7- Normal pregnancy and labour ( Antenatal care: appointments, screening, lifestyle advice, medication)) Flashcards

1
Q

antenatal care for uncomplicated pregnancies is ……. led and involves how many appointments

A

Midwife led

  • first pregnancy: 10 appointments
  • second pregnnacy: 7
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2
Q

antenatal care for complicated pregnancies is ……. led

A

obstetrician led

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3
Q

higher risk pregnancies include

  • includes all the midwidery appointments plus joint clinics to cover mental health, haematological issues, diabetes etcs
A
  • multiple pregnancy
  • maternal health problems
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4
Q

how is gestation age describe

A

In weeks and days. For example:

5 + 0 refers to 5 weeks gestational age (since the LMP)
13 + 6 refers to 13 weeks and 6 days gestational age

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5
Q

trimesters of pregnancy: first

A

from start of pregnnacy until 12 weeks gestation

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6
Q

trimesters of pregnancy: second

A

from 13 weeks until 26 weeks gestation.

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7
Q

trimesters of pregnancy: third

A

is from 27 weeks gestation until birth.

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8
Q

when do fetal movements start

A

20 weeks gestation

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9
Q

key milestone of the antenatal period

A
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10
Q

additional antenatal milestones

A

Additional Milestones

There may be additional appointments necessary if the woman fits certain criteria:

  • Additional appointments for higher risk or complicated pregnancies
  • Oral glucose tolerance test in women at risk of gestational diabetes (between 24 – 28 weeks)
  • Anti-D injections in rhesus negative women (at 28 and 34 weeks)
  • Ultrasound scan at 32 weeks for women with placenta praevia on the anomaly scan
  • Serial growth scans are offered to women at increased risk of fetal growth restriction
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11
Q

what happens in the booking appointment

A

1) Education

  • How baby develops during pregnancy
  • What to expect at different stages of pregnancy
  • Lifestyle advice in pregnancy (e.g. not smoking)
  • Food hygiene
  • Supplements (e.g. folic acid and vitamin D)
  • Plans for birth
  • Screening tests (e.g. Downs screening)
  • Antenatal classes
  • Breastfeeding classes
  • PFMT
  • Discuss mental health
  • Smoking cessation, drug use and alcohol consumption

2) Planning
- Place of birth and pregnancy care pathway

2) Other measures
* Weight, height and BMI
* Urine for protein and bacteria (asymptomatic bacteriuria)
* Blood pressure
* Discuss female genital mutilation
* Discuss domestic violence

3) Booking bloods (see other flashcard)

4) Risk assessment
* Rhesus negative (book anti-D prophylaxis)
* Gestational diabetes (book oral glucose tolerance test)
* Fetal growth restriction (book additional growth scans)
* Venous thromboembolism (provide prophylactic LMWH if high risk)
* Pre-eclampsia (provide aspirin if high risk)

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12
Q

Clinical examination at booking

A
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13
Q

blood tests done in the booking appointment

A
  • FBC for anaemia
  • Blood group
  • antibodies and rhesus D status
  • screening for thalamssaemia (all women) and sickle cell (women at higher risk)
  • offer screening for HIV, HepB and syphilis
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14
Q

Routine Antenatal Appointments

A

Several things are covered at each routine antenatal appointment:

  • Discuss plans for the remainder of the pregnancy and delivery
  • Symphysis–fundal height measurement from 24 weeks onwards
  • Fetal presentation assessment from 36 weeks onwards
  • Urine dipstick for protein for pre-eclampsia
  • Blood pressure for pre-eclampsia
  • Urine for microscopy and culture for asymptomatic bacteriuria
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15
Q

Symphysis–fundal height measurement

A
  • taken from 24 weeks onwards (and at each antenatal appointment)
  • fundal height will match number of weeks of pregnancy +- 2 cm
  • e.g. if you are 27 weeks pregnant, fundal height should be about 27cm

remember when measuring to use blank side of tape first and then turn over to prevent bias

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16
Q

if concerns with foetal growth (detected using sympohysis fundal height) then what should happen

A

Send women for USS assessment

Other indications for regular USS
* Multiple pregnancy
* BMI >35
* Large or multiple fibroids

This is because these mothers are unsuitable for SFH measurements, as abdominal palpation is unlikely to be accurate in these instances.

