7 - Cell-Mediated Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

Cell mediated immunity protects against what type of pathogens? What mediates it? What other cells are required?

A

Intracellular.

Mediated by T lymphocytes.

Requires phagocytes, infected host cells, B lymphocytes to interact with T cell.

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2
Q

How does the immune system recognize and discriminate self from non-self?

A

The T cell receptors (TCR)

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3
Q

What is an epitope?

A

The part of a peptide antigen that’s recognized by the TCR (T cell receptor)

Theses are the peptides displayed by MHC molecules.

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4
Q

What are the key concepts regarding TCRs?

A

Variable region
Constant region: genetically fixed
Affinity: fixed

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5
Q

What are the two types of TCRs?

A

alphabeta T cells: most abundant and MHC restricted

gammadelta T cells: common in gut mucosa and skin epidermis, not MHC restricted

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6
Q

How can T cells of the adaptive immune system change or adapt to differences in self or non-self antigens?

A

They modify the TCR through somatic recombination.

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7
Q

What is the organization of TCR beta chains?

A

Has diversity region (D), joining region (J), and variable region (V).

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8
Q

What is the organization of TCR alpha chains?

A

Has variable region (V) and joining region (J).

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9
Q

What is the important protein involved in somatic recombination in the germline DNA of the TCR beta chain? What happens if theres a mutation in this protein?

A

RAG 1/2 which recombines and splices exons.

Mutation results in the inability to to recombine C, D, and J regions and you don’t get T cells (ie no response to bacteria or viruses).

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10
Q

What is TCR allelic exclusion? What else must occur for a TCR chain to be expressed?

A

Expression of TCRbeta chain gene of EITHER the maternal or paternal chromosome NOT both.

All recombination events must be in the proper reading frame. Whatever isn’t in the frame will not rearrange and won’t be in the gene product.

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11
Q

What is TCR hypervariability? What does this region encode? Why is it important?

A

Regions of genetic variability within the TCR.

Complimentary-determining region (CDR) encodes variable regions of the TCR B and a chain.

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12
Q

Why are the hypervariable regions of the TCR important? Why is it good that they are highly variable?

A

Because they encode the amino acids that come into contact with the linear peptide in the MHC molecule (they do the recognition and binding to the peptide fragment.)

You want them to be very different so they can recognize lots of different peptides presented to them .

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13
Q

What two factors contribute to antigenic variability?

A

Combinatorial: variation amongst possible exon combinations

Junctional: removal of nucleotides and addition of nucleotides by Tdt enzyme as it recombines exons together; and during strand repair.

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14
Q

Where do T lymphocytes start their development?

A

In the bone marrow as common lymphoid progenitors.

IL7 helps them divide and become Pro-T cells.

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15
Q

What is the first checkpoint in T lymphocyte development?

A

Going from a Pro-T cell to a Pre-T cell.

To do this it must express at least one chain of the antigen receptor (beta or alpha) and if not it will undergo cell death.

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16
Q

What is the second checkpoint in T lymphocyte development?

A

Going from a Pre T cell to a Immature T cell.

To do this it must express a complete antigen receptor (both alpha and beta chain combined into an intact TCR).

Failure to do so results in cell death.

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17
Q

What is the third checkpoint in T lymphocyte development?

A

Screening the TCRs based on how they react to self/non-self:

Weak recognition of class I or II +peptide = positive selection

No recognition of MHC + peptide: death by neglect

Strong recognition of class I or II + peptide: negative selection

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18
Q

What is central tolerance? What happens without this?

A

Specific unresponsiveness against SELF antigens.

Without central tolerance you get autoimmunity.

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19
Q

What is AIRE and what is its function? What happens when T cells come into contact with MHC loaded with the products of AIRE?

A

A TF that drives the expression of SELF proteins and is an autoimmune regulator in medullary epithelial cells.

MHC loaded with self peptides undergo negative selection and be killed. This makes sense because you don’t want T cells to react with MHC complexed with self (causes autoimmunity if these cells aren’t killed).

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20
Q

Mutations in RAG 1 and 2 causes what?

What does a lack of a thymus cause?

A

SCID: severe combined immunodeficiency

DiGeorge Syndrome: no T cells.

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21
Q

What can result from mutations in AIRE?

A

APECED: autoimmun polyendocrinopathy with candidiasis and ectodermal dysplasia.

Result is lack of T cell negative selection which causes auto-selective T cells in your organs (autoimmune disease).

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22
Q

Your pt is a 3 yo F presenting with recurrent bacterial infections. A CBC shows a significant decrease in effector T cells in the pts peripheral blood. A loss of function mutation in which gene would most likely account for the pts lymphopenia?

