7. Immunology & Blood Flashcards

1
Q

Prostacyclin - role in what

what is syhtn by paltetets and what dose it induce

What other factors mediate platelet aggregation
x4

A

Prostacyclin is thought to have a role in inhibiting platelet aggregation.

TBX A2 is synthesised by platelets and its effects are to induce vasoconstriction and procoagulant.

Other factors mediating platelet aggregation include contact with the subendothelium, thrombin, fibrin, exposed collagen, etc.

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2
Q

CD4 lymphocytes are what

What are the subtypes
what doo they release

what hla do they react with

what about cd8

Are they IEL

Delayed hypersensitivty reactions

A

CD4 lymphocytes are T helper cells and there are two subtypes:

Th1 which release interleukin-2 (IL2) and interferon gamma
Th2 which release interleukin-4 and interleukin-10 (IL4 and IL10).
CD4 lymphocytes react with HLA class II antigens, whereas cytotoxic T cells (CD8) react with HLA class I antigens.

Intraepithelial lymphocytes (IELs) are distinct from peripheral blood lymphocytes. Technically they are not T cells because only a few possess CD4 and some do not even have CD3.

The Th1 subgroup of CD4 lymphocytes is involved in delayed hypersensitivity reactions and they mature in the thymus, which explains the ‘T’ in T helper cells.

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3
Q

Can igG cross placenta

What pathway are 5 lipoxygeanse

PG from what path

Degran mast cell from what Ig

where are mast cell found

what type of condition is herid angio oedmea
deficiency of what

A

All four sub-classes of IgG are able to cross the normal placenta.

Leukotrienes are products of the 5-lipoxygenase pathway.

Prostaglandins are the products of the cyclo-oxygenase pathway, which is the other arm of arachidonic acid metabolism.

Degranulation of mast cells is caused by crosslinking of IgE (not IgM).

Mast cells are the tissue equivalent of basophils and are found in the lungs, skin and gastrointestinal tract. They are the principal mediators of immediate hypersensitivity reactions.

Hereditary angio-oedema is an autosomal dominant condition associated with a quantitative or qualitative deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor.

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4
Q

DIC

what is it

how does it happen

what cuases

how is it diagnosed

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is the most common cause of a coagulopathy during pregnancy and is caused by activation of the coagulation cascade by circulating thromboplastic material, with secondary activation of the fibrinolytic system.

Its occurrence in a pregnant patient is usually as a result of an underlying obstetric disorder such as:

Abruptio placentae
Eclampsia
Intrauterine foetal death (IUFD)
Amniotic fluid embolism
Placental retention, or
Sepsis.
Diagnosis of DIC syndrome rests on the demonstration of reduced levels of fibrinogen and platelets, prolongation of the thrombin, prothrombin and partial thromboplastin times, and the presence of fibrin/fibrinogen degradation products (FDP) in the serum. FDP are non-specific and may not be raised in severe DIC.

DIC is a late sign of pre-eclampsia. Mild DIC may occur without a drop in platelet numbers.

Thrombocytopaenia may also be a feature of HELLP syndrome, sepsis or leukaemia that occurs during pregnancy.

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5
Q

T cells -

how do they recognise foreign

how long do they last
what do they secrete when activated

A

T cells have characteristic surface glycoproteins and their own form of receptors.

Helper T cells recognise foreign antigens in association with HLA class II antigens on presenting cells.

Survival of T cells varies from several weeks to the lifetime of an individual, such as the T cells in thymus.

They secrete IL-2 when activated.

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6
Q

B lymphoctyes -

express what on surface

do they recognise native

A

B-lymphocytes express immunoglobulins on their surface and secrete immunoglobulins (not T cells).

B cells recognise native antigens, and T cells recognise processed antigens. Both components must be brought together and matched in order to trigger an immune response. B cells and T cells may, however, recognise different parts of the same antigen.

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7
Q

Fc segment ig

formed from what

define what

Isotype determine what:

A

Fc (fragment crystalline) is formed from constant domains of heavy chains, which define isotope of antibody (for example, IgG, IgA).

The isotypes determine the properties of antibodies, for example,

Activation of complement
Ability to cross the placenta
Half life of the immunoglobulin molecule and
Binding of mast cells and basophils.

