651-700 Flashcards
A security engineer is reviewing log files after a third party discovered usernames and passwords for the organization’s accounts. The engineer sees there was a change in the IP address for a vendor website one week earlier. This change lasted eight hours. Which of the following attacks was MOST likely used?
A. Man-in-the-middle
B. Spear-phishing
C. Evil twin
D. DNS poisoning
D. DNS poisoning
Here’s why DNS poisoning fits this scenario:
DNS Poisoning: Also known as DNS cache poisoning, this attack involves corrupting the DNS cache of a DNS resolver or client. If an attacker successfully poisons the DNS cache, legitimate domain name queries can be redirected to malicious IP addresses controlled by the attacker. In this case, the change in IP address for the vendor website could indicate that DNS records were manipulated to redirect traffic to a malicious server controlled by the attacker for the duration of eight hours.
Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely in this context:
A. Man-in-the-middle: While a man-in-the-middle (MitM) attack involves intercepting and potentially altering communications between two parties, the specific mention of a change in IP address for a vendor website suggests manipulation of DNS records rather than direct interception of traffic. B. Spear-phishing: Spear-phishing involves targeted email attacks to trick specific individuals into divulging sensitive information. There is no indication in the scenario that spear-phishing directly led to the change in IP address. C. Evil twin: An evil twin attack typically involves setting up a rogue wireless access point that mimics a legitimate one to intercept wireless communications. This scenario describes a change in IP address for a vendor website, which is not characteristic of an evil twin attack.
Therefore, D. DNS poisoning is the most likely attack used in this scenario where the organization’s accounts’ usernames and passwords were compromised after a change in the vendor website’s IP address was detected in log files.
A user recently entered a username and password into a recruiting application website that had been forged to look like the legitimate site. Upon investigation, a security analyst identifies the following:
– The legitimate website’s IP address is 10.1.1.20 and eRecruit.local resolves to this IP.
– The forged website’s IP address appears to be 10.2.12.99, based on NetFlow records.
– All three of the organization’s DNS servers show the website correctly resolves to the legitimate IP.
– DNS query logs show one of the three DNS servers returned a result of 10.2.12.99 (cached) at the
approximate time of the suspected compromise.
Which of the following MOST likely occurred?
A. A reverse proxy was used to redirect network traffic.
B. An SSL strip MITM attack was performed.
C. An attacker temporarily poisoned a name server.
D. An ARP poisoning attack was successfully executed.
C. An attacker temporarily poisoned a name server.
Here’s the reasoning:
DNS Poisoning: The DNS query logs show that one of the organization's DNS servers returned a result of 10.2.12.99 (which is the forged website's IP address) at the time of the suspected compromise. This indicates that the DNS server cache was poisoned with the incorrect IP address for the legitimate website eRecruit.local. Despite the other two DNS servers showing the correct resolution to 10.1.1.20, the compromised DNS server's cached entry led users to the forged website when they attempted to access eRecruit.local.
Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely in this context:
A. A reverse proxy was used to redirect network traffic: While a reverse proxy can redirect traffic, it typically operates at the application layer and would not directly affect DNS resolution to the extent described in the scenario. B. An SSL strip MITM attack was performed: SSL stripping involves downgrading HTTPS connections to HTTP to intercept traffic, but it does not directly manipulate DNS resolution or redirect users to a forged website based on DNS responses. D. An ARP poisoning attack was successfully executed: ARP poisoning involves manipulating ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) messages to associate a different MAC address with an IP address, typically within a local network. This attack is not related to DNS resolution and would not affect DNS server responses.
Therefore, C. An attacker temporarily poisoned a name server is the most likely scenario based on the DNS query logs showing an incorrect IP address cached by one of the organization’s DNS servers, leading users to enter credentials into a forged website masquerading as the legitimate one.
A recent audit uncovered a key finding regarding the use of a specific encryption standard in a web application that is used to communicate with business customers. Due to the technical limitations of its customers, the company is unable to upgrade the encryption standard. Which of the following types of controls should be used to reduce the risk created by this scenario?
