7-1 Mil Ops and the Environment Flashcards

0
Q

Joint operations planning is primarily the responsibility of the

A

Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS)

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1
Q

During military planning, the strategic level is

A

The highest level of decision making when planning for contingencies

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2
Q

Crisis action planning differs from deliberate planning in that it’s based on

A

Current events and conducted in time-sensitive situations and emergencies

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3
Q

For what does deliberate planning help to prepare?

A

The most likely contingencies that may occur in the near term future

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4
Q

What type of planning is aimed at assembling and organizing national resources to support national objectives during a time of war or for operations other than war?

A

Mobilization planning

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5
Q

Commanders use the joint intelligence preparation bulletin (JIPB) process to support all of the following except

A

Natural disaster relief

Used for targeting, special ops, counter air ops

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6
Q

To what level(s) does the joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield (JIPB) process apply?

A

Operational, strategic, and tactical

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7
Q

What is the last major step in the joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield (JIPB) process?

A

Determine the adversary potential course of actions (COA)

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8
Q

What is targeting, with respect to the air tasking cycle?

A

The process of selecting targets and measuring the results or response of the target selection

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9
Q

Over what period of time does the Notational Air Tasking Cycle take place?

A

30 to 72 hour hour period

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10
Q

What must be completed before moving into Phase Three of the Notational Air Tasking Cycle?

A

Target development phase

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11
Q

Effects at the strategic level of war include

A

Destruction or disruption of the enemy’s center of gravity (COG)

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12
Q

At what level of warfare are individual battles or engagements fought?

A

Tactical

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13
Q

At what level of war are campaigns and major operations planned, conducted, and sustained?

A

Operational

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14
Q

Planning at the operational level of war determines all of the following EXCEPT

A

Exactly when we will attack

Used for what, in what order, and duration

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15
Q

The Army’s primary mission is to organize, train, and equip forces to

A

Prompt and sustained land combat operations

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16
Q

What is the Army’s largest major command?

A

US Army Forces Command

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17
Q

What is the US Army Forces Command (FORSCOM) mission?

A

To train, mobilize, deploy and sustain combat ready forces capable of responding rapidly to crises worldwide

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18
Q

What rank of Army officer normally commands divisions?

A

Major generals

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19
Q

In what environment(s) does the US seek to achieve it’s strategic objectives?

A

Peacetime, conflict, and war

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20
Q

How does the Army classify it’s activities during conflict?

A

Military operations other than war

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21
Q

What does the US attempt to do during peacetime?

A

To influence world events through those actions that routinely occurs between nations

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22
Q

According to the US Army, what is war?

A

The use of force in combat operations against an armed enemy

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23
Q

In what terms do commanders consider the battlefield?

A

The time and space necessary to defeat the enemy force or to complete the assigned mission

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24
Q

Once deployed, a tactical unit works within the

A

Area of Operations (AO)

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25
Q

Regarding US military forces, the changing of one area of interest to another is most likely influenced by

A

Political climate

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26
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining and managing the database for temporary location KQ identifiers?

A

HQ AFWA

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27
Q

Under which phase of the joint operational execution and planning system (JOPES) is an operation plan (OPLAN) created?

A

Deliberate planning

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28
Q

Which statement best describes the relationship between an operational plan (OPLAN) and an operational order (OPORD)?

A

An OPORD is a directive to execute a military operation

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29
Q

Which of the following documents pertains to weather operations and is maintained in the weather unit’s security container?

A

Annex H of the operational plan (OPLAN)

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30
Q

What agency and action determines the security classification of an operational plan (OPLAN)?

A

The originator of the document classifies the OPLAN at a level commensurate with the highest classified portion of the document

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31
Q

Radio transmissions transfer data using?

A

High Frequency (HF) and frequency modulation (FM) radios

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32
Q

Which tactical communication device employs programs that ingest, analyze, and integrate weather data in a deployed or garrison environment?

A

Integrated Meteorological System (IMETS)

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33
Q

Tactical Meteorological Observing System (TMOS) can transfer data to locations in the near vicinity using?

A

A modem and radio frequency (RF) transmitter

34
Q

The Iridium Satellite phone set includes?

A

9505a handset, battery, Subscriber Identity Module (SIM) card, secure sleeve and mobile antenna

35
Q

What is the most important role of the AF weather (AWF) personnel?

A

To provide the war fighter tailored weather information that enhances combat effectiveness

36
Q

Air Force Weather (AFW) is most effective when a commander receives

A

Accurate and relevant weather forecasts in a timely manner

37
Q

Weather personnel tailor the information for specific applications so the war fighter can

A

Quickly identify and apply relevant information without additional analysis

38
Q

The overall effectiveness of Air Force Weather (AFW) is based on the

A

Successful and effective accomplishment of specific military operations

39
Q

Air Force Weather (AFW) develops a coherent picture of the current state of the air and space environment as a result of performing

A

Analysis

40
Q

Weather information is of no operational use unless

A

It reaches the user in time to be of operational or planning value

41
Q

Integration of weather information as decision aids into the planning process allows commanders to

A

Make informed decisions about the design and operation of a plan

42
Q

The term marginal implies that the impact of weather elements will cause

A

The occurrence of some degradation to the mission

43
Q

What must you understand in order for your weather flight (WF) to fully support aerial operations?