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8
Q

FAB (

A

FAB (fragment antigen binding) are highly variable regions, which determine the affinity/specificity of antibody for antigen

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9
Q

Anti A and B

what type of Ig

Cold or hot

Rhesus is what type of antibody
what type Ig

Cold or hot

What type of Ig are capable of transplacental passage

A

Anti-A and anti-B are naturally occurring antibodies and are usually IgM. They react optimally at cold temperatures (4°C) and, although reactive at body temperature, they are called cold antibodies.

Immune antibodies like the rhesus antibody, anti-D are commonly IgG. They react optimally at 37°C and are called warm antibodies.

Only IgG antibodies are capable of transplacental passage to the fetus.

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10
Q

5 types of allergy

A

Type I - Allergy (immediate) ig

Atopy
Anaphylaxis
Asthma - IgE mediated.

Type II - Cytotoxic, antibody dependent

Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
Thrombocytopenia - IgM or IgG mediated.
complement

Type III - Immune complex

trig inflam site deposition
Serum sickness
SLE - IgG.
vasculitis / ai

Type IV - Delayed type hypersensitivity

Contact dermatitis
T cells.

Type V - Autoimmune

Graves’
Myasthesia - IgM or IgG.

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11
Q

What is the humoral response
Where are b produced & mature & what about T

WHere are they found
- how do they differentiatee

Activated B produce what
- respond to what

WHat is cell switiching

what are they comprised of

do they enter cells

A

B and T lymphocytes are part of the adaptive humoral or specific/adaptive immune response.

B lymphocytes (B cells) are produced and mature in the bone marrow while T lymphocytes migrate and mature in the thymus.

After maturation both are released and found in the circulation and peripheral lymphoid organs (for example, spleen, lymph nodes) where they differentiate further after contact with an antigen.

Activated B cells produce plasma cells which are responsible for producing large numbers of specific antibodies according to the lineage of that B cell. However “class switching” is a biological mechanism that changes a B cell’s abiltiy to produce immunoglobulin (antibodies) from one type to another, such as from the isotype IgM to the isotype IgG.

Antibodies (IgA, IgG, IgM, etc) comprise two heavy and two light chains.

Antibodies bind to circulating antigens but cannot enter cells.

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12
Q

Pyrexia repsonse stimulated by

what rises

A

yrexial responses may be stimulated by cytokines, for example, tumour necrosis factor (TNF), interleukins and prostaglandins.

C reactive protein (CRP) is increased in a febrile response but does not elicit the response.

Corticosteroids and IgE do not normally elicit febrile responses.

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13
Q

Rhesus antigens

What is the commenst in cacausion

Are rehsus natural

A

The rhesus system is coded by allelic genes at three closely linked loci.

In Caucasians the commonest rhesus genotype is CDe/cde and is found in approximately 32% of people (CDe/CDe is found in 17% of patients).

Rhesus antibodies rarely occur naturally and are usually the result of previous blood transfusion or pregnancy. Most commonly, hemolytic disease is triggered by the D antigen, although other Rh antigens, such as c, C, E, and e, responsible for most of the clinical problems associated with this system.

In the ABO system, the structure of the three antigens differs due to the addition of the following carbohydrate groups to the L-fucose of the H substance:

Blood group A antigens have an N-acetyl galactosamine
Blood group B antigens have a D-galactose
Blood group O antigens are unaltered.
Naturally occurring antibodies are found in the plasma of patients whose erythrocytes lack the corresponding antigens. Therefore,

Blood group O contains both anti-A and anti-B antibodies
Blood group A contains anti-B antibodies
Blood group B contains anti-A antibodies and
Blood group AB contains no antibodies.
Red cells may contain rhesus antigens for example:

A RhD positive (A+)
A RhD negative (A-)
B RhD positive (B+)
B RhD negative (B-)
O RhD positive (O+)
O RhD negative (O-)
AB RhD positive (AB+)
AB RhD negative (AB-)
About 85% of the UK population is RhD positive (36% of the population has O+, the most common type).
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14
Q