A. Physical
B. Detective
C. Preventive
D. Compensating
D. Compensating
Here’s why compensating controls are suitable in this scenario:
Compensating Controls: These controls are alternative measures implemented when it is not feasible to implement the primary control or when the primary control alone is not sufficient. In the context of encryption standards, if upgrading to a more secure standard is not possible due to technical constraints of business customers, compensating controls can be implemented to mitigate the associated risks.
For example, compensating controls could include:
Enhanced monitoring and logging: Implementing additional detective controls to monitor and detect suspicious activities related to encryption. Stronger authentication mechanisms: Strengthening user authentication to mitigate the risk of unauthorized access even if encryption strength is limited. Segmentation and isolation: Isolating sensitive data or systems to reduce exposure if encryption is compromised.
These controls help to compensate for the reduced security provided by the outdated encryption standard, thereby reducing the overall risk to an acceptable level given the constraints.
Let’s briefly review why the other options are less appropriate in this scenario:
A. Physical Controls: Physical controls involve measures like locks, fences, and security guards to protect physical assets. They are not directly relevant to mitigating risks associated with encryption standards in a web application. B. Detective Controls: Detective controls aim to detect incidents or anomalies after they have occurred. While important for monitoring and alerting, they do not address the inherent risk associated with using a less secure encryption standard. C. Preventive Controls: Preventive controls aim to stop incidents from occurring by implementing security measures such as firewalls, access controls, and encryption standards themselves. However, since upgrading the encryption standard is not feasible, preventive controls alone cannot fully mitigate the risk in this scenario.
Therefore, D. Compensating controls are the appropriate choice to address the risk created by the inability to upgrade the encryption standard, providing alternative measures to mitigate security risks effectively.
Which of the following is a team of people dedicated to testing the effectiveness of organizational security programs by emulating the techniques of potential attackers?
A. Red team
B. White team
C. Blue team
D. Purple team
A. Red team
Explanation:
Red team: A red team is a group of individuals dedicated to testing the effectiveness of organizational security measures by simulating the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of potential attackers. They conduct simulated attacks to identify vulnerabilities in systems, processes, and personnel, often using methods similar to those of malicious actors. The goal is to provide a realistic assessment of an organization's security posture and readiness to defend against real-world threats.
Let’s briefly differentiate the other options:
B. White team: Typically refers to a group responsible for overseeing and ensuring the integrity of a testing process, ensuring it is conducted ethically and within predefined parameters. They do not actively simulate attacks like a red team. C. Blue team: Refers to the defensive security team within an organization that responds to and defends against security incidents. They monitor systems, analyze logs, and implement defensive measures to protect against real threats. D. Purple team: A purple team is a collaborative approach where red and blue teams work together closely. The red team simulates attacks, and the blue team defends against them, with both teams sharing knowledge and insights to improve overall security.
Therefore, A. Red team specifically describes the team dedicated to testing security effectiveness through simulated attacks, making it the correct answer in this context.
A security assessment determines DES and 3DES are still being used on recently deployed production servers.
Which of the following did the assessment identify?
A. Unsecure protocols
B. Default settings
C. Open permissions
D. Weak encryption
D. Weak encryption
Explanation:
DES (Data Encryption Standard) and 3DES (Triple DES) are encryption algorithms that have been deprecated due to vulnerabilities and weaknesses compared to more modern encryption standards like AES (Advanced Encryption Standard). Using DES and 3DES on production servers is considered a security risk because they are susceptible to brute-force attacks and other cryptographic weaknesses. Therefore, the assessment identified "weak encryption" as the issue because DES and 3DES are no longer considered secure encryption standards for protecting sensitive data.
Option A (Unsecure protocols), B (Default settings), and C (Open permissions) do not accurately describe the specific security issue related to the use of DES and 3DES on production servers. Therefore, D. Weak encryption is the correct identification based on the scenario provided.
The cost of removable media and the security risks of transporting data have become too great for a laboratory.
The laboratory has decided to interconnect with partner laboratories to make data transfers easier and more secure. The Chief Security Officer (CSO) has several concerns about proprietary data being exposed once the interconnections are established. Which of the following security features should the network administrator implement to prevent unwanted data exposure to users in partner laboratories?
