dimensions, they are cylindrical.

82
Q
  1. What is the significance of the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone?
    A. It supports the optic nerve.
    B. It contains foramina through which pass the olfactory neurons.
    C. The external auditory meatus passes through it.
    D. It is an attachment point for the tongue.
A

Answer is B: The plate is a sieve-like structure, due to the many foramina which allow neurons from the olfactory bulb to contact the olfactory membrane in the superior nasal concha. Thus inhaled air can stimulate our sense of smell.

83
Q
  1. What is the function of the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone?
    A. It supports the pituitary gland.
    B. It protects the mammillary body.
    C. It surrounds the pineal gland.
    D. It supports the optic chiasma.
A

Answer is A: The sella turcica (latin for Turkish saddle) is a small depression of the
sphenoid bone into which fits the pituitary gland.

84
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the foramen magnum of the occipital bone?
    A. It allows passage for the optic radiation to reach the occipital lobe. B. It supports the cerebellum.
    C. The spinal cord passes through it to connect to the brain.
    D. It allows the brainstem to connect with the spinal cord.
A

Answer is C: Foramen refers to a hole in a bone, while magnum means large. This large opening in the occipital bone contains the superior part of the spinal cord.

85
Q
  1. Which bone(s) is/are part of the appendicular skeleton?
    A. Manubrium
    B. Metacarpals
    C. Maxilla
    D. Mandible
A

Answer is B: The appendicular skeleton includes the four limbs and shoulder and pectoral girdles. The metacarpals are the bones of the hands.

86
Q
  1. Which of the following bones is classified as a “flat” bone?
    A. Femur
    B. Fibula
    C. Frontal
    D. Fabella
A

Answer is C: The frontal bone and all cranial bone are “flat”. Choices A and B are long bones, while the fabella is a sesamoid bone in the tendon of the gastrocnemius muscle.

87
Q
  1. Which of the following surface features of bones serves as part of an articulation?
    A. Facet
    B. Foramen
    C. Fissure
    D. Phalange
A

Answer is A: A facet is a shallow dish-like depression in a bone that receives a projection such as a condyle, from another bone. Foramina are holes in bone through which blood vessels or nerve pass. A phalange is a finger or toe bone.

88
Q
  1. What feature listed below ties two articulating bones together?
    A. Retinaculum
    B. Cartilage
    C. Tendon
    D. Ligament
A

Answer is D: A ligament ties adjoining bones together. A retinaculum is a band of connective tissue that holds a group of tendons in place, e.g. at the wrist and ankle.

89
Q
  1. The term “canaliculi” is applied to structures that occur in which of the follow- ing anatomical features?
    A. Kidney nephrons and pancreatic islets
    B. Liver lobules and bone osteons
    C. Neuromuscular junctions and the juxtaglomerular apparatus
    D. Lung alveoli and thyroid follicles
A

Answer is B: Canaliculi (little canals) are tubes that collect the bile produced by liver hepatocytes. In compact bone, the term is applied to the minute channels that connect lacunae (which contain bone osteocytes) with the Haversian canal at the centre of an osteon.

90
Q
  1. Where can red marrow be found in the adult?
    A. In the pelvis, sternum and ribs
    B. At the epiphyseal ends of long bones such as the radius, ulna and tibia
    C. In the pelvis, sternum, ribs and the proximal ends of the humerus and femur
    D. In the medullary cavity of long bones
A

Answer is C: All bone marrow in children is red (actively forming blood cells). It gradually changes to “yellow” with age except for the sites in C. The medullary cavities contain yellow marrow. Red marrow is found mainly in the flat bones, such as the pelvis, sternum, cranium, ribs, vertebrae and scapulae and in the cancellous (“spongy”) material at the proximal epiphyseal ends of long bones such as the femur and humerus.

91
Q
  1. How many phalanges are there in the body?
    A. 20
    B. 48
    C. 56
    D. 60
A

Answer is C: Phalanges are the bones of the fingers and toes. There are 14 in each hand or foot. Two in the thumb/big toe and three phalanx (phalanges) in each of the four other fingers/toes.