Whole blood storage

A

Whole blood is stored at 2-4 degrees centigrade for up to 35-days with preservative solutions [Acid citrate dextrose (ACD) and citrate phosphate dextrose(CPD)]

Storage is associated with a number of biochemical and haematological changes:

Decrease in pH
Build up of lactic acid
Decrease in glucose consumption
Decrease in ATP level
Low 2,3-DPG levels
Reduced clotting factors:

The ABO blood group system is determined by the ABO gene, which is found on chromosome 9. The four ABO blood groups, A, B, AB and O, arise from inheriting one or more of the alternative forms of this gene (or alleles) namely A, B or O.
The A and B alleles are codominant so both A and B antigens will be expressed on the red cells whenever either allele is present. O alleles do not produce either A or B antigens, thus, are sometimes called ‘silent’ alleles.
Group O rhesus negative is the universal donor (O rhesus postive is the commonest blood type)
Group AB is the universal recipient

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15
Q

Acute phase involves what

Body temp

What happens proteins

What happens Cu Zn & Fe levels

A

The acute phase response involves a complex series of reactions with changes in metabolic, immunological and haematological functions.

There is an alteration in the set point temperature of the hypothalamus which results in a febrile response.

Plasma albumin levels decrease, C reactive protein increases and there is a neutrophil leucocytosis.

Copper is not sequestered by the liver and its levels actually increase, whereas iron and zinc concentrations decrease.

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16
Q

Prostaglandins -

differ hw from hormones

6 effects

A

Prostaglandins act as chemical messengers at the site where they are synthesised. They thus differ from hormones which can be transported in the blood and can act in distant sites in the body.

  1. Activation of the inflammatory response at the site of tissue injury, leading to pain, swelling, redness and increase in temperature.
  2. Haemostatic properties such as when there is blood
    vessel damage (thromboxane stimulates vasoconstriction and activation of platelets).
  3. Stimulate uterine contractions and thus are effective in inducing labour.
  4. Inhibit acid synthesis (including gastric acid) and increase secretion of protective mucus within the GI tract.
  5. Increase blood flow in kidneys.
  6. Constriction of bronchi, thus exacerbating bronchial asthma.
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17
Q

Abc on Ig
bound by what

Fc made up of what
- linked by what

What is major ab at mucosal surfaces

Which tpe can synthesise

What can bind worm antigen

A

The antigen binding sites on immunoglobulins are composed of the hypervariable regions of both heavy and light chains which together make the complementarity determining region (CDR) of the antibody.

The Fc is made up of two H chains, linked by disulphide bonds.

IgA (actually IgA2), constitutes the major antibody in secretions, and bathes mucosal surfaces. IgA1 is mainly confined to the serum.

Only B lymphocytes are capable of synthesising antibodies, as are plasma cells.

Worm antigens are constantly being released, and attach to specific IgE antibody that in turn has attached to mast cells by their receptor for IgE. Interactions with IgE results in mediator release by the mast cell, one effect of which is contraction of smooth muscle, which is intended to expel the parasite from the gut.

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18
Q

Mast cells - are they lipophilic?
where located

what do they contain in storage granules

release can be triggered by

A

Mast cells are basophilic cells (not lipophilic) in the connective and subcutaneous tissues, which are involved in inflammatory and immune responses.

They contain storage granules that contain lytic enzymes, for example, tryptase, and inflammatory mediators, for example, histamine, heparin, 5-HT, leukotrienes, platelet aggregating factor, leucocyte chemotactic factor and hyaluronidase.

Release of these mediators occurs during mast cell degranulation, which can be triggered by:

tissue injury
drugs
complement activation, and
foreign antigenic material.
An anaphylactic reaction occurs when a previously sensitised individual is re-exposed to the antigen. It is an IgE mediated immune response (not IgA).

Mastocytosis occurs when excess mast cells are present in the circulation or as tissue infiltrates.