A. VLAN zoning with a file-transfer server in an external-facing zone
B. DLP running on hosts to prevent file transfers between networks
C. NAC that permits only data-transfer agents to move data between networks
D. VPN with full tunneling and NAS authenticating through the Active Directory
(Community D 43%, B 26%, C 17%)
D. VPN with full tunneling and NAS authenticating through the Active Directory
For the scenario described where proprietary data might be exposed once interconnections are established with partner laboratories, option D (VPN with full tunneling and NAS authenticating through the Active Directory) offers a holistic security solution. It combines the encrypted communication features of a VPN with the strong user and device authentication mechanisms of Active Directory
VLAN zoning and VPN tunneling are both methods used to segment and secure network traffic, but they serve different purposes. VLAN zoning is a technique used to divide a network into separate virtual LANs, allowing for better control and management of network traffic within a single physical network. On the other hand, VPN tunneling creates a secure, encrypted connection over a public network, such as the internet, to connect remote users or branch offices to a central network. While VLAN zoning is more focused on internal network segmentation, VPN tunneling is used to securely connect external networks to a central network
(Brain dump: A. VLAN zoning with a file-transfer server in an external-facing zone)
A vulnerability assessment report will include the CVSS score of the discovered vulnerabilities because the score allows the organization to better:
A. validate the vulnerability exists in the organization’s network through penetration testing.
B. research the appropriate mitigation techniques in a vulnerability database.
C. find the software patches that are required to mitigate a vulnerability.
D. prioritize remediation of vulnerabilities based on the possible impact.
D. prioritize remediation of vulnerabilities based on the possible impact.
Explanation:
CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) Score: The CVSS score is a standardized numerical rating that assesses the severity of a vulnerability based on several metrics, including exploitability, impact, and complexity. This score helps organizations prioritize which vulnerabilities to address first based on their potential impact on the organization's systems and data. Prioritize remediation: By including CVSS scores in the vulnerability assessment report, organizations can prioritize their remediation efforts. Vulnerabilities with higher CVSS scores (indicating higher severity) are typically addressed first to mitigate the most significant risks to the organization's security posture.
Let’s briefly review why the other options are less applicable:
A. Validate the vulnerability exists in the organization's network through penetration testing: Penetration testing validates the existence and exploitation of vulnerabilities but does not rely on CVSS scores to do so. CVSS scores provide a severity rating rather than confirming the presence of a vulnerability. B. Research the appropriate mitigation techniques in a vulnerability database: While CVSS scores can guide decisions on mitigation, they do not directly provide specific mitigation techniques. Organizations typically consult vulnerability databases or security advisories for detailed mitigation guidance. C. Find the software patches that are required to mitigate a vulnerability: CVSS scores indicate the severity of a vulnerability but do not directly link to specific software patches. Organizations must still refer to vendor advisories and patch management systems to identify and apply appropriate patches.
Therefore, D. prioritize remediation of vulnerabilities based on the possible impact is the primary benefit of including CVSS scores in a vulnerability assessment report. It helps organizations allocate resources efficiently by addressing the most critical vulnerabilities first, thereby enhancing overall security posture.
A security analyst is performing a forensic investigation involving compromised account credentials. Using the Event Viewer, the analyst was able to detect the following message: “Special privileges assigned to new logon.” Several of these messages did not have a valid logon associated with the user before these privileges were assigned. Which of the following attacks is MOST likely being detected?
A. Pass-the-hash
B. Buffer overflow
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Session replay
A. Pass-the-hash
Here’s why:
Pass-the-hash: This attack involves an attacker obtaining hashed credentials (typically through tools like Mimikatz) from a compromised system and then using these hashes to authenticate to other systems without needing to crack the hash into plaintext passwords. When the attacker successfully uses hashed credentials to gain access, it often triggers messages in event logs indicating special privileges assigned to a new logon without a valid initial logon session. Event Viewer message "Special privileges assigned to new logon": This message suggests that privileges were assigned to a new logon session that did not have a valid previous logon session associated with it. This behavior is characteristic of pass-the-hash attacks where the attacker uses obtained hashes to authenticate and gain access to resources.
Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely in this context:
B. Buffer overflow: Buffer overflow attacks exploit vulnerabilities in software to overwrite memory and gain unauthorized access to systems or execute arbitrary code. They typically do not manifest as "special privileges assigned to new logon" messages in event logs. C. Cross-site scripting (XSS): XSS attacks involve injecting malicious scripts into web pages viewed by other users. They do not directly relate to "special privileges assigned to new logon" messages in event logs. D. Session replay: Session replay attacks involve capturing and replaying legitimate session data to impersonate a legitimate user. They do not typically result in event log messages related to new logon sessions and special privileges.
Therefore, based on the information provided, A. Pass-the-hash is the most likely attack being detected in the forensic investigation involving compromised account credentials.
Company engineers regularly participate in a public Internet forum with other engineers throughout the industry.
Which of the following tactics would an attacker MOST likely use in this scenario?
A. Watering-hole attack
B. Credential harvesting
C. Hybrid warfare
D. Pharming
A. Watering-hole attack
Here’s why:
Watering-hole attack: This type of attack involves compromising a website that the targeted individuals (in this case, company engineers) frequently visit. By infecting this legitimate website with malware, the attackers can exploit the trust of the visitors and potentially compromise their systems when they visit the infected site. Since engineers participate regularly in the forum, attackers may target the forum's website or related sites engineers commonly visit. Credential harvesting: While credential harvesting is a common goal in various cyber attacks, it typically involves more targeted methods such as phishing or social engineering, rather than relying on the engineers' participation in public forums. Hybrid warfare: This term usually refers to a broader concept involving military and non-military strategies and is not directly related to cyber attacks on Internet forums. Pharming: Pharming involves redirecting users from legitimate websites to malicious ones without their knowledge, often through DNS cache poisoning or malware. While related to web security, it's less likely in the context of engineers participating in a specific public forum.
Therefore, in the scenario described, A. Watering-hole attack is the tactic that an attacker would most likely use to target company engineers participating in a public Internet forum. This tactic leverages their regular visits to specific websites to deliver malware or compromise their systems.
As company uses wireless for all laptops and keeps a very detailed record of its assets, along with a comprehensive list of devices that are authorized to be on the wireless network. The Chief Information Officer (CIO) is concerned about a script kiddie potentially using an unauthorized device to brute force the wireless PSK and obtain access to the internal network. Which of the following should the company implement to BEST prevent this from occurring?
A. A BPDU guard
B. WPA-EAP
C. IP filtering
D. A WIDS
Community : B 81%, D 19%
B. WPA-EAP
WPA-EAP provides a stronger form of authentication compared to a simple Pre-Shared Key (PSK). It uses an Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) framework, which allows for more advanced authentication methods such as username and password, digital certificates, or token-based authentication. By requiring users to authenticate using stronger credentials, WPA-EAP makes it significantly more difficult for unauthorized devices to gain access to the wireless network through brute force attacks on the PSK.
While options like BPDU guard (A), IP filtering (C), and a WIDS (Wireless Intrusion Detection System) (D) may provide additional security measures, implementing WPA-EAP is specifically targeted at strengthening authentication for wireless access, making it the most effective solution for preventing unauthorized access via brute force attacks on the PSK.
It’s not WIDS (Wireless Intrusion Detection System). A WIDS monitors the radio spectrum for the presence of unauthorized, rogue access points and the use of wireless attack tools. The system monitors the radio spectrum used by wireless LANs, and immediately alerts a systems administrator whenever a rogue access point is detected. Conventionally it is achieved by comparing the MAC address of the participating wireless devices.
Rogue devices can spoof MAC address of an authorized network device as their own. New research uses fingerprinting approach to weed out devices with spoofed MAC addresses. The idea is to compare the unique signatures exhibited by the signals emitted by each wireless device against the known signatures of pre-authorized, known wireless devices.
Brain dump, ChatGPT :
D. A WIDS (Wireless Intrusion Detection System).
Here’s why WIDS is the best choice in this scenario:
WIDS (Wireless Intrusion Detection System): A WIDS monitors the wireless airspace for unauthorized access points, rogue devices, and potential attacks. It can detect anomalies such as brute force attempts on the wireless PSK or the presence of unauthorized devices attempting to connect to the network. By monitoring and analyzing wireless traffic, a WIDS can alert network administrators to suspicious activities and potential security breaches, allowing for prompt action to mitigate threats.