A

IL-7 because it’s involved in T cell development and proliferation.

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23
Q

What are the two phases of cell-mediated immunity?

A

Induction phase in the lymphatic tissues.

Effector phase in the peripheral tissues.

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24
Q

How do T cells protect the body from pathogens or non-self antigens?

A

Signaling through TCR and immune synapse.

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25
Q

What are the four steps of T cell activation?

A
  1. Antigen recognition
  2. Activation and clonal expansion
  3. Differentiation
  4. Effector functions
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26
Q

What is the first signal required for the antigen recognition stage of T cell activation (step 1 of the induction phase)?

A

Signal 1: TCR-MHC peptide, CD4 or CD8 co-receptor on T cell, CD3, Zeta chains (CD3 and Zeta chain have ITAM motif for activation )

CD28

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27
Q

What is the second signal required for the antigen recognition stage of T cell activation (step 1 of the induction phase)?

A

Signal 2: co-stimulatory molecule B7-1/B7-2 (CD80/86) and ITAM to activate naive T cell.

28
Q

What molecules inhibit the co-stimulatory molecule in the first step of the induction phase of T cell activation?

A

CTLA-4: has ITIM that inhibits

PDI: checkpoint receptor with ITIM

ITIM: inhibits effector T cells and turns off T cell proliferaiton.

29
Q

What is the function of LFA and ICAM1?

A

LFA on the naive T cell binds to ICAM1 on the APC to lock the two cells together.

30
Q

How many TCR-peptide-MHC complexes must be activated on a naive T cell to get full activation? What do TCRalphabeta and TCRgammadelta each recognize?

A

2 or more.

TCR alphabeta: most common and abundant; racognize peptides

TCR gammadelta: prevalent in mucosal tissues; recognize lipids.

31
Q

What is it called when there no B7-1/B7-2 (co-stimulatory molecule) present?

A

There’s no response from the T cell or tolerance - called anergy.

T cells still stay in the periphery but they are not responsive to whatever that peptide or antigen is.

32
Q

What happens after the naive T cell receives the proper two signals it needs?

A

Proliferation.

33
Q

What do dendritic cells upregulate after the PAMP (on pathogen) and PRR bind?

A

B7 is upregulated (same thing as CD80 and CD86).

MHC, IL12, IL1, and TNF

34
Q

What do macrophages do after PAMP on the pathogen binds to the PRR?

A

B7 molecules (CD80 and CD86)

MHC, IL12, IL1, and TNF

35
Q

What is the second signal that B cells need to present during T cell induction other than antigen binding? What happens next?

A

CD40

Then the receptor and antigen are endocytosed to be phagocytosed.

36
Q

What happens after T cells are activated by the profession APCs?

A

Clonal expansion.

37
Q

What happens during T cell clonal expansion?

A

Secrete IL2: for T cell proliferation

Upregulate IL2Ralpha

Formation of a high affinity IL-2Ralphabetagamma complex that tightly binds IL2.

38
Q

What does a swollen lymph node (s) suggest?

A

Proliferation of T cells; indicates that there’s an adaptive immune response occurring.

39
Q

What happens after T cells undergo clonal expansion? What do those cells do?

A

They differentiate into effector T cells and memory T cells.

Effector CD4+ cells: activate macrophages, B cells, and others.

Effector CD8+ called: kill infected cells and activate macrophages.

40
Q

What types of cells can effector CD4+ T cells differentiate into?

A
Th1
Th2
Th17
Tfh
Treg
41
Q

Your patient is a 3yo female presenting with recurrent bacterial infections. A CBC with differential indicates that levels of CD3+ T cells are within the reference range, with a pronounced absence of activated effector T cells. What could explain this?

A

A lack of costimulatory molecules - causes T cells to be unable to be activated

42
Q

What molecule negatively regulates T cell activation?

A

CTLA4-ITIM

43
Q

What two things are required for clonal expansion?

A

IL2 - T cell proliferation cytokine produced by activated naive T cells

IL2Ralpha - high affinity IL2 receptor

44
Q

What occurs in the effector phase of T cell-mediated immunity?

A

Lymphocyte recirculation and effector functions of T cells.

45
Q

How do T cells protect the body from pathogens or non-self antigens?

A

By developing subclasses of T cells to specifically remove the pathogen or antigen.

46
Q

Describe lymphocyte recirculation that occurs during the T cell effector phase? How do effector (activated) T cells leave the peripheral tissue?

A

Naive T lymphocytes re-circulate from blood to peripheral immune tissues until an antigen is recognized.