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19
Q

Endotoxins

are what

how are they destreoye

what type of antibody response

elicit what kind of type of host response

activate what pathyway

is botox an endotoxin

A

Endotoxins:

Are lipopolysaccharides that form part of the outer cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria
Endotoxins are heat stable (boiling for 30 minutes does not destroy the endotoxin), but certain sterilants that are oxidisers (superoxide, peroxide and hypochlorite) help neutralize them
Are antigenic but the response is often directed against the lipopolysaccharide (LPS) component of the cell wall so this is not as effective as antibodies to exotoxins. They are only partially neutralised by specific antibodies. Future repeat infection may still take place.
Cause septicaemia and fever
Activate the alternative complement pathway, produce cytokines and activate the coagulation pathway
Clostridium botulinum produces a neurotoxic exotoxin

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20
Q

Platelets are what

do they have a nucles

can they activate substance

Whats their lifespan

form what species in body

How much % plt stored in sp

gp that bind whatleen

A

Platelets are membrane-encapsulated fragments of megakaryoctes cytoplasm

no nucles

Although platelets have no nucleus, they are metabolically active and are able to express membrane receptors and release stored substances when triggered. They contain dense granules containing adenosine diphosphate (ADP), adensine triphosphate (ATP), serotonin, calcium and magnesium ions.

However, because they have no nucleus they are unable to produce new proteins and therefore aspirin and other drugs affect function for the remainder of the platelet lifespan. Platelet lifespan is approximately 9-10 days in normal individuals.

Platelets are capable of producing nitric oxide, prostaglandins and thromboxane, but not the vasodilator prostacyclin.

In a normal person, 20% of the platelets are found in the spleen

express abo and hla class 1

gp1a - collagen

gpiib iia - vwf + fibronectio

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21
Q

Arachidonic acid is what
synth from what

How is it metabolised
to what by what

Endoperoxides form what

Lipoxtgenase - not inhib by what
what is the clin signif

what does prostacycline do to bv calibre & plt aggreg

Txa2 is derived from what

A

Arachidonic acid is an essential fatty acid which is synthesised from phospholipids under control of the enzyme phospholipase.

It is subsequently metabolised by lipoxygenase and cyclo-oxygenase to leukotrienes and endoperoxidases respectively.

Endoperoxides form prostaglandins, prostacycline and thromboxane via separate pathways.

Lipoxygenase is not inhibited by non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, for example, aspirin, and therefore leukotrienes may accumulate in aspirin therapy.

Prostacycline vasodilates and decreases platelet aggregation.

Thromboxane A2 is derived directly from endoperoxides (not from prostacyclin).

22
Q

What are the other other blood group systems

what can causes haemolytic reactions

What are less signi

A

In addition to the ABO and rhesus systems, another eight blood group systems have been identified.

The Kell, Duffy and Kidd systems and can cause both haemolytic transfusion reactions and the haemolytic disease of the newborn.

The P and MN systems can also cause both of these reactions, but they are rare events.

The Lutheran, Lewis and li systems are clinically of less importance, since they do not cause the haemolytic disease of the newborn, and are unlikely to (or rarely) cause haemolytic transfusion reactions.

23
Q

Sickle cell - how may present

what is SCA
caused by what where

homozyg have what
what level po2 causes problem

Heterozygotes have what

SC crisis

A

Patients with sickle cell disease may present with pain due to common medical and surgical diseases, however the symptoms may also be due to a sickle cell crisis.

Oxygen, intravenous analgesia and fluids should be provided.

Sickle cell anaemia is a haemoglobinopathy caused by substitution of valine for glutamic acid at position 6 (from the N-terminal) of the beta chain.

Homozygotes contain only abnormal haemoglobin (HbSS) which depolymerises at a PO2 of 5-6 kPa, which is found in normal venous blood. Thus, sickle cell disease (HbSS) patients are continuously sickling.

Heterozygotes contain both normal and abnormal haemoglobins (HbAS) and are said to have sickle cell trait. These patients only sickle at extremely low PO2 values of 2.5-4 kPa.

Sickle cell crises are caused by acute vascular occlusion, which is associated with severe pain, which can mimic an acute abdomen.

In addition to hypoxaemia sickling can be precipitated by hypothermia, dehydration, infection, exertion and stress. Thus the peri-operative management of sickle cell disease patients involves keeping them well oxygenated, warm, well hydrated, providing adequate analgesia by PCA (patient controlled analgesia) and avoiding acidosis (venous stasis).