Let’s briefly review why the other options are less suitable in this context:
A. BPDU guard: BPDU guard is used to protect against spanning tree protocol (STP) attacks in Ethernet networks and is not directly related to wireless network security or preventing unauthorized devices from connecting. B. WPA-EAP: WPA-EAP (Wi-Fi Protected Access - Extensible Authentication Protocol) provides stronger authentication mechanisms than a PSK, but it does not directly prevent unauthorized devices from attempting to brute force the PSK or gain access to the network. C. IP filtering: IP filtering restricts traffic based on IP addresses and is not effective against unauthorized wireless devices attempting to brute force the PSK or gain access to the network.
Therefore, D. A WIDS is the best choice to help prevent unauthorized access and mitigate the risk posed by a script kiddie attempting to brute force the wireless PSK and gain access to the company’s internal network.
In the middle of a cyberattack, a security engineer removes the infected devices from the network and locks down all compromised accounts. In which of the following incident response phases is the security engineer currently operating?
A. Identification
B. Preparation
C. Lessons learned
D. Eradication
E. Recovery
F. Containment
F. Containment
Here’s why:
Containment: This phase focuses on limiting the scope and impact of the incident. Actions typically include isolating affected systems or networks, removing infected devices from the network, and implementing controls to prevent further spread of the attack. By removing infected devices and locking down compromised accounts, the security engineer is actively containing the incident and preventing it from spreading further within the network. Identification: In the Identification phase, the incident is initially detected and characterized. This involves understanding the nature and extent of the incident, which precedes the containment phase. Eradication: The Eradication phase involves permanently removing the cause of the incident from the environment. While removing infected devices is part of containment, eradication involves deeper actions to ensure the attack vector is completely eliminated. Recovery: The Recovery phase focuses on restoring affected systems and services to normal operations after the incident has been contained and eradicated. This phase comes after containment and eradication efforts are successful. Preparation and Lessons learned: These phases occur before and after the incident response process itself, involving preparing for incidents and improving future response based on lessons learned, respectively.
Therefore, based on the immediate actions described, the security engineer is currently in the Containment phase, actively isolating and preventing further spread of the cyberattack within the network.
A network administrator would like to configure a site-to-site VPN utilizing IPSec. The administrator wants the tunnel to be established with data integrity, encryption, authentication, and anti-replay functions. Which of the following should the administrator use when configuring the VPN?
A. AH
B. EDR
C. ESP
D. DNSSEC
(Community : C 100%)
C. ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) is the correct choice for a site-to-site VPN when you need encryption, authentication, data integrity, and anti-replay protection.
A. AH (Authentication Header) provides authentication and data integrity but does not offer encryption or anti-replay protection. It does not encrypt the payload.
B. EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response) is a security technology used for detecting and responding to advanced threats and breaches on endpoints (computers and servers). It’s not related to configuring VPNs.
D. DNSSEC (Domain Name System Security Extensions) is used to add security to the DNS by providing authentication and data integrity for DNS data. It’s not directly related to configuring VPNs with the specified requirements.
ChatGPT:
C. ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload)
Here’s why ESP is the correct choice:
ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload): ESP provides encryption, data integrity, authentication, and anti-replay protection for the IP packets being transmitted over the VPN tunnel. It is a core protocol within IPSec that ensures the confidentiality and integrity of the data being exchanged between the two VPN endpoints. AH (Authentication Header): AH provides data integrity and authentication, but it does not provide encryption. It is typically used when confidentiality is not required but integrity and authentication are essential. EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response): EDR is a security solution that monitors and responds to threats on endpoints. It is not related to configuring a site-to-site VPN with IPSec. DNSSEC (Domain Name System Security Extensions): DNSSEC is a set of extensions to DNS that provide data integrity and authentication for DNS responses. It is not used for configuring VPNs with IPSec.
Therefore, C. ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) is the protocol that the network administrator should use to ensure the VPN tunnel provides data integrity, encryption, authentication, and anti-replay functions as required.
A security incident may have occurred on the desktop PC of an organization’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO). A duplicate copy of the CEO’s hard drive must be stored securely to ensure appropriate forensic processes and the chain of custody are followed. Which of the following should be performed to accomplish this task?