Activated T cells leave the peripheral tissues through efferent vessels and return back to the periphery to fight off the infection.

47
Q

How do lymphocytes exit the blood vessels to enter into tissues?

A

Bacteria triggers macrophages to release cytokines (IL1, TNF, IL12, IL6) and chemokines that cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability, causing redness, heat, and swelling (INFLAMMATION)

This allows inflammatory cells to migrate into tissues and release inflamm mediators that cause pain.

48
Q

How does an effector T cell know where an infection is?

A

Lymph nodes have CCR7 and L selectin ligands GlyCAM and CD34 that signal for T cells to move into the lymph node.

Then T cells can be activated and can leave the node to go to the periphery.

In periphery they bind through E or P selectins

49
Q

An antigen is recognized twice by a T cell, when are these two times?

A
  1. In peripheral lymphoid tissue (requires costimulation)

2. At the site of infection (does NOT require costimulation)

50
Q

What is the function of CD4+ helper T cells? What about CD4+ regulatory T cells?

A

CD4+ helper T cells: class II restricted (recognize antigen displayed by MHC class II)

CD4+ regulatory T cells: supress T cell mediated immune response in response to TGFbeta and IL10.

51
Q

What dictates differentiation of T cells?

A

The cytokine environment

52
Q

T cells differentiate into Tfh (follicular) cells in response to what?

A

IL6 and IL12

53
Q

What cytokines are released in response to intracellular bacteria? What do these T cells differentiate into and what is their function?

A

IFN-gamma
IL-12

TH1 cells: role in autoimmune disease; tissue damage associated with chronic infections

54
Q

What cytokine is released in response to helminths? What do these T cells differentiate into? What are these cells functions?

A

IL-4

TH2 cells: involved in allergic reactions

55
Q

What cytokines are released in response to extracellular bacteria and fungi? What do these T cells differentiate into? What is the function of this type of cell?

A

TGF-beta
IL-6
Il-23

TH17 cells: involved in organ specific autoimmunity

56
Q

CD4+ Th1 cells differentiate in the presence of ______ and produce _____ and express ______.

A

Differentiate in the presence of IL12, produce IFN-gamma, and express CD40.

Enhances microbial killing and activates B cells.

57
Q

Why are CD4+ Th1 cells called helper cells? What do they help with?

A

They activate macrophages via IFN-gamma so that macrophages can phagocytose bacteria via ROS and NO.

58
Q

How are CD4+ cells regulated?

A

Positive feedback!

IL12 and IFN-gamma amplify and maintain the T cell mediated immune response.

59
Q

CD4+ Th2 cells differentiate in the presence of _____ and produce IL __, ___, ___ , and ___.

A

Differentiate in the presence of IL4 and produce

IL-4 and IL-13 : stimulate mucous secretion and peristalsis; activate macrophages

IL-5: activates eosinophils which degranulate and kill the parasite.

60
Q

How do Th1 and Th2 get along?

A

They don’t.

Th2 inhibits microbicidal activity of macrophages and Th1 cells activate macrophages.

61
Q

CD4+ Th17 cells differentiate in the presence of what? What do they produce? What is their function?

A

Differentiate in the presence of TGF-beta, IL-6, and IL-23

Produce IL-7 and IL-22

Function: help leukocytes and tissues make more inflammatory mediators to remove the extracellular bacteria and fungi. Also stimulate epithelia to make AMP and tighten barriers to keep out pathogens.

62
Q

What mechanisms do cytotoxic T cells use?

A

BiThey release perforin which makes holes in the cell, then granzyme enters and stimulates apoptosis.

They also have fas ligand that binds fas receptor on the infected cell to stimulate apoptosis.

63
Q

What occurs at the cellular level in toxic shock syndrome?

A

Bacterial superantigen binds and brings together APCs and naive T cells indepentently of what is in the binding cleft.

One of many T cell clones will get activated and proliferate.

Cytokine storm occurs: each T cell clone secretes its effector cytokines

64
Q

What occurs at the cellular level in toxic shock syndrome?

A

Bacterial superantigen binds and brings together APCs and naive T cells independently of what is in the binding cleft.

One of many T cell clones will get activated and proliferate.

Cytokine storm occurs: each T cell clone secretes its effector cytokines

65
Q

What results from low, moderate, and high concentrations of TNF?

A

Low: local inflammation - leukocyte activation

Moderate: systemic effects - fever, acute phase protein release from the liver, leukocyte release from the bone marrow

High: septic shock - low heart output, low resistance vessels, hypoglycemia.