Exchange blood transfusions may be required by HbSS patients before major elective surgery, the aim being to lower the HbS concentration to 30-40%, which would be impossible to organise before emergency surgery.

Haemoglobin electrophoresis is the only investigation which can determine the nature of the haemoglobinopathy, but is rarely performed out of hours.

A sickledex test will detect HbS, but provides no information on other haemoglobins.

A full blood count will usually show a low haemoglobin in sickle cell disease, but it can be normal in sickle cell trait and a blood film will show sickle cells during a crisis.

24
Q

What cells required for secondary antibody response

What do B cells need help from to diffrentiate

Contact dermatitis ?t lymphocytes involdes

Do T cells have surface bound iG

A

Both B cells and T cells are required for the secondary antibody response.

B cells require signals from T helper cells to differentiate into plasma cells.

In allergic contact dermatitis there may be a type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction.

CD4+ T cells are also known as ‘T helper’ cells.

B cells have surface bound immunoglobulin (not lymphocytes).

25
Q

Mast cells

- What is reliable marker for mast cell degran

A

Mast cells are found within many tissues including lung, intestine and skin. Tryptase is a protease enzyme which acts via widespread protease activated receptors (PARs). Mast cell tryptase is a reliable marker of mast cell degranulation.

Take blood samples (5-10 ml clotted blood) for mast cell tryptase as follows:

Initial sample as soon as feasible after resuscitation has started - do not delay resuscitation to take the sample
Second sample at one to two hours after the start of symptoms
Third sample either at 24 hours or in convalescence.
Histamine can be measured by fluorometric assays, radioenzymatic assays, and immunoassays. These methods have been applied to plasma and urine to detect histamine that had been released in vivo and to release histamine in vitro from basophils and mast cells.

Another mast cell constituent is tryptase, which is a more selective marker of mast cells, because negligible amounts are found in basophils.

β-Tryptase is stored in secretory granules and is actively released when mast cells degranulate.

α-Protryptase remains in the proenzyme form and is constitutively released from mast cells, and consequently its level in serum reflects total numbers of mast cells.

Because histamine has a half life of only one minute it is difficult to measure reliably.

N-methylhistamine (NMH), the major metabolite of histamine has a longer half life and can be measured in a 24 hour urine sample following a reaction.

26
Q

Allergic reactions trigered by what

Is there an increase in 5 lipoxygenase pathway

What type of immunity from antibody

T cell involved with what type of immunity

Where is the gene linked to

A

Allergic reactions may be triggered by acute complement activation (anaphylatoxins) and increased levels of histamine, bradykinins and leukotrines are common.

The 5-lipoxygenase pathway produces leukotrienes.

B cells are involved with humoral immunity due to antibody production form plasma cells.

T cells are involved with cellular immunity but the T helper cells are involved in helping immature B cells mature.

The gene linked with allergy is located on chromosome 6 (not 12).

27
Q

Red cell reaction

Intravascular
- what happens

ANtidobdy cause it
or what else

Extravascular

what can this red cell destruction be due to

A

Antibodies bound to red cells in the body can cause red cell destruction by two major mechanisms: intravascular and extravascular.

Intravascular:

Red cells are destroyed in the bloodstream with consequent release of haemoglobin into the circulation. The antibodies that can cause this type of reaction, that is, IgM or IgG anti-A or anti-B, cause rapid activation of the complement cascade usually by the classical pathway.

Extravascular:

Intact red cells are removed from the circulation by cells of the mononuclear phagocyte system situated in the liver and spleen. Red cells coated with IgG or sensitised with complement to the C3 stage, but which do not proceed through the cascade to the C5b-C9 lytic complex, may interact with mononuclear phagocytes, notably the macrophage.
Extravascular red cell destruction results in breakdown products of haemoglobin, such as bilirubin and urobilinogen, in the plasma and urine. This type of red cell destruction can be caused by IgG, anti-D and other rhesus antibodies.

28
Q

How do non immune transfusion reactions occurs

what is there clinical signifcant

Non haem febrile reactions casued by what
what is the meanifestation

Hereditar c1 inhib defic what happens

A

Non-immune haemolytic transfusion reactions occur when red blood cells (RBCs) are damaged before transfusion resulting in haemoglobinaemia and haemoglobinuria without significant clinical symptoms.