A. Install a new hard drive in the CEO’s PC, and then remove the old hard drive and place it in a tamper-evident bag.
B. Connect a write blocker to the hard drive. Then, leveraging a forensic workstation, utilize the dd command in a live Linux environment to create a duplicate copy.
C. Remove the CEO’s hard drive from the PC, connect to the forensic workstation, and copy all the contents onto a remote fileshare while the CEO watches.
D. Refrain from completing a forensic analysis of the CEO’s hard drive until after the incident is confirmed; duplicating the hard drive at this stage could destroy evidence.
B. Connect a write blocker to the hard drive. Then, leveraging a forensic workstation, utilize the dd command in a live Linux environment to create a duplicate copy.
Here’s why this option is correct:
Write blocker: A write blocker is a device that allows data to be read from a storage device (like a hard drive) without allowing data to be written back to it. This ensures that the original data on the CEO's hard drive remains unchanged during the duplication process, preserving its integrity for forensic examination. Forensic workstation: Using a dedicated forensic workstation ensures that the duplication process is conducted in a controlled environment specifically designed for handling forensic evidence. This workstation should have appropriate software and tools for creating forensically sound duplicates. dd command in a live Linux environment: The dd command is a low-level tool that can create bit-for-bit copies of data. Running dd in a live Linux environment ensures that the duplication process does not alter the original data and captures everything on the hard drive, including deleted files and unallocated space, which may be crucial for forensic analysis.
Let’s briefly review why the other options are not as suitable:
A. Install a new hard drive and place the old hard drive in a tamper-evident bag: This option involves removing the original hard drive and installing a new one, which alters the original configuration and data on the CEO's PC before duplicating. This could potentially affect the integrity of the evidence. C. Copy all contents onto a remote fileshare while the CEO watches: This method does not use a write blocker and does not ensure that the data is forensically preserved. Additionally, involving the CEO during the duplication process may compromise the chain of custody. D. Refrain from completing a forensic analysis until after confirming the incident: Delaying duplication and forensic analysis could lead to loss of crucial evidence or compromise the integrity of the investigation if the hard drive is tampered with or compromised further.
Therefore, B. Connect a write blocker to the hard drive and use the dd command in a live Linux environment is the best approach to securely store a duplicate copy of the CEO’s hard drive while preserving its integrity for forensic examination.
A security engineer at an offline government facility is concerned about the validity of an SSL certificate. The engineer wants to perform the fastest check with the least delay to determine if the certificate has been revoked. Which of the following would BEST meet these requirements?
A. RA
B. OCSP
C. CRL
D. CSR
B. OCSP (Online Certificate Status Protocol)
Here’s why OCSP is the most suitable choice:
OCSP (Online Certificate Status Protocol): OCSP provides real-time validation of the status of an SSL certificate. When a client (like a web browser) encounters an SSL certificate, it can query the OCSP responder to check if the certificate is still valid or if it has been revoked. This check happens instantly and does not require downloading large lists like Certificate Revocation Lists (CRLs). RA (Registration Authority): The RA is responsible for verifying the identity of certificate requestors and typically does not handle certificate revocation checks directly. CRL (Certificate Revocation List): CRLs contain a list of revoked certificates and must be periodically downloaded and checked against. They are not as fast as OCSP because they may require downloading a potentially large list. CSR (Certificate Signing Request): A CSR is used during the process of requesting a new SSL certificate and is not related to checking the revocation status of an existing certificate.
Therefore, B. OCSP is the best choice for the security engineer at the offline government facility to quickly determine if an SSL certificate has been revoked, ensuring minimal delay and efficient certificate validation.
A security administrator needs to create a RAID configuration that is focused on high read speeds and fault tolerance. It is unlikely that multiple drives will fail simultaneously. Which of the following RAID configurations should the administrator use?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10
(Community : D73%, C 24%)
D. RAID 10
RAID 10 (also known as RAID 1+0) combines the benefits of RAID 1 (mirroring) and RAID 0 (striping). It offers high read speeds because data is striped across multiple drives, resulting in parallel read operations. Additionally, it provides fault tolerance by mirroring data across multiple drives. In a RAID 10 configuration, multiple drives can fail as long as they are not part of the same mirrored pair. This configuration offers both performance and redundancy, making it ideal for scenarios where both high read speeds and fault tolerance are priorities.