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17
Q

what can be given to women who are high risk of having a small for gestational age foetus

A

Consider low dose aspirin at night from 12 weeks gestation

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18
Q

vaccines for all pregnant women

A
  • Whooping cough (pertussis) from 16 weeks gestation
  • Influenza (flu) when available in autumn or winter

LIVE VACCINES SUCH AS MMR AVOIDED IN PREGNANCY

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19
Q

vitamins in pregnancy

A
  • Folic acid - all women trying to get pregnant should take 400mcg (ug) daily and for the first 12 weeks of pregnancy
  • Vitamin D (10mcg) - reduce risk of rickets
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20
Q

women at higher risk of neural tube defects should be given

A

5mg of folic acid in the first trimester. Women at risk include:
* Epilepsy
* Previous baby with neural tube defects
* Obesity with BMI over 35
* Diabetes (Type 1 and 2)
* Sickle cell disease
* Thalassemia
* Malabsorption disorders (e.g. Crohn’s disease)
* Those taking folate antagonist drugs (HIV anti-retroviral drugs, methotrexate, sulphonamides)

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21
Q

describe rhesus disease

A
  • Causes Haemolytic disease of the foetus and newborn
  • Rhesus disease only happens when the mother has rhesus negative blood (RhD negative) and the baby in her womb has rhesus positive blood (RhD positive).
  • The mother must have also been previously sensitised to RhD positive blood.
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22
Q

describe rhesus disease

A
  • Causes Haemolytic disease of the foetus and newborn
  • Rhesus disease only happens when the mother has rhesus negative blood (RhD negative) and the baby in her womb has rhesus positive blood (RhD positive).
  • The mother must have also been previously sensitised to RhD positive blood.
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23
Q

when can sensitisation to rhesus antigens occur

A

Sensitisation happens when a woman with RhD negative blood is exposed to RhD positive blood
- usually during a previous pregnancy with an RhD positive baby.
- amniocentesis
- abdominal trauma

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24
Q

A rhesus negative woman’s body responds to the RhD positive blood by producing

A

Antibodies (infection-fighting molecules) that recognise the foreign blood cells and destroy them.

If sensitisation occurs, the next time the woman is exposed to RhD positive blood, her body produces antibodies immediately. If she’s pregnant with an RhD positive baby, the antibodies can cross the placenta, causing rhesus disease in the unborn baby. The antibodies can continue attacking the baby’s red blood cells for a few months after birth.

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25
Q

what is given to rhesus negative women

A

Anti- D AB

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26
Q

when is Anti-D given

A
  • Sensitising events (amniocentesis, antepartum bleed and abdominal trauma)
  • Check the dose of Anti D required with the Kleihauer-Betke test after a sensitising event.
  • Routinely offer prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks.
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27
Q

lifestyle advice in the antenatal period

A
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28
Q

antenatal screening involves what sort of tests

A

USS or blood tests or a combination of both

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29
Q

USS scan can screen for conditions such as

A

spina bifida

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30
Q

blood tests can screen for

A
  • sickle cell anaemia
  • thalassaemia
  • infections: HIV, Hep B and syphilis
31
Q

blood tests combined with scan can help find out how likely it is that a baby has

A
  • down syndrome
  • edwards syndrome
  • pataus syndrome
32
Q

risk of screening tests

A

Screening tests for Down’s syndrome, Edwards’ syndrome or Patau’s syndrome can lead to difficult decisions about whether to have a diagnostic test, such as amniocentesis, that carries a chance of miscarriage.

33
Q

Summary of conditions screened for

A
  • screening for infectious diseases (hepatitis B, HIV and syphilis)
  • screening for inherited conditions (sickle cell, thalassaemia and other haemoglobin disorders)
  • screening for Down’s syndrome, Edwards’ syndrome and Patau’s syndrome
  • screening for 11 physical conditions (20-week scan)
34
Q

20 -week screening scan looks for

A

11 rare conditions

  • anencephaly
  • open spina bifida
  • cleft lip
  • diaphragmatic hernia
  • gastroschisis
  • exomphalos
  • serious cardiac abnormalities
  • bilateral renal agenesis
  • lethal skeletal dysplasia
  • Edwards’ syndrome, or T18
  • Patau’s syndrome, or T13
35
Q

down syndrome is a condition caused by

A

trisomy 21

36
Q

purpose of screening for DS

A

The purpose of the screening test is to decide which women should receive more invasive tests to establish a definitive diagnosis.

