7-1 Mil Ops and the Environment Flashcards

0
Q

Joint operations planning is primarily the responsibility of the

A

Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS)

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1
Q

During military planning, the strategic level is

A

The highest level of decision making when planning for contingencies

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2
Q

Crisis action planning differs from deliberate planning in that it’s based on

A

Current events and conducted in time-sensitive situations and emergencies

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3
Q

For what does deliberate planning help to prepare?

A

The most likely contingencies that may occur in the near term future

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4
Q

What type of planning is aimed at assembling and organizing national resources to support national objectives during a time of war or for operations other than war?

A

Mobilization planning

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5
Q

Commanders use the joint intelligence preparation bulletin (JIPB) process to support all of the following except

A

Natural disaster relief

Used for targeting, special ops, counter air ops

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6
Q

To what level(s) does the joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield (JIPB) process apply?

A

Operational, strategic, and tactical

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7
Q

What is the last major step in the joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield (JIPB) process?

A

Determine the adversary potential course of actions (COA)

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8
Q

What is targeting, with respect to the air tasking cycle?

A

The process of selecting targets and measuring the results or response of the target selection

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9
Q

Over what period of time does the Notational Air Tasking Cycle take place?

A

30 to 72 hour hour period

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10
Q

What must be completed before moving into Phase Three of the Notational Air Tasking Cycle?

A

Target development phase

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11
Q

Effects at the strategic level of war include

A

Destruction or disruption of the enemy’s center of gravity (COG)

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12
Q

At what level of warfare are individual battles or engagements fought?

A

Tactical

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13
Q

At what level of war are campaigns and major operations planned, conducted, and sustained?

A

Operational

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14
Q

Planning at the operational level of war determines all of the following EXCEPT

A

Exactly when we will attack

Used for what, in what order, and duration

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15
Q

The Army’s primary mission is to organize, train, and equip forces to

A

Prompt and sustained land combat operations

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16
Q

What is the Army’s largest major command?

A

US Army Forces Command

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17
Q

What is the US Army Forces Command (FORSCOM) mission?

A

To train, mobilize, deploy and sustain combat ready forces capable of responding rapidly to crises worldwide

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18
Q

What rank of Army officer normally commands divisions?

A

Major generals

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19
Q

In what environment(s) does the US seek to achieve it’s strategic objectives?

A

Peacetime, conflict, and war

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20
Q

How does the Army classify it’s activities during conflict?

A

Military operations other than war

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21
Q

What does the US attempt to do during peacetime?

A

To influence world events through those actions that routinely occurs between nations

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22
Q

According to the US Army, what is war?

A

The use of force in combat operations against an armed enemy

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23
Q

In what terms do commanders consider the battlefield?

A

The time and space necessary to defeat the enemy force or to complete the assigned mission