ChatGPT :
D. RAID 10
Here’s why RAID 10 fits the criteria:
RAID 10 (RAID 1+0): RAID 10 combines features of both RAID 1 (mirroring) and RAID 0 (striping). It provides high read speeds by striping data across multiple drives (like RAID 0), while also offering fault tolerance by mirroring each striped set onto another set of drives. This means that data is both striped and mirrored, providing redundancy against drive failures. High read speeds: RAID 10 offers excellent read performance because data can be read from multiple drives simultaneously due to striping. This configuration is particularly efficient for read-heavy applications and environments where quick access to data is crucial. Fault tolerance: RAID 10 can withstand the failure of multiple drives in the array as long as they are not part of the same mirrored pair. It requires a minimum of four drives and allows for the failure of one drive in each mirrored pair without data loss.
Let’s briefly review the other RAID configurations:
RAID 0: Provides striping without redundancy. It offers high read speeds but no fault tolerance. If one drive fails, all data in the array is lost. RAID 1: Provides mirroring without striping. It offers fault tolerance by duplicating data across drives (two drives minimum), but read speeds are typically not as high as RAID 0 or RAID 10. RAID 5: Provides striping with distributed parity. It offers good read speeds and fault tolerance through parity information distributed across all drives. However, the rebuild process can be intensive if a drive fails.
Therefore, considering the requirement for high read speeds and fault tolerance with minimal likelihood of simultaneous multiple drive failures, RAID 10 is the best choice among the options provided.
(Brain dump: C. RAID 5 )
Which of the following algorithms has the SMALLEST key size?
A. DES
B. Twofish
C. RSA
D. AES
A. DES (Data Encryption Standard)
Here’s why:
DES: Uses a key size of 56 bits. While historically significant, DES is now considered insecure for most applications due to its small key size, making it vulnerable to brute-force attacks. Twofish: Supports key sizes up to 256 bits, making it more secure than DES. RSA: A public-key encryption algorithm that typically uses key sizes of 1024 bits or larger for security, although smaller key sizes are also possible. AES: Uses key sizes of 128, 192, or 256 bits. AES is widely used and considered secure for encrypting sensitive data.
Therefore, A. DES has the smallest key size among the algorithms listed.
During an incident response, a security analyst observes the following log entry on the web server:
GET http://www.companysite.com/product_info.php?show=../../../../etc/passwd HTTP/1.1 Host: www.companysite.com
Which of the following BEST describes the type of attack the analyst is experiencing?
A. SQL injection
B. Cross-site scripting
C. Pass-the-hash
D. Directory traversal
D. Directory Traversal or Path Traversal.
Directory Traversal: This attack occurs when an attacker tries to access files and directories that are outside the web server's root directory. In this case, the URL http://www.companysite.com/product_info.php?show=../../../../etc/passwd suggests that the attacker is attempting to navigate up the directory structure (../../..) to reach sensitive files (/etc/passwd).
Here’s why the other options are not correct:
A. SQL injection: Involves injecting SQL queries through web application inputs to manipulate the database. The provided log entry does not show any SQL query manipulation. B. Cross-site scripting (XSS): Involves injecting malicious scripts into web pages viewed by other users. The log entry does not indicate scripting or injecting content into a web page. C. Pass-the-hash: Refers to techniques used in credential theft where an attacker captures hashed credentials and uses them to authenticate without knowing the original password. This log entry does not relate to credential passing.
Therefore, based on the log entry provided, the type of attack the analyst is experiencing is Directory Traversal (or Path Traversal).
A security audit has revealed that a process control terminal is vulnerable to malicious users installing and executing software on the system. The terminal is beyond end-of-life support and cannot be upgraded, so it is placed on a protected network segment. Which of the following would be MOST effective to implement to further mitigate the reported vulnerability?
A. DNS sinkholing
B. DLP rules on the terminal
C. An IP blacklist
D. Application whitelisting
D. Application whitelisting.
Here’s why application whitelisting is the best choice:
Application Whitelisting: This approach allows only approved, known applications to run on the system. By explicitly listing and allowing only authorized software to execute, any attempt by malicious users to install and run unauthorized software would be blocked automatically. This is especially crucial for systems like process control terminals where maintaining a strict control over software execution is paramount for security.