Non-haemolytic febrile transfusion reactions are usually caused by cytokines from leukocytes in transfused red cell or platelet components, causing fever, chills, or rigors. In the setting of transfusion administration, a fever is defined as a temperature elevation of 1°C.

Patients with hereditary C1-inhibitor deficiency may have recurrent attacks of angioedema when transfused with standard plasma containing blood components.

29
Q

What is the predom immunoglobulin in plamsa

what crosses placenta

What is IgE roll

what ype of hyerpsenstivity rxn is it involved in

Does IgE rise acutely in asthma attack

A

IgG is the predominant form of immunoglobulin in plasma at a concentration around 10,000 times greater than IgE.

IgG crosses the placenta to confer immunity to the fetus ( not IgE).

IgE

Is involved in arming mast cells and basophils
Causes mast cells to release vasoactive amines, such as histamine, producing an inflammatory response which can result in a type I hypersensitivity reaction (not 2)
Is responsible for allergen-mediated diseases such as anaphylaxis, asthma and atopy.

Total serum IgE is frequently increased in those with atopy, but serum IgE does not rise acutely during an asthmatic attack.

30
Q

How is acquired immunity obtained

What is b vell receptor
what happens when antigen binds to this

can abod produced response to infection recognise only 1 epitope

A

Aquired immunity is largely obtained either from the development of antibodies in response to exposure to an antigen

The B cell receptor is an immunoglobulin of the same specificity as the one the cell is programmed to make. Antigen binding to this leads to B cell activation and antibody production.

The elimination of intracellular micro-organisms is cell mediated and depends on affected cells displaying particular antigens at their cell surface allowing the killing of the cell by antigen-specific cytotoxic T cells.

Antibodies produced in response to infection recognise more than one epitope on the surface of the invading micro-organisms.

31
Q

What size is a RBC

do they have cell componenets

how long do they survive

what are they initially released as

what antigens do they not contain

A

Each red blood cell is about 7.5 μm in diameter and 2 μm thick. They are anucleate cells that do not contain mitochondria.

In humans, they survive in the circulation for an average of 120 days. They are initially released from the bone marrow as reticulocytes, which contain residual ribosomal RNA and are still able to synthesise Hb.

The membranes of erythrocytes contain a variety of blood group antigens, but not HLA class II antigens.

32
Q

What ig constitutes the natural haemagglutinins - anti a and b

What is the pred Ig in normal secretions

What Ig crosses the placenta
how

What is igG mol wt
How many Anti binding site

A

Immunoglobulin M (IgM) constitutes the natural haemagglutinins (anti-A and anti-B).

IgA is the predominant immunoglobulin in normal bronchial secretions.

Only IgG freely crosses the placenta (but requires a transport mechanism Eur J Immunol. 1996 Jul;26(7):1527-31).

IgG has a molecular weight of 150,000 daltons (not 350,000) and bears only two antigen-binding sites.

33
Q

Coag abnormailities in DIC

Aptt
PT
FDP
DImer

Plt
fiv
pro c
antithrombin

Causes DIC

A

Several coagulation abnormalities are seen in in DIC associated with sepsis including:

aPTT - elevated
PT - elevated
Fibrin degradation products - elevated
D-dimers - elevated
Platelets - reduced
Fibrinogen - reduced
Protein C - reduced
Antithrombin - reduced.
Other causes of DIC include:
malignancy
placental abruption
amniotic fluid embolism
trauma
transfusion reactions, and
envenomation.
34
Q

What and where is hb broken down to
is it steroidal

Which is lipid soluble / water solbue

what can be filter by glom

what is stored in GB

what does gut bacteria do to it

A

Haemoglobin is broken down in the reticuloendothelial system, where the haem moiety (ferroprotoporphyrin) is cleaved to form biliverdin and then bilirubin, which is non-steroidal.

The lipid soluble unconjugated bilirubin is tightly bound to albumin and is transported to the liver where it is converted to water soluble conjugated bilirubin, which is weakly bound to albumin.