92
Q
  1. How many bones in total that are proximal to the ankles are counted as being in the lower limbs?
    A. 4
    B. 6
    C. 8
    D. 12
A

Answer is C: Being proximal to the ankles excludes the bones of the ankle and feet. There are four bones in each leg (femur, patella, tibia, fibula); 4 + 4 = 8.

93
Q
  1. Which list has the correct numbers of vertebrae for an adult?

A. 7 cervical, 5 lumbar, 12 thoracic, 1 coccyx, 1 sacrum
B. 5 cervical, 7 lumbar, 12 thoracic, 4 coccyx, 5 sacrum
C. 5 cervical, 7 lumbar, 10 thoracic, 1 coccyx, 5 sacrum
D. 7 cervical, 5 lumbar, 10 thoracic, 4 coccyx, 1 sacrum

A

Answer is A: There are 26 vertebrae: 7C, 12T, 5L, 1S, and 1C in that order. The sacrum and coccyx are single fused bones in adults.

94
Q
  1. What is the significance of the lumbar curve of the spine?
    A. It allows the torso to twist about a vertical axis.
    B. It places the body’s centre of gravity above the feet to enable a standing posture.
    C. It places the head’s centre of gravity above the atlas vertebrae so that the head may be held level.
    D. It allows the torso to bend forwards to pick up objects from the ground.
A

Answer is B: Without the lumbar curve directing some body mass anteriorly, the centre of gravity could not be held over the base of support (the area bounded by the feet when placed on the ground). Choice C refers to the cervical curve.

95
Q
  1. Which term refers to the joint between the two pelvic bones?
    A. Pubic epiphysis
    B. Pubic symphysis
    C. Pubic diaphysis
    D. Pubic metaphysis
A

Answer is B: The pubic symphysis joins the two pelvic bones anteriorly. It is an immovable joint.

96
Q
  1. Which of the following joints is a synovial joint?
    A. Intervertebral joints
    B. The tibiofibular joint C. Skull sutures
    D. Carpometacarpal joints
A

Answer is D: The joints between the wrist bones (carpals) and bones of the hand (metacarpals) are synovial and freely movable joints.

97
Q
  1. Which two bones are involved in the movement known as “pronation”?
    A. Radius and ulna
    B. Tibia and fibula
    C. Carpals and metacarpals
    D. Mandible and temporal bone
A

Answer is A: The bones of the forearm (radius and ulna) are able to pronate. That is, crossover when the forearm twists.

98
Q
  1. What is the physical function(s) performed by synovial fluid?
    A. It forms a film that keeps the articulating surfaces of bone from touching.
    B. It provides nutrients to the cells in cartilage and removes their waste.
    C. It removes the heat generated by friction when the joint is in continuous use.
    D. It lubricates the movement of articulating bones and distributes the pressure evenly across the joint.
A

Answer is D: The lubricant action ensures a friction-free movement, while the relative incompressibility of the fluid allows, for example, the body weight to be distributed over the surface area of the knee joint (think about Pascal’s principle). Choice B is true but is a biological function.

99
Q
  1. What is the biological function(s) performed by synovial fluid?
    A. It forms a film that keeps the articulating surfaces of bone from touching.
    B. It provides nutrients to the cells in cartilage and removes their waste.
    C. It removes the heat generated by friction when the joint is in continuous use.
    D. It lubricates the movement of articulating bones and distributes the pressure evenly across the joint.
A

Answer is B: Cartilage is avascular so the chondrocytes get their nutrients and dis- pose of their wastes via the synovial fluid that bathes them.

100
Q
  1. Which of the following refers to an articulation between bones?
    A. Sinus
    B. Sulcus
    C. Symphysis
    D. Synovium
A

Answer is C: A symphysis is an immovable joint between two bones (e.g. the pubic symphysis or the mandibular symphysis). Choices A and B refer to structures within a bone. Synovium refers to the membrane that produces synovial fluid.

101
Q
  1. What type of joint has the space between bones filled with cartilage?
    A. Cartilaginous joints
    B. Synovial joints
    C. Fibrous joints
    D. Diarthroses
A

Answer is A: Cartilaginous joints have cartilage filling the space between bones. Choices B and D both refer to freely moveable joints.

Animal Course Physiology Exam (15 decks)

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