7 February 2025 Flashcards

1
Q

Which muscles are typically overactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?

A

Hip flexors and lumbar extensors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What three joint actions comprise triple extension?

A

Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the RDA for protein?

A

0.8 g/kg of body weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Davis’s law describes what type of changes within the cumulative injury cycle?

A

Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The posterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?

A

Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Most bodyweight training exercises are considered which type of movements?

A

Closed-chain movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following defines the center of gravity of the body?

A

The approximate midpoint of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity?

A

Glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When a client makes a plan, such as, “When I am done with work, I will run for 30 minutes,” what are they doing?

A

The correct answer is: Forming an implementation intention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core?

A

Side plank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What type of muscle action would expend the highest amount of energy at a fixed resistance level over a comparable duration?

A

Concentric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In which BMI category would you classify Vincent if he has a BMI of 27?

A

Overweight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the two components of a sarcomere?

A

Actin and myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which endocrine gland serves as a communication channel between the brain and pituitary gland?

A

Hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

For what is vitamin D most important?

A

Bone health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which statement about cancer is most accurate?

A

Cells in the body grow abnormally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How can basal metabolic rate (BMR) best be defined?

A

The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following conditions would produce nutritional ketosis in the body?

A

A very low-carbohydrate diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is defined as the ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time?

A

Muscular endurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What phase of the OPT model does the adaptation “muscular strength and hypertrophy” fall into?

A

Muscular Development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following statements is the most accurate when discussing strength-training machines?

A

Not all strength-training machines are designed to fit all body types and thus can limit the effectiveness of the intended exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol?

A

Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

From the list of items provided, which of the following are not considered benefits of cardiorespiratory training?

A

Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following is a behavior change technique where clients list potential barriers and make plans to overcome them?

A

Coping responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
You are working with an advanced client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best number of SAQ drills per workout?
6 to 10 drills
26
Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed?
Free hydrogen ions
27
How does the stretch-shortening cycle improve concentric force production?
it builds up elastic energy during the eccentric phase, preloading the muscle.
28
Which of the following modalities is most likely to allow for strength and/or power development in the transverse plane?
Medicine Balls
29
When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used?
Ankle plantar flexion
30
Identify the correct number of continuing education units (CEUs) that an NASM Certified Personal Trainer needs to complete in a 2-year cycle to renew the certification.
2
31
What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)?
A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual’s physical readiness to engage in structured exercise
32
Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system?
Visual System
33
Which is a primary adaptation of the Power Training phase?
RATE OF FORCE PRODUCTION
34
What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) external rotation exercise primarily target?
Infraspinatus and teres minor
35
Excessive anterior pelvic tilt would lead to this posture of the lumbar spine.
Increased Lordosis
36
This is a conversational technique that helps the listener express the supposed meaning of what was just heard.
Reflections
37
What group of hormones are released by the brain during exercise help reduce pain?
Endorphins
38
What is the definition of kinesiophobia?
Fear of movement
39
The risk of which lower-extremity injury was decreased in female basketball athletes who participated in a 5-week balance training program that improved landing movement mechanics?
Anterior cruciate ligament injury
40
What is the proper lower-body progression for balance training when starting with a new client?
Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable
41
When discussing suspended bodyweight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement?
t increases flexibility and joint mobility.
42
Which of the following is a major nutritional contributor to muscle protein synthesis?
The essential amino acids
43
What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients?
The correct answer is: 1 or 2 sessions per week
44
If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine?
Sternocleidomastoid
45
How many calories are in 1 gram of protein?
4
46
What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest?
3.5 mL/kg/min
47
What activity is especially beneficial for combating the loss of muscle mass, power, and strength for aging adults?
Resistance training
48
Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following?
Landing mechanics
49
What are the building blocks of body proteins?
Amino acids
50
Weight-bearing exercise helps strengthen bones through what process?
Remodeling
51
What condition is characterized by the narrowing of coronary arteries?
Ischemic heart disease
52
The most well-known and well-researched effect of omega-3 fats relates to which of the following?
Heart health
53
What best describes the all-or-nothing principle?
A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.
54
What artery is used to measure blood pressure?
Brachial artery
55
Current sports nutrition guidelines from the International Society of Sports Nutrition recommend what range of protein for most exercising individuals?
1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight
56
What breathing change occurs at the second ventilatory threshold (VT2)?
Expiration becomes more forceful.
57
What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising consistently for 6 months or longer?
Maintenance
58
For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2?
Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week
59
Regarding free-weight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement?
Free weights may improve dynamic joint stabilization and proprioception.
60
What is the purpose of the intervertebral discs?
They act as shock absorbers.
61
Which of the following is proper technique during a squat movement?
Tracking the knees over the second and third toes
62
Why might range of motion (ROM) be limited for a client?
Previous injury
63
What is the most valid measurement of aerobic fitness?
V̇O2max
64
What is defined as the ability to generate force as quickly as possible?
Rate of force production
65
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?
Hip flexor complex
66
Which type of muscle contraction/action attenuates force through muscle fiber lengthening?
Eccentric action
67
What type of diabetes occurs when cells are resistant to insulin, meaning that the insulin present cannot transfer adequate amounts of blood sugar into the cell?
Type 2
68
Compared to water-soluble vitamins, which of the following is true about fat-soluble vitamins?
Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body.
69
What is a characteristic of a type II muscle fiber?
Short-term contractions
70
Which muscle would you be targeting for SMR if you placed the roller along the front and slightly lateral (outside) part of the upper thigh (just below the pelvis)?
Tensor fascia latae
71
What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production?
Power
72
Which postural distortion is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips?
Pes planus distortion syndrome
73
What is a drop set?
An approach that involves performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load and continuing with the set
74
What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization?
Multiplanar jump with stabilization
75
Movements that take place within a joint and are not visible to the human eye may be classified in what way?
Arthrokinematic
76
Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where?
Thoracic spine
77
Which characteristic is exhibited by type I muscle fibers?
Slow to fatigue
78
Intentions are a good predictor of behavior, but what has been shown to help translate intentions into behavior?
Planning
79
Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed?
40-yard dash