A

The limitations and capabilities of each airframe and the scope of the operation

44
Q

The ability for ground forces to maneuver and traverse across terrain refers to

A

Trafficability

45
Q

In operational terms, what can be expected if two objects are identical in every physical way except emissivity?

A

Higher emissivity heats or cools faster than the other

46
Q

What term is used to express the difference between the thermal energy of the target and that of the background?

A

Thermal contrast

47
Q

The moment when the target and the background are at the same temperature is referred to as

A

Thermal crossover

48
Q

Why does a beam of light traveling through air bend once it hits water?

A

Speed of light is slower in water

49
Q

The greatest potential for large solar flares is

A

Two to three years immediately following a solar maximum

50
Q

What is associated with strong auroral activity, degraded HF and satellite radio communications, and errors in space track and missile detection radar observations?

A

Ionospheric storms

51
Q

Whet represents a direct radiation danger to astronauts and high altitude aircraft crews and may produce direct collisional electrical charging in satellites or spacecraft?

A

Proton events

52
Q

A flare is already causing immediate environmental effects and DOD system impacts by the time we first observe it because

A

The x-ray, ultraviolet, optical, and radio waves flares emit travel at the speed of light

53
Q

When do the effects of solar flares tend to subside?

A

Shortly after the flare ends

54
Q

The impact of a proton event can last for

A

A few hours to several days after the flare ends

55
Q

What effect is NOT caused by proton events?

A

Omnidirectional antenna failure

Effects: false sensor readings, satellite distortion, absorption of HF signals

56
Q

To what does a short wave fade (SWF) refer?

A

An abnormally high fading of a HF radio signal

57
Q

Surface-to-surface radio operators use medium or high frequencies (MF or HF), while SATCOM operators use very high frequencies (VHF) to extreme high frequencies (EHF) because

A

The higher the frequency the less the degree of refraction cause by the F-layer

58
Q

What is a short wave blackout?

A

A short wave fade (SWF) event that is strong enough to close the high frequency (HF) propagation window completely

59
Q

Solar radio bursts are

A

Not possible to forecast since they are experienced simultaneously with observation of the solar flare

60
Q

What causes geosynchronous communication satellites to experience interference or blackouts during brief periods on either side of the spring and autumn equinoxes?

A

Solar conjunctions

61
Q

Which system impacts tend to occur hours to several days after the solar activity that caused them, persist for up to several days, and are mostly felt in the nighttime sector?

A

Particle delayed effects

62
Q

Particle events and associated geomagnetic disturbances often show a 27-day recurrence because

A

The sun rotates once every 27 days

63
Q

What causes the enhanced ionization of D-layer atoms and molecules which produces signal absorption at high latitudes?

A

Particle bombardment from space

64
Q

The enhanced ionization caused by solar flare protons enter through the funnel-like cusps in the magnetosphere above the earth’s polar caps is called

A

A polar cap absorption event

65
Q

What causes auroral zone absorption events?

A

Particles from the magnetosphere’s tail

66
Q

What causes ionospheric scintillation at high geomagnetic latitudes?

A

Intense ionospheric irregularities found in the auroral zones

67
Q

Scintillation of radio wave signals is

A

The rapid, random variation in signal amplitude, phase, and/or polarization

68
Q

What tends to occur as a result of scintillation?

A

Signal fading and dats drop outs on satellite uplinks and data downlinks

69
Q

Impacts of scintillation will only be felt if

A

The signal penetrates an ionospheric region where electron density irregularities are occurring

70
Q

During what event did scintillation pose an unanticipated, but very real operational problem?

A

Operation Desert Storm

71
Q

A major source for space object positioning errors is

A

Miscalculated atmospheric drag

72
Q

Atmospheric drag

A

Decreases an object’s altitude and increases it’s orbital speed

73
Q

What is NOT a consequence of atmospheric drag?

A

Satellite mechanism failures

Consequences: inaccurate satellite locations, unreliable de-orbit predictions, costly orbit maintenance maneuvers

74
Q

The solar F10 index is used to

A

Predict the orbits of space objects

75
Q

The Outer and Inner Van Allen Radiation Belts are

A

Two concentric, donut-shaped regions of trapped charged particles

76
Q

The Outer Van Allen Radiation Belt contains mostly

A

Low to medium energy protons and electrons (Inner has high energy protons)

77
Q

Geosynchronous orbit suffers whenever the Outer Belt moves inward or outward because

A

It lies near the outer boundary of the Outer Belt

78
Q

Why do semi-synchronous orbit suffers from a variable high density particle environment?

A

It lies near the middle of the Outer Belt

79
Q

Radiation belt electrons are

A

About 10 to 100 times more numerous than protons

80
Q

All of the following can produce spacecraft electrical charging EXCEPT

A

Lunar illumination
These can: solar illumination, motion through a medium containing charged particles, directed particle bombardment during geomagnetic storms and proton events

81
Q

Solar illumination and wake charging are examples of

A

Surface charging phenomena

82
Q

What is NOT produced by an electrostatic discharge?

A

Failure of on board modeling sensors
Are: false sensor readings, spurious circuit switching, failure of electronic components, thermal coatings, and solar cells

83
Q

What is the source for cosmic rays which compliment single event upsets (SEU)?

A

Very largest solar flares or galactic sources outside our Solar System