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24
Once deployed, a tactical unit works within the
Area of Operations (AO)
25
Regarding US military forces, the changing of one area of interest to another is most likely influenced by
Political climate
26
Who is responsible for maintaining and managing the database for temporary location KQ identifiers?
HQ AFWA
27
Under which phase of the joint operational execution and planning system (JOPES) is an operation plan (OPLAN) created?
Deliberate planning
28
Which statement best describes the relationship between an operational plan (OPLAN) and an operational order (OPORD)?
An OPORD is a directive to execute a military operation
29
Which of the following documents pertains to weather operations and is maintained in the weather unit's security container?
Annex H of the operational plan (OPLAN)
30
What agency and action determines the security classification of an operational plan (OPLAN)?
The originator of the document classifies the OPLAN at a level commensurate with the highest classified portion of the document
31
Radio transmissions transfer data using?
High Frequency (HF) and frequency modulation (FM) radios
32
Which tactical communication device employs programs that ingest, analyze, and integrate weather data in a deployed or garrison environment?
Integrated Meteorological System (IMETS)
33
Tactical Meteorological Observing System (TMOS) can transfer data to locations in the near vicinity using?
A modem and radio frequency (RF) transmitter
34
The Iridium Satellite phone set includes?
9505a handset, battery, Subscriber Identity Module (SIM) card, secure sleeve and mobile antenna
35
What is the most important role of the AF weather (AWF) personnel?
To provide the war fighter tailored weather information that enhances combat effectiveness
36
Air Force Weather (AFW) is most effective when a commander receives
Accurate and relevant weather forecasts in a timely manner
37
Weather personnel tailor the information for specific applications so the war fighter can
Quickly identify and apply relevant information without additional analysis
38
The overall effectiveness of Air Force Weather (AFW) is based on the
Successful and effective accomplishment of specific military operations
39
Air Force Weather (AFW) develops a coherent picture of the current state of the air and space environment as a result of performing
Analysis
40
Weather information is of no operational use unless
It reaches the user in time to be of operational or planning value
41
Integration of weather information as decision aids into the planning process allows commanders to
Make informed decisions about the design and operation of a plan
42
The term marginal implies that the impact of weather elements will cause
The occurrence of some degradation to the mission
43
What must you understand in order for your weather flight (WF) to fully support aerial operations?
The limitations and capabilities of each airframe and the scope of the operation
44
The ability for ground forces to maneuver and traverse across terrain refers to
Trafficability
45
In operational terms, what can be expected if two objects are identical in every physical way except emissivity?
Higher emissivity heats or cools faster than the other
46
What term is used to express the difference between the thermal energy of the target and that of the background?
Thermal contrast
47
The moment when the target and the background are at the same temperature is referred to as
Thermal crossover
48
Why does a beam of light traveling through air bend once it hits water?
Speed of light is slower in water
49
The greatest potential for large solar flares is
Two to three years immediately following a solar maximum
50
What is associated with strong auroral activity, degraded HF and satellite radio communications, and errors in space track and missile detection radar observations?
Ionospheric storms
51
Whet represents a direct radiation danger to astronauts and high altitude aircraft crews and may produce direct collisional electrical charging in satellites or spacecraft?
Proton events
52
A flare is already causing immediate environmental effects and DOD system impacts by the time we first observe it because
The x-ray, ultraviolet, optical, and radio waves flares emit travel at the speed of light
53
When do the effects of solar flares tend to subside?
Shortly after the flare ends
54
The impact of a proton event can last for
A few hours to several days after the flare ends
55
What effect is NOT caused by proton events?
Omnidirectional antenna failure | Effects: false sensor readings, satellite distortion, absorption of HF signals
56
To what does a short wave fade (SWF) refer?
An abnormally high fading of a HF radio signal
57
Surface-to-surface radio operators use medium or high frequencies (MF or HF), while SATCOM operators use very high frequencies (VHF) to extreme high frequencies (EHF) because
The higher the frequency the less the degree of refraction cause by the F-layer
58
What is a short wave blackout?
A short wave fade (SWF) event that is strong enough to close the high frequency (HF) propagation window completely
59
Solar radio bursts are
Not possible to forecast since they are experienced simultaneously with observation of the solar flare
60
What causes geosynchronous communication satellites to experience interference or blackouts during brief periods on either side of the spring and autumn equinoxes?
Solar conjunctions
61
Which system impacts tend to occur hours to several days after the solar activity that caused them, persist for up to several days, and are mostly felt in the nighttime sector?
Particle delayed effects
62
Particle events and associated geomagnetic disturbances often show a 27-day recurrence because
The sun rotates once every 27 days
63
What causes the enhanced ionization of D-layer atoms and molecules which produces signal absorption at high latitudes?
Particle bombardment from space
64
The enhanced ionization caused by solar flare protons enter through the funnel-like cusps in the magnetosphere above the earth's polar caps is called
A polar cap absorption event
65
What causes auroral zone absorption events?
Particles from the magnetosphere's tail
66
What causes ionospheric scintillation at high geomagnetic latitudes?
Intense ionospheric irregularities found in the auroral zones
67
Scintillation of radio wave signals is
The rapid, random variation in signal amplitude, phase, and/or polarization
68
What tends to occur as a result of scintillation?
Signal fading and dats drop outs on satellite uplinks and data downlinks
69
Impacts of scintillation will only be felt if
The signal penetrates an ionospheric region where electron density irregularities are occurring
70
During what event did scintillation pose an unanticipated, but very real operational problem?
Operation Desert Storm
71
A major source for space object positioning errors is
Miscalculated atmospheric drag
72
Atmospheric drag
Decreases an object's altitude and increases it's orbital speed
73
What is NOT a consequence of atmospheric drag?
Satellite mechanism failures | Consequences: inaccurate satellite locations, unreliable de-orbit predictions, costly orbit maintenance maneuvers
74
The solar F10 index is used to
Predict the orbits of space objects
75
The Outer and Inner Van Allen Radiation Belts are
Two concentric, donut-shaped regions of trapped charged particles
76
The Outer Van Allen Radiation Belt contains mostly
Low to medium energy protons and electrons (Inner has high energy protons)
77
Geosynchronous orbit suffers whenever the Outer Belt moves inward or outward because
It lies near the outer boundary of the Outer Belt
78
Why do semi-synchronous orbit suffers from a variable high density particle environment?
It lies near the middle of the Outer Belt
79
Radiation belt electrons are
About 10 to 100 times more numerous than protons
80
All of the following can produce spacecraft electrical charging EXCEPT
Lunar illumination These can: solar illumination, motion through a medium containing charged particles, directed particle bombardment during geomagnetic storms and proton events
81
Solar illumination and wake charging are examples of
Surface charging phenomena
82
What is NOT produced by an electrostatic discharge?
Failure of on board modeling sensors Are: false sensor readings, spurious circuit switching, failure of electronic components, thermal coatings, and solar cells
83
What is the source for cosmic rays which compliment single event upsets (SEU)?
Very largest solar flares or galactic sources outside our Solar System