Let’s briefly review the other options:
A. DNS sinkholing: DNS sinkholing is a technique used to redirect malicious domain queries to a controlled server. While useful for handling certain types of malicious activities, it does not directly prevent unauthorized software installation and execution on the terminal. B. DLP (Data Loss Prevention) rules on the terminal: DLP rules focus on preventing sensitive data from leaving the network. While important for data protection, they do not address the core issue of unauthorized software installation and execution on the terminal. C. An IP blacklist: IP blacklisting can block communication with known malicious IP addresses, but it does not prevent local software execution or installation on the terminal.
Therefore, D. Application whitelisting is the most effective measure to implement in this scenario to mitigate the risk posed by unauthorized software installation and execution on the vulnerable process control terminal.
A document that appears to be malicious has been discovered in an email that was sent to a company’s Chief Financial Officer (CFO). Which of the following would be BEST to allow a security analyst to gather information and confirm it is a malicious document without executing any code it may contain?
A. Open the document on an air-gapped network.
B. View the document’s metadata for origin clues.
C. Search for matching file hashes on malware websites.
D. Detonate the document in an analysis sandbox.
Community : C 55%, D 25%, B 20%
Everyone can change the metadata of a file. B is wrong
“without executing any code it may contain” which means A and D is automatically wrong.
B wouldn’t tell you directly anything about the document
C if you compare the document with hashes and it matches with a known malware, then you know if it is a malware
ChatGPT and Braindump :
D. Detonate the document in an analysis sandbox.
Here’s why this option is the most suitable:
Analysis Sandbox: An analysis sandbox is a controlled environment designed to execute and observe the behavior of potentially malicious files or software in a safe manner. It isolates the document from the production environment, ensuring that any malicious activities it might attempt do not affect real systems. Security analysts can monitor the sandbox to observe the document's behavior, such as network connections it tries to establish, files it tries to access, or processes it attempts to start.
Let’s briefly review the other options:
A. Open the document on an air-gapped network: While an air-gapped network provides isolation from the internet, it does not provide the level of controlled analysis and observation that a dedicated analysis sandbox offers. Opening the document on an air-gapped network could still expose the network to potential risks. B. View the document's metadata for origin clues: Examining metadata can provide some clues about the document's origin, but it does not confirm whether the document contains malicious code or what actions it might perform if opened. C. Search for matching file hashes on malware websites: Checking file hashes on malware databases or websites can indicate if the document has been previously identified as malicious, but it does not provide real-time analysis or confirm the specific behavior of the document.
Therefore, D. Detonate the document in an analysis sandbox is the best option to safely gather information and confirm if the document is malicious without risking the security of the CFO’s computer or the company’s network.
A security analyst has received an alert about PII being sent via email. The analyst’s Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has made it clear that PII must be handled with extreme care. From which of the following did the alert MOST likely originate?
A. S/MIME
B. DLP
C. IMAP
D. HIDS
B. DLP (Data Loss Prevention).
Here’s why:
DLP (Data Loss Prevention): DLP solutions are designed to monitor and prevent sensitive data like PII from being sent outside the organization through various channels, including email. They can detect patterns or keywords that indicate the presence of sensitive information in emails and trigger alerts or take actions (such as blocking or quarantining the email) based on predefined policies. S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions): S/MIME is a standard for public key encryption and signing of MIME data. It enhances the security and authenticity of emails but does not specifically detect or prevent the transmission of PII. IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol): IMAP is a protocol used by email clients to retrieve messages from a mail server. It facilitates email access but is not directly related to monitoring or detecting PII in emails. HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System): HIDS monitors activities on individual hosts to detect suspicious behavior or signs of intrusion. While it may detect certain types of unauthorized access or actions on a host, it does not specifically monitor email content or PII transmission.
Therefore, considering the requirement to handle PII with extreme care and the nature of the alert about PII being sent via email, B. DLP (Data Loss Prevention) is the most likely source of the alert. DLP solutions are specifically designed to monitor and prevent the unauthorized transmission of sensitive data, such as PII, through email and other channels.