37
Q

what does screening for DS invovle

A
  • taking measurments from the fetus using USS
  • measurements combined with: mothers age and bloods tests provide an indication of the risk of DS
38
Q

Screening tests for DS

A
  • combined test
  • triple test
  • quadruple test
39
Q

risk of down syndrome increases with

A

mothers age

40
Q

the combined test for DS is performed between

A

11 and 14 weeks
- combines US and maternal blood tests

41
Q

what do the USS part of the combined test for DS measure

A

Measures nuchal translucency, which is the thickness of the back of the neck of the fetus.

Down’s syndrome is one cause of a nuchal thickness greater than 6mm.

42
Q

what do the blood test part of the combned test for DS test for

A
  • Beta‑human chorionic gonadotrophin (beta-HCG) – a higher result indicates a greater risk
  • Pregnancy‑associated plasma protein‑A (PAPPA) – a lower result indicates a greater risk
43
Q

Triple test for DS

A

The triple test is performed between 14 and 20 weeks gestation. It only involves maternal blood tests:

  • Beta-HCG – a higher result indicates greater risk
  • Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) – a lower result indicates a greater risk
  • Serum oestriol (female sex hormone) – a lower result indicates a greater risk
44
Q

quadruple test for DS

A

The quadruple test is performed between 14 and 20 weeks gestation. It is identical to the triple test, but also includes maternal blood testing for inhibin-A.

A higher inhibin-A indicates a greater risk.

45
Q

invasive diagostic procedures

A
  • Amniocentesis
  • Chorion villus sampling
  • Fetocide
  • Aspiration of fluid filled fetal cavities
  • Amnioreduction/amniodrainage
    *
46
Q

which women would require an antental test for DS

A

Screening trests prodivde a risk score: when risk of DS is >1 in 150, the women is offered amniocentisus or chroionic villus sampling

Indication
- assessment if fetal karyotype (maternala ge, high risk for aneuploidy screening, abnormal US findigns, parental translocation, maternal request)
- molecular genetic testing (autosomal conditions)
- Virology screen for fetal infections e.g. CMV

47
Q

Amniocentesis

A

involves ultrasound-guided aspiration of amniotic fluid using a needle and syringe. This is used later in pregnancy (>15 weeks) once there is enough amniotic fluid to make it safer to take a sample.
- 15-20ml aspirated using 22G needle
-

48
Q

amniocentesis can also test for

A

Down syndrome
Edwards syndrome
Pataus syndrome

Methods of diagnosis
- culture of amniocytes
- harvesting and banding
- microarrays
- rapid testing (FISH/PCR)

49
Q

FISH molecular testing

A

Fluorescence in situ hybridisation

50
Q

risk of amniocentesis

A
  • miscarriage (risk higher if before 15 weeks)
  • infection
  • needing procedure again if not possible to accuratley test first sample
51
Q

Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)

A

involves an ultrasound-guided biopsy of the placental tissue. This is used when testing is done earlier in pregnancy (before 15 weeks).
* Ideally after 10 weeks
* Ultrasound guided with continuous visualisation of needle tip
* Transabdominal/transcervical
* Sample to cytogenetic/molecular genetics

52
Q

non-invasive prenatal test

A

-Free fetal DNA in matrnal circulation
- blood contains fragment of DNA, some of which will come from the placental tissue and represent fetal DNA
- Detection of: fetal rhesus phenotype, prediction of sex, detection of fetal aneuploidy (DS)

53
Q

NSAIDS and pregnancy

A

avoided in pregnancy (esp in third trimester)
- cause premature closure of ductus arteriosus
- delay labour (due to being prostag;andin inhibitors -> prostaglandins soften the cervix and stimulate uterine contractions at time of delivery)

54
Q

beta blockers and pregnancy

A

labetaolol most frequently used B blocker in pregnancy
- first line mamabegemtn for pre-eclampsia

55
Q

risk of B blockers in pregnancy

A
  • Fetal growth restriction
  • Hypoglycaemia in the neonate
  • Bradycardia in the neonate
    *
56
Q

ACEi and ARB in pregnancy

A

medications which block RAAS cna cross the placenta and enter the foetus- mainly affecting the kidneys (reducing urine production)

They can cause:
* Oligohydramnios (reduced amniotic fluid)
* Miscarriage or fetal death
* Hypocalvaria (incomplete formation of the skull bones)
* Renal failure in the neonate
* Hypotension in the neonate

57
Q

opiates in pregnancy

A

use of opiates in pregnancy can cause withdrawal symptoms in the neonate after birth- neonatal abstiennce syndroem (NAS)

58
Q

NAS

A

neonatal abstinence syndrome

NAS presents between 3 – 72 hours after birth with irritability, tachypnoea (fast breathing), high temperatures and poor feeding.