Conjugated and not unconjugated bilirubin may be filtered by the glomeruli. Conjugated bilirubin is stored in the gall bladder with bile salts and acids, and the gut bacteria convert bilirubin into urobilinogen and thence urobilin (not urobilin to urobilinogen).

35
Q

Risen in flamation

A

Caeruloplasmin is a copper carrying protein that is also an acute phase reactant.

Complement proteins such as C3a and C5a have multiple roles in inflammation (chemotaxis, bacterial pore lysis) and serum levels rise accordingly.

Ferritin is an acute-phase reactant and serum levels rise in inflammation.

Fibrinogen is a clotting factor and synthesis is increased by the liver in inflammation along with other acute phase proteins.

Thrombocythaemia occurs with chronic inflammation, for example, in rheumatoid arthritis.

36
Q

TRALI

A

within 6 hours of tranfusion

2 mech -
1 immune - 60%
Leukocyte aod in donor blood - react hl - human neutrophil alloantigens

Non immune - lipid reactive prod rel donor membrane
lower mortality

fianl common path - activation neutrohpil granuloctye - lung trapped

free radicals + proteolytics enzymes - release - capillary leak + pulmnary oedems

FFP and plt = more plasma = more likely = trali

37
Q

Acute haemolytic transfuion

how much

whos universal acceptor

what other ones can cause

A

5-10ml blood

other can cause outside abo
rhd 
e
c
kell

less evere abo

kidd
duffy
activate complent

ab blood - neither a or b universal acceptor

38
Q

Effect of warming blood for transfusion

A

Reduces amt dissolved Co2 and O2
usually increase temp solve increase solub solid and liq
gases = reduce solubility - avg kinetic energy gas molecules increase - escape gas phase

Shifty ODC to right

rapid tfusion cold blood can cause arrest + arryhtmia

increase bact replication

39
Q

Eosinophils

A

phagocytic

role reducing spread inflammation - destruction immne complex
8-12d life span

40
Q

neutrophil

A

attracted complement or leuko cohesion
attract bact

fc c3b receptors - recog phaocytsosi opsnised mater

41
Q

Anaphylactoid rxn

A

non immune
nt ige med
no prior exposure

dir his rel mast cel / completen

42
Q

anaphylactic

A

prior sens - protential catastrop

IgE

43
Q

Mast cell tryptase -

peak
store

A

Peak 1 hr -

refridg not frozen

44
Q

CD4 are what and bind to what

A

helper

bind mhc2

45
Q

cd8 are what and bind to what

A

killer

mhc1

46
Q

basophils

A

cytoplasmic granules
actib sub - his, 5ht, hyaluronic acid heparin
most found cric blood

tissue bound = mast cell

IgE attachment - important allergic cond

47
Q

monocytes

A

mature macophage tissue

continue fxn years

phagocytic - igGGGGGGGGGGGGG
completement, lymphkine
prod
tnf il10 pg + interferon

48
Q

Primary haemostasis

A

Platelets activated + fib forms crosslink gyp IIb/IIIa

init step prim haemo = plt bind collagen exposed endo inj

secondary

fibrin formation

49
Q

Plasma cells are

A

non circulating b lymph iin BM, lnode and gut

produce antbiody

immature B - cant secret

Majority B - express MHC II
since all nucleated express MHC I - express these also

Suppressor or cytocox t sexpress cd8 - interact mhc1

cytotox t - express il2 intera + tnf

50
Q

Complement

are all abod capable

cell bound c3b facil what

can radiaolog media activate alt path

final common path =

how is classic avtivated

A

POroteins
involved inflamm, AI disorder host defence

Classic - activation c1 antigen antibody complex
only IgM + IgG
activate classic (ie not all abx)

t and b cell activation

yes radiolog media can act

cell membrane lysis

classic - init antigen antibody complex

51
Q

Define massive transfusion

A

Blood volume repaced <24 h

HpyerK common

Use filter, vc washing insulin
HypoCa- chelating citrate (higher in FFP and Plt)

Placental abod IgG

AB abod - IgM

52
Q

Commonest risk tfusion

A

1 Allergic rxn
8.2%

  1. FLuid olad
  2. 3%

3 Acute haemoltiyc tufsion
1.1%

Bacterial infx 3 cases
anaphylacis 1