59
Q

warfarin in pregnancy

A

teratogenic in pregnancy since it can cross the placenta (better to use LWMH for women with recurrent venous thrombosis, AF and mechanical heart valve)

  • Warfarin can cause:
  • Fetal loss
  • Congenital malformations, particularly craniofacial problems
  • Bleeding during pregnancy, postpartum haemorrhage, fetal haemorrhage and intracranial bleeding
60
Q

Sodium valproate in pregnancy

A

AVOID in all women of childbearing age unless no suitable alternatives- *must ensure women does not get pregnant * (specific programme called Prevent (valproate pregnancy prevention programme))

Causes
- neural tube defects
- developmental delay

61
Q

lithium and pregnancy

A

mood stabilising drug- AVOID in pregnancy and those planning pregnancy unless other options failed. Especially avoud in **first trimesters. Must be monitored closely. Should also be avoided in breastfeeding.

Can cause
- congential cardiac abnormailities (esp Ebsteins anomaly)**

62
Q

SSRIs in pregnancy

A

most common antidepressants in pregnancy- risk needs to be balanced against the benefits of treatment.

Can cause:
* First-trimester use has a link with congenital heart defects
* First-trimester use of paroxetine has a stronger link with congenital malformations
* Third-trimester use has a link with persistent pulmonary hypertension in the neonate
* Neonates can experience withdrawal symptoms, usually only mild and not requiring medical management

63
Q

isotretinoin (roaccutane) and pregnancy

A

Isotretinoin is highly teratogenic, causing miscarriage and congenital defects. Women need very reliable contraception before, during and for one month after taking isotretinoin.
- women sign a document to agree not to get pregnant

64
Q

which antibiotics should be avoided in pregnancy

A
  • Tetracyclines such as doxy
  • Avoid nitrofurantoin in third trimester- risk of neonatal haemolysis
  • Avoid trimethoprim in first trimester- works as a folate antagonist
65
Q

food acquired infections esp listeriosis

A
  • Drinking only pasteurised or UHT milk
    not eating ripened soft cheese such as - Camembert, Brie and blue‑veined cheese (there is no risk with hard cheeses, such as Cheddar, or cottage cheese and processed cheese)
    not eating pâté (of any sort, including vegetable)
  • Not eating uncooked or undercooked ready‑prepared meals.
  • Pregnant women should be offered information on how to reduce the risk of salmonella infection by:avoiding raw or partially cooked eggs or food that may contain them (such as mayonnaise), avoiding raw or partially cooked meat, especially poultry.
66
Q

alcohol and pregnancy

A
  • If you are pregnant or think you could become pregnant, the safest approach is not to drink alcohol at all, to keep risks to your baby to a minimum.
  • Drinking in pregnancy can lead to long-term harm to the baby, with the more you drink the greater the risk.
  • The risks of low birth weight, preterm birth, and being small for gestational age may all be increased in mothers drinking above 1-2 units/day during pregnancy.
67
Q

screening for gestational diabetes?

A

not for everyone

68
Q

screening for pre eclampsia

A
69
Q

management of pre-eclampsia if diagnosed

A
70
Q

purpose of antental US

A
  • dating
  • nuchal translucency
  • response to raised maternal AFP
  • routine anomaly scan
  • response to clinical coners/ findings- small for day, polyhdramnios, oligohydramnios, reduced fetal movement
71
Q

first trimester US (10-14 weeks)

A
  • viability
  • accurate dating
  • twin dermination and chorionicity
  • detection of fetal abnormalities: anecephalpy, large anterior abdominal wall defers, cystic hydroma
  • measurement of nuchal translucency
72
Q

detailed US scan ( 18 and 21 weeks)

A
  • Viability
  • Measurements (growth)
  • Liquor volume
  • Fetal anatomy
  • Placental location
  • Assessment of normal variants for aneuploidy and fetal growth
73
Q

fetocide

A

Termination of Pregnancy for Fetal Abnormality

  • Detection of serious fetal abnormality and aneuploidy often delayed until the anomaly scan 20-22 weeks’ gestation
  • Distressing for parents to faced with the delivery of their baby with signs of life
  • Induction of labour with prostaglandins preceded by fetocide after 22 weeks of gestation in many countries.
74
Q

indication for preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD)

A
  • Known balanced parental translocation
  • Increased maternal age
  • Familial history of X-linked recessive disorders